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AP 150q
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| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Intrinsic control: usually involves the endocrine or nervous system. operates at the cellular level. is sometimes called autoregulation. operates at the system or organism level. | |
| The body’s thermostat is located in the: Group of answer choices heart. cerebellum. pituitary. hypothalamus. | |
| Positive-feedback control systems: Group of answer choices have no effect on the deviation from set point. accelerate a change. ignore a change. do not exist in human system | |
| Epidemiology is the study of the _____ of diseases in human populations. Group of answer choices occurrence distribution transmission All of the above are correct. | |
| Pathogenesis can be defined as: Group of answer choices a specific disease. a group of diseases. the course of disease development. a subgroup of viruses. | |
| Which of the following is not one of the basic components in a feedback control loop? Group of answer choices Effector mechanism Transmitter Sensor Integrating center | |
| Which of the following may put one at risk for developing a given disease? Group of answer choices Environment Stress Lifestyle All of the above | |
| Intracellular parasites that consist of DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat and sometimes by a lipoprotein envelope are called: Group of answer choices viruses. bacteria. fungi. protozoa. | |
| Of the pathogenic organisms, which of the following are the most complex? Group of answer choices Viruses Tapeworms Bacteria Protozoa | |
| The contraction of the uterus during the birth of a baby is an example of _____ feedback. Group of answer choices negative positive inhibitory deviating | |
| Which of the following is a protein substance with no DNA or RNA and is thought to be the cause of mad cow disease? Group of answer choices Virus Bacteria Prion Protozoan | |
| The normal reading or range of normal is called the: Group of answer choices sensor point. set point. effector point. integrator point. | |
| Homeostasis can best be described as: Group of answer choices a constant state maintained by living and nonliving organisms. a state of relative constancy. adaptation to the external environment. changes in body temperature. | |
| Negative-feedback control systems: Group of answer choices oppose a change. accelerate a change. have no effect on the deviation from set point. establish a new set point. | |
| Negative-feedback mechanisms: Group of answer choices minimize changes in blood glucose levels. maintain homeostasis. are responsible for an increased rate of sweating when air temperature is higher than body temperature. All of the above | |
| The types of lipids found that form hormones, such as cortisone, estrogen, and testosterone are: Group of answer choices triglycerides. phosphoglycerides. steroids. prostaglandins. | |
| Unsaturated fats: contain all the hydrogen atoms they can hold. contain only single bonds between carbon atoms. are usually solids at room temperature. will kink or bend because of the double bonds between the carbon atoms. | |
| Which lipid is part of vitamin D? Group of answer choices Glycerol Steroids Prostaglandins Fatty acids | |
| A structural lipid found in the cell membrane is a: Group of answer choices triglyceride. phospholipid. steroid. Both B and C are correct. | |
| Sometimes referred to as animal starch, _____ is the main polysaccharide in the body. Group of answer choices sucrose maltose glucose glycogen | |
| DNA: Group of answer choices is a single strand of nucleotides. contains the sugar ribose. is a double-helix strand of nucleotides. transports amino acids during protein synthesis. | |
| The term glycoprotein, a combination of two words, tells you that the compound is made of __, with __ being the dominant component. a lipid and a protein; the lipid carbohydrate and protein; carbohydrate a lipid and a protein; the protein carb | |
| Which of the following is not true of carbohydrates? They include substances commonly called sugars. They are the body’s primary source of energy. They are a part of both DNA and RNA. All of the above are true of carbohydrates. | |
| Which of the following is not one of the major groups of organic substances in the human body? Group of answer choices Proteins Salts Lipids Nucleic acids | |
| A _____ is a functional group that is temporarily unattached and is highly reactive because of unpaired electrons. Group of answer choices hydroxyl phosphate amine group free radical | |
| The formation of sucrose involves the removal of a molecule of water. This is called: Group of answer choices hydrolysis. oxidation. decomposition. dehydration synthesis. | |
| The amino group in an amino acid is: Group of answer choices NH3+. COO–. symbolized by the letter R. SO2. | |
