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part IV
bio
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| 3. State the function of the glomerulus, the PCT, the peritubular capillaries the DCT and the collecting duct | the glomerulus filters proteins and cells from the blood. Collecting ducts all connect to form a ureter which sends urine down to the urinary bladder. Collecting ducts basically collect the urine that a nephron (a unit of kidney that filters) filters. |
| 4. The mechanism that establishes the medullary osmotic gradient depends most on the permeability properties of the: | Loop of henle |
| 5. Describe the path of the urine from the glomerulus to the outside | The ureters, in both males and females, transports the urine from the kidneys to the bladder where it is stored until it is convenient to release through the urethra. This release is called micturition, or more commonly, urination |
| 6. Describe the components of Bowman's capsule | A Bowman's capsule is part of the filtration system in the kidneys. When blood reaches the kidneys for filtration, it hits the Bowman's capsule first, with the capsule separating the blood into two components: a cleaned blood product, and a filtrate which |
| 7. An increase in the permeability of the cells of the collecting tubule to water is due to: | Increase in permeability of the cells of the collecting tubule to water is due to an increase in the production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Aquaporins are constant components of the tubule cells membranes. Unless ADH is present, aquaporins are virtual |
| 8. The urinary bladder is composed of ________ epithelium. | transitional |
| 9. The kidneys are stimulated to produce rennin under what circumstances | When arterial blood pressure drops and/or when the NaCl level of the filtrate is low. |
| 10. Blood vessels of the renal columns are called ____________ | Interlobar |
| 11. Which gland sits atop each kidney? | adrenal gland |
| 12. The ________ artery lies on the boundary between the cortex and medulla of the kidney. | arcuate |
| 13. The glomerulus differs from other capillaries in the body in that it: | its drained by an efferent arteriole |
| 14. Describe the water and ion permeability of the loop of Henle: | |
| 15. Describe the structure and motor function and innervation of the ureter. | |
| 16. The fatty tissue surrounding the kidneys is important because: | it stabilizes the position of the kidneys by holding them in their normal position |
| 17. The renal corpuscle is made up of: | #Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus |
| 18. The functional and structural unit of the kidneys is: | Nephrons |
| 19. The juxtaglomerular apparatus is responsible for: | regulating the rate of filtrate formation and controlling systemic blood pressure |
| 20. The chief force pushing water and solutes out of the blood across the filtration membrane is: | glomerular hydrostatic pressure (glomerular blood pressure) |
| 21. Describe the histology of the ureters. | they are trilayered (mucosa, muscularis, and adventitia) |
| 22. The first major branch of the renal artery is: | the first major branch of the renal artery is the Renal hilus |
| 23. What acts as the trigger for the initiation of micturition (voiding)? | generated by tension receptors in the bladder wall |
| 24. List the components of the filtration membrane. | microfiltration and ultrafiltration |
| 25. The mechanism of water reabsorption by the renal tubules is __________________ | active transport |
| 26. Describe electrolyte reabsorption by the renal tubules: | in the distal tubue segments |
| 27. The macula densa cells respond to: | changes in solute content of the filtrate |
| 28. List the materials that are reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubule? | 80% of the water and 65% of the substance$ |
| 29. The fluid in the glomerular (Bowman's) capsule is similar to plasma except that it does not contain a significant amount of: | albumin |
| 30. Alcohol acts as a diuretic because it: | inhibits the release of ADH |
| 31. The function of angiotensin II is to: | constrict arterioles and increase blood pressure |
| 32. An important characteristic of urine is its specific gravity or density, which is: | 1.020 to 1.028 g/mL |
| 33. What would happen if the capsular hydrostatic pressure were increased above normal? | the GFR would decrease |
| 34. List the parts of the juxtaglomerular apparatus? | a collection of cells located beside each renal glomerulus, consisting of a portion of the distal convoluted tubule arising from that glomerular capsule, segments of the afferent and efferent arterioles closest to the glomerulus, and cells lying between |
| 35. Describe the process of tubular reabsorption: | By active mehanisms usually invoves movement against an electrical or chemical gradeant |