| What is the most important factor in determining the physical and chemical properties of fatty acids? Group of answer choices Degree of saturation Presence of glycerol Available bonds of hydrocarbons Polarity | |
| The roles played by proteins can be divided into which categories? Group of answer choices Structural and functional Chemical and functional Structural and chemical Dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis | |
| The element that is present in all proteins but not in carbohydrates is: Group of answer choices carbon. hydrogen. oxygen. nitrogen. | |
| A tissue is: Group of answer choices a membrane that lines body cavities. a group of similar cells that perform a common function. a thin sheet of cells embedded in a matrix. the most complex organizational unit of the body. | |
| Basement membrane is composed of molecules made by _____ tissue. Group of answer choices muscle connective epithelial Both B and C are correct. | |
| Mucous membranes are important because they lubricate and protect passageways. Group of answer choices True False | |
| What structure is formed by the union of the basal and reticular lamina? Group of answer choices Nucleus Basement membrane Lysosome Endoplasmic reticulum | |
| Which of the following is not a proteoglycan found in the matrix of connective tissue? Group of answer choices Glucosamine Collagen Hyaluronic acid All of the above are proteoglycans. | |
| The area referred to as true skin is the: Group of answer choices stratum corneum. subcutaneous layer. dermis. hypodermis | |
| The papillary layer of the dermis: Group of answer choices is responsible for cleavage or tension lines in the skin. does not contain blood vessels. produces the ridges that make fingerprints. contains large deposits of fat. | |
| Which tissue is most likely to form a keloid scar as it heals? Group of answer choices Muscle Nervous Epithelial Connective | |
| The hypodermis: Group of answer choices connects the dermis to underlying tissues. is the layer of skin in which hair is produced. connects the dermis and the epidermis. is the layer of skin in which the nails are produced. | |
| Which of the following is not a characteristic of smooth muscles? Group of answer choices Having one nucleus per cell Having intercalated disks Composing the walls of the viscera Usually not being under voluntary control | |
| Which type of tissue has the greatest capacity to regenerate? Group of answer choices Muscle Nervous Epithelial All of the above tissue have about equal ability to regenerate. | |
| Which type of connective tissue helps newborns maintain body temperature by producing heat? Group of answer choices Dense fibrous tissue Beige fat Brown fat White fat | |
| Which cells electrically insulate axons to increase the speed of conduction? Group of answer choices Oligodendrocytes Schwann cells Astrocytes Both A and B | |
| Which is not a function of epithelial tissue? Group of answer choices Absorption Secretion Assimilation Protection | |
| Of the five epidermal cell layers, the only one that can undergo mitosis is the stratum: Group of answer choices basale. lucidum. corneum. granulosum. | |
| Due to how the clavicle articulates with the scapula, all shoulder movements involve the sternoclavicular joint. Group of answer choices True False | |
| In intramembranous ossification, the process of appositional growth refers to the: development of a core layer of spongy bone. development of compact bone in long bones. addition of an outside layer of osseous tissue on flat bones. lengthening | |
| Please select the bone positioned most superiorly on the human skeleton Group of answer choices frontal mandible vomer xiphoid process | |
| The cells responsible for active erosion of bone minerals are called: Group of answer choices osteocytes. osteoclasts. osteoblasts. osteomorphytes. | |
| The humerus articulates proximally with the clavicle. Group of answer choices True False | |
| An age-related skeletal disease that is characterized by loss of bone mineral density and increased bone fragility is Group of answer choices neoplasms. Paget’s disease. osteoporosis. osteomalacia. | |
| As the activity of osteoblasts increases, the: Group of answer choices level of calcium in the blood increases. amount of calcium in bone increases. level of calcium in the blood decreases. Both B and C occur. | |
| Calcification of the organic bone matrix occurs when Group of answer choices complex calcium salts are deposited in the matrix. complex calcium salts are removed. calcium is replaced by phosphorus. calcium is replaced by myeloid tissue. | |
| If there is an injury to the occipital bone you may expect that which sense is damaged? Group of answer choices hearing speech smell vision | |
| Before childbirth, the symphysis pubis softens. Group of answer choices True False | |
| The ulna articulates proximally with the: Group of answer choices carpal bones. humerus. scapula. None of the above is correct. | |
| During childbirth, a baby passes through an imaginary plane called the: Group of answer choices pelvic outlet. symphysis pubis. pelvic brim. ilium. | |
| Bones act as a reservoir for which of the following minerals? (SATA) Copper Calcium Phosphorus Both B and C | |
| Young children’s bones have a greater risk of fracturing because of incompletely ossified bone. Group of answer choices True False | |
| The primary ossification center of a long bone is located: Group of answer choices in the diaphysis. in the epiphysis. in the medullary cavity. at the epiphyseal cartilage. | |
| Rotator cuff surgery is performed quite commonly on professional baseball players, especially pitchers. Evidently, the throwing motion places enormous stress on the: Group of answer choices elbow. wrist. shoulder. hip. | |
| The type of movement possible at a synovial joint depends on the: Group of answer choices amount of synovial fluid in the joint. shape of the articulating surfaces of the bones. presence of bursae in the joint. Both A and B are correct. | |
| The lactate produced by anaerobic respiration is converted back to glucose in the: Group of answer choices lungs. liver. mitochondria. sarcoplasmic reticulum. | |
| Which of the following is not one of the major functions of muscles? Group of answer choices Movement Protection Heat production Posture | |
| The first event to occur in muscle relaxation is that: tropomyosin returns to its original position. myosin cross-bridges are prevented from binding to actin. the sarcoplasmic reticulum begins actively pumping calcium back into its sacs. acety | |
| Cross-bridges are also called: Group of answer choices myosin heads. motor end plates. synapses. motor neurons. | |
| Which joint allows for the most movement? Group of answer choices Gliding Saddle Ball and socket Trochoid | |
| White fibers are also called _____ fibers. Group of answer choices fast slow elongated intermediate | |
| Attempting to pick up an object too heavy to lift would result in which type of muscle contraction? Group of answer choices Isotonic Flaccid Treppe Isometric | |
| The purpose of creatine phosphate in muscle contraction is to: Group of answer choices carry oxygen. store calcium. replenish energy supply. rotate the cross-bridges. | |
| Which type of muscle is responsible for peristalsis? Group of answer choices Multiunit smooth Single-unit smooth Cardiac Striated | |
| Which muscle group extends the vertebral column and also flexes the back laterally and rotates it a little? Group of answer choices erector spinae levator ani rectus abdominis serratus anterior | |
| Thick myofilaments extend the length of the: Group of answer choices A-band. Z-line. I-band. None of the above are correct. | |
| Stretching the foot down and back and pointing the toe is called: Group of answer choices plantar flexion. dorsiflexion. hyperextension. abduction. | |
| Skeletal muscles are innervated by: Group of answer choices somatic motor neurons. autonomic motor neurons. both somatic and autonomic motor neurons. internal stimulation. | |
| Which is true of an action potential? Group of answer choices The plasma membrane is impermeable to Na+ and K+ ions. Na+ ions move extracellularly. The charges become equal on the outside and inside of the plasma membrane. The outside of the | |
| Which of the following statements about amino acid neurotransmitters is incorrect? Group of answer choices They are among the most common neurotransmitters in the central nervous system (CNS). They are all inhibitory neurotransmitters. Glycine i | |
| A term commonly used as a synonym for action potential is Group of answer choices nerve impulse. stimulus. repolarization. depolarization. | |
| The fastest nerve fibers in the body can conduct an impulse that is how much faster than the slowest fibers in the body? Group of answer choices Almost 50 times faster Almost 100 times faster Almost 300 times faster Almost 500 times faster | |
| During a relative refractory period: Group of answer choices the action potential cannot be initiated. a resting potential exists. the cell membrane is impermeable to Na+ and K+. the action potential can be initiated with a strong stimulus. | |
| The first event to occur when an adequate stimulus is applied to a neuron is: Group of answer choices the membrane potential moves immediately to a value of +30 mV. the potassium channels open. the sodium channels are inactivated. some of the | |
| Stimulus-gated channels open in response to: Group of answer choices sensory stimuli. the influx of potassium. hyperpolarization. both A and B. | |
| Severe depression can be caused by a deficit in certain brain synapses of: Group of answer choices acetylcholine. amines. amino acids. neuropeptides. | |