| 36. Describe the appearance and chemical composition of urine | |
| 37. Reabsorption of high levels of glucose and amino acids in the filtrate is accomplished by: | secondary active transport |
| 38. While the kidneys process about 180 L of blood-derived fluids daily, the amount that actually leaves the body is: | 1% |
| 39. The factor favoring filtrate formation at the glomerulus is: | glomeral hydrostatic pressure |
| 40. If the Tm for a particular amino acid is 120 mg/100 ml and the concentration of that amino acid in the blood is 230 mg/100 ml, the amino acid will _______________ | appear in the urine |
| 41. If one says that the clearance value of glucose is zero, what does this mean? | normally all the glucose is reabsorbed |
| 42. Excretion of dilute urine requires: | impermeability of the collecting tubule to water |
| 43. Describe the path of a red blood cell entering the kidney through the renal artery and exiting through the renal vein. | |
| 44. Compare and contrast the thin and thick segments of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle: | |
| 45. The disruption in homeostasis known as pyelitis is: | an inflammation of the renal pelvis, often accompanied by symptoms such as pain and tenderness in the loins, irritability of the bladder, bloody or purulent urine, and a peculiar pain on flexion of the thigh |
| 46. The capillary bed that surrounds the descending and ascending loop of Henle is called the ________. | vasa recta |
| 47. Abnormally low output of urine is called ________. | |
| 48. Urine crystals in the renal pelvis are called ________. | renal calculi |
| 49. The areas on either side of the renal pyramids are called the renal ________. | columns |
| 50. The area between the ureters and urethra is called the ________ in a bladder. | trigone |
| 51. The ________ mechanism is the general tendency of vascular smooth muscle to contract when stretched. | myogenic |
| 52. The renal clearance rate equation is RC = ________. | UV/P; U = concentration (mg/ml) of the substance in urine; V = flow rate of urine formation (ml/min); P = concentration of the same substance in plasma |
| 53. The presence of pus in the urine is a condition called ________. | pyuria |
| 54. Sodium-linked water flow across a membrane is called ________ water reabsorption. | obligatory |
| 55. Explain the path of the blood vessels in the kidney. | |
| 56. Explain how filtration works in the glomerular capillaries. | |
| 57. List three substances that are abnormal urinary constituents and provide the proper clinical term for such abnormalities. | Abnormal urinary constituents include the following (the clinical term for each is listed in parentheses): glucose (glycosuria), proteins (proteinuria or albuminuria), ketone bodies (ketonuria), hemoglobin (hemoglobinuria), bile pigments (bilirubinuria), |
| 58. Explain the role of aldosterone in sodium and water balance. | Aldosterone targets the distal tubule and collecting duct and enhances sodium ion reabsorption so that very little leaves the body in urine. Aldosterone also causes increased water reabsorption because, as sodium is reabsorbed, water follows it back into |
| 59. Explain what is meant by the terms cotransport process and transport maximum. | Cotransport process refers to the active transport of one solute "uphill" (against a concentration gradient) coupled to the "downhill" (with a concentration gradient) movement of another during tubular reabsorption. Transport maximum reflects the number o |
| 60. Humans can survive for a period of time without water thanks to the ability of the kidneys to produce concentrated urine. Briefly explain what factors allow this to happen. | Facultative water reabsorption depends on the presence of antidiuretic hormone. In the presence of ADH, the pores of the collecting tubule enlarge and the filtrate loses water by osmosis as it passes through the medullary regions of increasing osmolarity. |
| 61. List and describe three pressures operating at the filtration membrane, and explain how each influences net filtration pressure. | Glomerular hydrostatic pressure is the chief force pushing water and solutes across the filtration membrane. The higher the glomerular hydrostatic pressure, the more filtrate is pushed across the membrane. Colloid osmotic pressure of plasma proteins in th |
| 62. In addition to the renin-angiotensin mechanism, the renal cells produce other chemicals. Name five, and briefly give the main function of each. | Renal cells also produce chemicals, some of which act locally as signaling molecules. These chemicals include prostaglandins (vasodilators and vasoconstrictors), which probably regulate GFR; nitric oxide, a potent vasodilator produced by the vascular end |
| 63. What are aquaporins? | Aquaporins are water-filled pores in water-permeable portions of the convoluted tubules such as the PCT |