| The brief period during which a local area of an axon's membrane resists re-stimulation is called the __________ period. refractor resting repolarization action | |
| Which of the following antidepressants acts by blocking the action of monoamine oxidase (MAO)? Group of answer choices Phenelzine Imipramine Amitriptyline Cocaine | |
| Which of the following is not one of the main chemical classes of neurotransmitters? Group of answer choices Triglycerides Amines Amino acids Neuropeptides | |
| Which is true of a neuron with a resting potential? Group of answer choices The cell membrane is permeable to Na+ but impermeable to K+ ions. The outer surface of the plasma membrane has a negative charge. The highest concentration of K+ is extr | |
| Which neuron could transmit a nerve impulse the fastest? Group of answer choices A small-diameter neuron without myelin A large-diameter neuron without myelin A large-diameter neuron with myelin A small-diameter neuron with myelin | |
| The fastest nerve fibers in the body can conduct impulses up to approximately _____ meters per second. Group of answer choices 60 85 130 190 | |
| A slight shift away from the resting membrane potentials in a specific region of the plasma membrane is called a _____ potential. Group of answer choices membrane resting membrane local None of the above is correct. | |
| Which of the following statements is not true? Group of answer choices The parasympathetic division is the dominant controller of most autonomic effectors most of the time. Under quiet, nonstressful conditions, more impulses reach autonomic effecto | |
| Acetylcholine can stimulate _____ receptors. Group of answer choices alpha beta nicotinic both alpha and beta | |
| The cerebellum acts with the _____ to produce skilled movement. Group of answer choices hypothalamus thalamus pons cerebrum | |
| If the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal nerve were destroyed, a person would lose _____ related to that pathway. Group of answer choices sensory perception willed movement only reflex activity both reflex activity and sensation | |
| The preganglionic neurons of both the sympathetic and the parasympathetic divisions are cholinergic. Group of answer choices True | |
| Somatic motor and autonomic pathways share all of the following characteristics except: Group of answer choices direction of information flow. location of peripheral fibers. number of neurons between central nervous system (CNS) and effector. | |
| The vomiting reflex is mediated by the: Group of answer choices cerebrum. medulla. thalamus. cerebellum. | |
| Which of the following is not an example of sympathetic stimulation? Group of answer choices Constriction of the bronchioles Decreased secretion of the pancreas Constriction of the urinary sphincters Dilation of skeletal muscle blood vessels | |
| How does a dually innervated autonomic effector differ from a singly innervated autonomic effector? Group of answer choices A dually innervated effector receives input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways. A singly innervated autonomic e | |
| Impulses sent over which of the following tracts could result in voluntary movement, especially of the hands, fingers, feet, and toes of the opposite side? Group of answer choices Medial reticulospinal Lateral reticulospinal Ventral corticospina | |
| Impulses from the _____ play a part in arousing or alerting the cerebrum. Group of answer choices pons thalamus cerebellum hypothalamus | |
| The knee jerk can be classified as a segmental reflex because: Group of answer choices the center of the reflex arc lies in the spinal cord gray matter. impulses that mediate it enter and leave the same segment of the cord. the impulses that med | |
| The parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions always act with a cooperative influence, and through summation of the impulses, the effect can be increased. Group of answer choices True False | |
| All of the following are examples of parasympathetic stimulation except: Group of answer choices contraction of the urinary bladder. relaxation of the sphincters of the digestive tract. increased salivation. increased heart rate. | |
| Normal infants will show the Babinski reflex up to the age of _____ years. Group of answer choices 1.5-2 5 1 3 | |
| The two-point discrimination test can be used to measure: Group of answer choices visual acuity. the ability to determine the location of a sound. the sensitivity of the skin in various parts of the body. the ability to measure the relative t | |
| The olfactory tract carries impulses associated with: Group of answer choices taste. equilibrium. smell. pain. | |
| One of the few hormones that functions on a positive-feedback loop is: Group of answer choices ADH. calcitonin. oxytocin. insulin. | |
| Which of the following is not true of a receptor potential? Group of answer choices It follows the all-or-none law. It is a graded response. It occurs when an adequate stimulus acts on a receptor. It can stimulate an action potential in the a | |
| Which of the following is not a characteristic of the endocrine system? Group of answer choices Chemical messenger travels a short distance. Effector tissues include virtually all tissues. Receptors are located on the plasma membrane or within t | |
| All of the following are true statements except: Group of answer choices there are at least 16 different prostaglandins. the first prostaglandin was identified in semen. aspirin produces some of its effects by increasing PGE synthesis. PGFs h | |
| The receptors responsible for sensing crude and persistent touch are the: Group of answer choices Meissner corpuscles. Krause end bulbs. Ruffini corpuscles. free nerve endings. | |
| When you are looking at a large green field, which cones would be sending the green wavelength to the brain? Group of answer choices G L S M | |
| Which of the following is true about pain receptors? Group of answer choices Alpha fibers respond to chronic pain. Alpha fibers are associated with dull, aching pain. Alpha fibers are associated with sharp, localized pain. Beta fibers are ass | |
| Visceroceptors are located in which of the following? Group of answer choices Skin Tendons Internal organs Skeletal muscles | |
| The last step in the nonsteroid hormone mechanism of action is: Group of answer choices joining with the G protein on the cell membrane. protein kinases activate other enzymes. adenyl cyclase is activated. cAMP is formed. | |
| Clearness or sharpness of visual perception is known as: Group of answer choices control peripheral sense visual acuity visual balance | |
| Accommodation for near vision necessitates Group of answer choices an increase in the curvature of the lens. constriction of the pupils. convergence of the two eyes. all of the above. | |
| All of the following are nonsteroid hormones except: Group of answer choices oxytocin. calcitonin. cortisol. glucagon. | |
| If you slammed your finger in a car door, it would stimulate _____ pain fibers. Group of answer choices chronic acute visceral both chronic and visceral | |
| In the extrinsic pathway of stage 1 of the clotting mechanism, chemicals released from damaged tissues trigger the cascade of events that ultimately result in the formation of Group of answer choices calcium. vitamin K. prothrombin activator. | |
| The mechanisms of which three hormones work together to regulate blood volume? Group of answer choices aldosterone, ANH, and TSH aldosterone, TSH, and ADH aldosterone, ANH, and ADH aldosterone, ADH, and LH | |
| Which of the following is(are) involved in determining a person’s total blood volume? Group of answer choices Age Body type Sex All of the above | |
| Which of the following is not true of ventricles? Group of answer choices They are the pumping chambers of the heart. The myocardium of the ventricles is thicker than that of the atria. The myocardium of the left ventricle is thicker than that o | |
| The localized pressure gradient needed to maintain blood flow in a tissue is called Group of answer choices regional pressure. perfusion pressure. systolic pressure. diastolic pressure. | |
| The chemoreceptors in the carotid bodies are particularly sensitive to: Group of answer choices hypercapnia. hypoxia. a decrease in blood pH. an increase in the hydrogen ion concentration of the blood. | |
| Circulatory shock caused by a drop in the amount of blood in the circulatory system is called _____ shock. Group of answer choices hypovolemic cardiogenic anaphylactic septic | |
| Inhibition of sympathetic vasoconstrictor impulses is considered a major mechanism of Group of answer choices vasoconstriction. vasodilation. vasopressure. vasomotor control. | |
| A decrease in the amount of white blood cells is called Group of answer choices leukocytosis. leukopenia. differential white blood cell count. hemostasis. | |
| Neutrophils are highly mobile and phagocytic. They migrate out of blood vessels and into tissue spaces. This process is called Group of answer choices diapedesis. chemotaxis. erythroblastosis. hematopoiesis. | |
| Which of these substances operate(s) immune mechanisms? Group of answer choices sebum mucus enzymes hydrochloric acid in gastric mucosa all of the above | |
| Which protein interferes with the ability of viruses to cause disease? Group of answer choices natural killer cell interferon macrophage viral enzyme | |
| The functions of the lymph nodes are Group of answer choices defense and hemostasis. defense and diapedesis. defense and hematopoiesis. hematopoiesis and hemostasis. | |
| The ability of our immune system to attack abnormal or foreign cells but spare our own normal cells is called: Group of answer choices innate immunity. nonspecific immunity. self-tolerance. adaptive immunity. | |