| 64. Freshly voided urine has very little smell, but shortly after voiding it can take a very strong smell, why? | Freshly voided urine is relatively sterile but if it is allowed to stand, bacteria begin to metabolize the urea solutes to release ammonia and other smells depending on the person's diet. A fruity smell generally means there is a diabetes problem. |
| 65.Define the following terms: | Electrolytes:inorganic salts, all acids and bases, and some proteins |
| 65. | Nonelectrolytes: examples include glucose, lipids, creatinine, and urea$ |
| 65 | Extracellular, Intracellular, and Interstitial |
| 66. Define the following terms: | |
| Hypermagnesemia:Mg 2+ excess; >2.2 mEq/L | |
| Hypocalcemia#Ca 2+ deficit; < 4.5 mEq/L or 9 mg%$ | |
| Hypernatremia#Na+ excess; >145 mEq/L$ | |
| Hyperkalemia#K+ excess; > 5.5 mEq/L$ | |
| Hyponatremia#Na+ deficit; < 135 mEq/L$ | |
| 67. Define the following terms: | |
| 68. In which compartments are the following electrolytes highest in concentration: | Sodium ions (ECF), Potassium ions (ICF), Phosphate ions (ICF), Bicarbonate ions (ECF (buffer)), and Proteins(ECF) |
| Hypoproteinemia | a condition of unusually low evels of plasma proteins, results in tissue edema because protein-deficient plasma has abnormally low colloid pressure$ |
| Addison's disease | a disorder entailing deficient mineralocoricoid hormone production by the adrenal cortex$ |
| Aldosterone | the hormone that “has the most to say” about renal regulation of sodium ion concentrations in the ECF$ |
| Osmoreceptor | structure sensitive to osmotic pressure or concentration of a solution$ |
| 68. In which compartments are the following electrolytes highest in concentration: | Sodium ions (ECF), Potassium ions (ICF), Phosphate ions (ICF), Bicarbonate ions (ECF (buffer)), and Proteins(ECF) |
| 69. Water occupies two main fluid compartments within the body, the intracellular fluid compartment and the extracellular fluid compartment. How do the fluid volumes of these compartments compare | about two thirds by volume, contained in cells |
| 70. Edema may result from ______ | protein malnutrition, liver disease, or glomerulonephritis |
| 71. The fluid link between the external and internal environment is ______ | |
| 72. Whereas sodium is found mainly in the extracellular fluid, most ________ is found in the intracellular fluid. | potassium |
| 73. Describe the distribution of sodium and potassium between cells and body fluids? | Sodium is the chief cation of extrcellular fluid & Potassium is the chief cation of intracellular fluid; Sodium and potassium concentrations in extra- and intracellular fluids are nearly opposites |
| 74. The single most important factor influencing potassium ion secretion is ______ | |
| 75. What regulates he movement of fluids between cellular compartments? | |
| 76. Describe the maintenance of electrolyte balance and the factors which may disrupt it. | |
| 77. Describe the role of Parathyroid hormone | 1. Bones. Activates osteoclast 2. Small intestine. Enhances absorption of Ca 2+ 3. Kidneys. Increases Ca 2+ reabsorption (PTH filter’s Ca 2+) |
| 78. Extracellular fluid in the human body is composed of: | plasma and interstitial fluid (IF) |
| 79. Describe the causes of fluid shifts? | |
| 80. Which hormones are important in stimulating water conservation in the kidneys? The total body water is divided into intracellular and extracellular fluids. Plasma is considered: | plasma is ECF and ADH is important in water conservation of the kidney |
| 81. Disorders of water balance include: | dehydratio, hypotonic hydration, and edema |
| 82. Describe the mechanisms and consequences of the regulation of sodium. | |
| 83. One of the major physiological factors that triggers thirst is ______ | Diabetes, drug interaction, working in excess heat or humidity |
| 84. Annie has just eaten a large order of heavily salted french fries, some pickled eggs, and some cheese. How will consuming this much salt affect her physiology? | will cause osmolarity of the blood, temporary increase in blood volume, hypotension, pH will increase |
| 85. The most important force causing net water flow across capillary walls is: ______ | __electrolytes |
| 86. List those functions that depend on the presence of electrolytes? | Amount of body fat, neuromuscular excitability, membrane polarity,maintenance of osmotic relations between cells and ECF |
| 87. Describe the regulation of potassium balance: | resist the pH balance in the body fluids |
| 88. The term hypotonic hydration refers to: | Cellular overhydration, extraordinary amount of water is drunk very quickly |
| 89. Hypoproteinemia is a condition of unusually low levels of plasma proteins. This problem is often characterized by: | : Reduction in colloid osmotic pressure and results in tissue edema |