| Which antibody is synthesized by immature B cells and then inserted into their plasma membranes? Group of answer choices immunoglobulin M immunoglobulin G immunoglobulin A immunoglobulin E immunoglobulin D | |
| Which organ has several functions, including defense, hematopoiesis, red blood cell and platelet destruction, and blood reservoir? Group of answer choices thymus thyroid spleen thalamus | |
| Pyrogen molecules trigger the fever response by promoting the production of Group of answer choices leukotrienes. prostaglandins. antibodies. cytokines. | |
| Adaptive immunity, part of the body’s third line of defense, is orchestrated by two different classes of a type of white blood cell called the Group of answer choices leukocyte. macrophage. lymphocyte. phagocyte. | |
| _____ refers to a phenomenon in which the genetic characteristics common to a particular kind of organism provide defense against certain pathogens. Group of answer choices Inflammatory response Antigen resistance Immunity resistance Species | |
| The movement of phagocytes from blood vessels to an inflammation site is called Group of answer choices phagocytosis. pavementing. diapedesis. apedesis. | |
| The presentation of an antigen by an antigen-presenting cell activates the T cell. The cell then divides repeatedly to form a clone of identical sensitized T cells that form Group of answer choices effector T cells and cytokines. effector T cells a | |
| Complement can best be described as a(n): Group of answer choices enzyme in blood. lymphokine. antibody. hormone. | |
| The function of which antibody is basically unknown? Group of answer choices IgE IgD IgM IgA | |
| Lymphocytes that kill many types of tumor cells and cells infected by different kinds of viruses are known as Group of answer choices phagocytes. leukocytes. natural killer cells. macrophages. | |
| Recognition of antigens by antibodies occurs when an Group of answer choices antibody attaches to the target cell’s antigen binding site. antigen’s epitopes fit into and bind to an antigen molecule’s antigen-binding site. antibody’s epitopes fit | |
| One hundred milliliters of arterial blood contains approximately what volume percent of oxygen? Group of answer choices 10% 15% 20% 25% | |
| If the tidal volume of a given individual is 500 ml, then the anatomical dead space is approximately _____ ml. Group of answer choices 50 100 150 200 | |
| The function of surfactant is to: Group of answer choices transport oxygen from the air to the blood. transport carbon dioxide from the blood to the air. prevent each alveolus from collapsing as air moves in and out during respiration. trap f | |
| The PCO2 in the atmosphere is: Group of answer choices less than in the alveolar air. greater than in the alveolar air. equal to the alveolar air. greater than arterial blood. | |
| The major form by which carbon dioxide is transported in the circulatory system is: Group of answer choices in solution. as bicarbonate ions. as carbaminohemoglobin. none of the above. | |
| The vital capacity is equal to the sum of the: Group of answer choices inspiratory capacity and the residual volume. inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume, and expiratory reserve volume. tidal volume, residual volume, and expiratory reserve v | |
| About 98.5% of the oxygen carried by systemic arterial blood is attached to: Group of answer choices bicarbonate ions. hemoglobin. carbaminohemoglobin. chloride ions. | |
| Which of the following is not a regulated process associated with the functioning of the respiratory system? Group of answer choices Transport of gases Gas exchange in lungs and tissue Control of cell metabolism rate Pulmonary ventilation | |
| By the time the blood leaves the lung capillaries to return to the heart, what percentage of the blood’s hemoglobin has united with oxygen? Group of answer choices 55% 63% 82% 97% | |
| During inspiration, the expansion of the lungs causes: Group of answer choices cohesion of visceral and parietal pleura. a pressure gradient from alveoli to atmosphere. a decrease in alveolar pressure. an increase in intrathoracic pressure fr | |
| Which of the following is not a true statement? Group of answer choices When the diaphragm relaxes, it returns to a domelike shape. When the diaphragm contracts, it pulls the floor of the thoracic cavity downward. Changes in thorax size bring ab | |
| The approximate partial pressure of oxygen at standard atmospheric pressure is about _____ mm Hg. Group of answer choices 23 160 300 590 | |
| Which of the following combinations in arterial blood could cause an increase in the respiratory rate? Group of answer choices Increased PCO2, decreased arterial pressure, decreased pH, decreased PO2 Increased PCO2, decreased arterial pressure, inc |
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