| 90. Which hormones are important in the regulation of sodium ion concentrations in the extracellular fluid? | Antidiuretic hormone, erythropoietin, aldosterone, renin |
| 91. Atrial natriuretic peptide is a hormone that is made in the atria of the heart. The influence of this hormone is: | High Blood Pressure |
| 92. The female hormone ________ seems to decrease sodium reabsorption, thus promoting sodium and water loss by the kidney. | |
| 93. The preferred intracellular negative ion is ________. | potassium, magnesium, and phosphorus |
| 94. The most important hormone that regulates calcium ions in the body is ________ | calcium |
| 95. ________ reduces blood pressure and volume by inhibiting nearly all events that promote vasoconstriction and the retention of sodium ions and water. | Atrial Natriuretic Peptide |
| 96. Describe the influence of rising PTH levels on bone, the small intestine, and the kidneys. | PTH is the antagonistic of calcitonin. It causes an increase in calcium levels in the blood by targeting the bone, intestines and kidneys. Triggered by falling blood calcium levels. And causes things like Hypersecretion-hypercalcemia, tetany, and respirat |
| 97. When the blood becomes hypertonic (too many solutes), ADH is released. What is the effect of ADH on the kidney tubules? | When blood volume increases the pressure is increased within the atria of the heart which then activates stretch receptors, which in turn send a signal for reduction of ADH release in the posterior pituitary, leading to less fluid to be reabsorbed by the |
| 98. When does a person experience greater thirst, during periods when ADH release is elicited or during periods when aldosterone release is elicited? | Bt ADH is the regulator of water output when the aldosterone deals with sodium apeptite |
| 99. Be able to identify the labeled structures in fig 26.8c | |
| 100. Be able to identify the structure of a fully mature sperm (fig 26.9-7) | |
| 101. Be able to identify the labeled structures in fig 26.12 | |
| 102. The dartos and cremaster muscles are important to the integrity of the male reproductive system. Describe the role they play? | Dartos is smooth skin that wrinkles scrotal skin and cremaster is bands of skeletal muscle that elevate the testes |
| 103. The ability of sperm cells to move along the ductus deferens is due to: | contraction of the epididymus |
| 104. The ability of a male to ejaculate is due to the action of: | Reproductive ducts and accessory organs to contract and empty their contents, Bulbospongiosus muscles to undergo a rapid series of contractions which causes propulsion of semen through the urethra |
| 105. The most important risk factor for testicular cancer in young males is: | cryptochidism |
| 106. Which gland is responsible for 60% of the synthesis of semen? | Seminal Vesicles |
| 107. Which hormone controls the release of anterior pituitary gonadotropins? | Hypothalamic hormones |
| 108. Development of male reproductive structures depends on ________________ | sex hormones |
| 109. The primary function of the uterus is to: | accept a fertilized ovum, womb |
| 110. The corpus luteum is: | ruptured follicle after ovulation |
| 111. The structures that receive the ovulated oocyte, providing a site for fertilization, are called: | fallopian tubes |
| 112. The female counterpart of the male scrotum is the ________________ | labia majora |
| 113. Human egg and sperm are similar in what way | have the same number of chromosomes |
| 114. The constancy of the chromosome number from one cell generation to the next is maintained through: | Mitosis |
| 115. Fertilization generally occurs in the: | Fallopian tubes |
| 116. Spermiogenesis involves: | the formation of a functional sperm by the stripping away of superfluous cytoplasm |
| 117. List the male secondary sex characteristics | enhanced growth of chest and deepening of voice, skin thickens and becomes oily, bones grow and increase in density, skeletal muscles increase in both size and mass |
| 118. In humans, separation of the cells at the two-cell state following fertilization may lead to the production of ____________ twins, | identical_______ twins |
| 119. Describe the characteristics of mature sperm | sperm contains a head, mid-piece, and a tail, which corresponding roughly to genetic, metabolic, and loco-motor regions |
| 120. Describe the functions of testosterone | A steroid hormone produced by the interstitial cells that stimulates the development of primary sex characteristics in males such as sex organs and reproductive structures. Also responsible for the development of secondary sex characteristics at puberty s |
| 121. Describe the effects of estrogen | growth of breast in puberty, promote oogenesis and follicle growth in the ovary, exert anabolic effects on the female reproductive tract, support growth spurt at puberty in girls |
| 122. Secretion of progesterone stimulates: | works with estrogen to establish and then help regulate the uterine cycle and promotes changes in cervical mucus, other effects are distributed during pregnancy when it inhibits uterine motility and takes up where estrogen leaves off in preparing the brea |
| 123. Describe the structure and function of sperm. | Head of a sperm consists almost entirely of its flattened nucleus, which contains the DNA, adhering to the top of the nucleus is a helmet like acrosome. The lysosome like acrosome is produced in the Golgi apparatus and contains hydrolytic enzymes that ena |
| 124. The cells that produce testosterone in the testis are called: | interstitial cells |
| 125. The testicular cells that construct the blood-testis barrier are the: | tight junctions between the sustentacular cells form |
| 126. Erection of the penis results from: | during sexual excitement: the erectile tissue fills with blood causing the penis to enlarge and become rigid |
| 127. Describe the proliferative phase of the female menstrual cycle? | First phase of the menstrual cycle in the uterus, follicles become mature |
| 128. Describe the structure of the testis and the function of individual tissues. | Each testes is surrounded by 2 tunics, Septa divide the testis into about 300 tubules, Seminiferous tubules:produce the sperm, Converge to form the tubulus rectus, surrounding these tubules are interstitial cells that produce androgens |
| 129. Describe the vascular and neural components of the male sexual response. | Engorgement of blood in the penis during arousal result in hardening and stiffening of the penis, during sexual arousal the PNS reflex promotes the release of nitric oxide which causes erectile tissue to fill with blood, Erection can be enhanced or inhibi |
| 130. Describe the gross and tissue level structure of the ovaries: | surrounded externally by fibrous tunica albuginea which is covered externally by a layer of cuboidal epithelia cells (germinal epithelium |
| 131. Describe the gross and tissue level structure of the mammary glands. | Modified sweat glands that consist of 15-25 lobes that radiate around and open at the nipple, suspensory ligaments attach the breast to underlying muscle fascia Lobes contain glandular alveoli that produce milk in lactating women, Compound alveolar glands |
| 132. What happens during the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle: | Day 15-28, endometrium prepares for implantation of the embryo (postovulatory phase) |
| 133. Describe the hormonal and structural changes of the uterine cycle. | Series of cyclic changes that the uterine endometrium goes through each month in response to ovarian hormones in the blood Days 1-5: Menstrual phase – uterus sheds all but the deepest part of the endometrium Days 6-14: Proliferative (preovulatory) phase |
| 134. What mechanism divides the testes into lobules? | Septa |
| 135. What do the mammary glands of both males and females have in common? | Develop breasts from the same embryological tissues, at puberty, female sex hormones promote breast development which does not occur in men, women’s breasts become far more prominent than those of men |
| 136. Normally menstruation occurs when: | : when estrogen and progesterone levels are low, shedding of the endometrial layer |
| 137. The basic difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis is that: | In oogenesis, 1 mature ovum is produced, and spermatogenesis 4 mature sperm are produced from one spermatocyte. Oogenesis produces 1 cell per 28 day cycle, spermatogenesis produces 25000 cells/minzperiodz. Oogenesis begins during the fetal period, sperma |
| 138. Occasionally three polar bodies are found clinging to the mature ovum. One came from an unequal division of the ovum, but from where did the other two arise? | The first polar body has also divided to produce two polar bodies |
| 139. What occurs after ovulation? | The ruptured follicle collapses,granulose cells enlarge, and along with internal thecal cells, forms the corpus luteum |
| 140. Describe the structure and function of the seminal vesicles: | lie on the posterior wall of the bladder and secrete 60% of the volume of semen, Join the ductus deferens to form the ejaculatory duct, sperm and seminal fluid mix in the ejaculatory duct and enter the prostatic urethra during ejaculation |
| 141. Define and describe spermatogenesis: | : the origin and development and development of spermatozoa. It begins during puberty, and from then on, each mitotic division of a spermatogenium results in two distinctive daughter cells-types a and b |
| 142. Describe the role of the brain-testicular axis: | Hormonal regulation of spermatogenesis and testicular androgen production involves interactions between the hypothalamus, anterior pituitary gland, and testes |
| 143. Describe the process of control of testosterone secretion. | The amount of testosterone and sperm produced reflects a balance among three sets of hormones: GnRH, which indirectly stimulates the testes via its effect on FSH and LH release, Gonadotropins, which directly stimulate the testes, Testicular hormones, whic |
| 144. Describe the structure and function of the uterine tubes? | Also known as the fallopian tubes and oviducts, form the initial part of the female duct system. Have little or no contact with the ovaries. It contains sheets of smooth muscle, and its thick, highly folded mucosa contains both ciliated and nonciliated ce |
| 145. Describe the hormonal events of the ovarian cycle. | Day 1 – GnRH stimulates the release of FSH and LH, FSH and LH stimulate follicle growth and maturation, and low-level estrogen release Rising estrogen levels:Inhibit the release of FSH and LH, Prod the pituitary to synthesize and accumulate these gonadotr |
| 146. Describe the pathogens which cause the common sexually transmitted diseases | Gonorrhea bacteria are spread by contact with genital, anal and pharyngeal mucosal surfaces. Syphilis is a corkscrew shaped bacteria and is usually transmitted sexually, but can be contacted congenitally from an infected moth. Chlamydia is a bacterium wit |
| 147. A boy who has not passed through puberty sustains an injury to his anterior pituitary such that FSH is no longer released, but LH is normal. After he grows to maturity, one would expect that he would: | Be Sterile |
| 148. A low secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) in the normal male adult would cause: | decreased testosterone secretion |
| 149. List the components of the duct system of the male reproductive system | epdidymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, and urethra |
| 150. The ________ plexus of testicular veins assists in cooling the testis. | pempiniform |
| 151. Surgical cutting of the ductus deferens as a form of birth control is called a ________. | vasectomy |
| 152. The erectile tissue around the urethra is the corpus ________. | spongiosum |
| 153. The midpiece of the sperm tail contains mostly ________. | mitochondria spiraled tightly around the contractile filaments of the tail |
| 154. The ________ cells of the testis nourish the newly formed sperm cells. | sustentacular |
| 155. The suspensory and mesovarium ligaments are part of the ________ ligament. | broad |
| 156. A follicle with only small antrums in it would be classified as a ________ follicle. | secondary |
| 157. The small opening of the uterus that sperm would first enter is called the ________. | cervix |
| 158. The portion of the uterine endometrium that is not sloughed off every month is called the ________. | basal layer |
| 159. ________ is caused by Treponema pallidum. | Syphilis |
| 160. What are some risk factors for developing breast cancer? | Early onset of menses and late menopause, first pregnancy late in life or no pregnancies at all, family history of cancer, postmenopausal hormone replacement |
| 161. What is the name given to the female homologue to the penis? | Clitoris |
| 162. Describe the composition and functional roles of semen. | It is milky white, somewhat sticky mixture of sperm and accessory gland secretions. The liquid provides a transport medium and nutrients and contains chemicals that protect and activate the sperm and facilitate their movement. |
| 163. Explain the function of the myometrium and endometrium. | Myometrium contracts rhythmically during childbirth to expel the baby from the mothers body. Endometrium holds a fertilized embryo and allows it to reside there for the rest of development. |
| 164. What signals the corpus luteum to continue producing hormones if the oocyte is fertilized? | the fertilization of the oocyte saves the degeneration of the corpus luteum and allows it to continue producing progesterone |
| 165. What is the purpose of the male bulbourethral gland? | They produce a thick, clear mucus, some of which drains into the spongy urethra when a man becomes sexually excited and neutralizes traces of acidic urine in the urethra. |
| 166. What is the physiological importance of the fact that the male testes descend to reside in the scrotal sac? | Because viable sperm cannot be produced in abundance at core body temp., the superficial location of the scrotom, which provides a temp of about 3 degrees lower, is an essential adaptation. |
| 167. Ovulation occurs when the oocyte is released into the peritoneal cavity. By what means does it usually enter the fallopian tube? | To wait to be fertilized |
| 168. Assume that a woman could be an "on-demand" ovulator like a rabbit, in which copulation stimulates the hypothalamic-AP axis and causes LH release and an oocyte was ovulated and fertilized on day 26 of her 28-day cycle. Why would a successful pregnanc |
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