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Autoclaves are designed to kill which of the following heat-resistant microbes?
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Human pathogens are generally which type of microbe?
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Final micro 3&4
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Autoclaves are designed to kill which of the following heat-resistant microbes? | endospores |
| Human pathogens are generally which type of microbe? | mesophiles |
| Life-threatening diseases caused by bacterial pathogens should be treated with which of the following? | bactericidal agents only |
| Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a common pathogen that infects the airways of patients with cystic fibrosis. It does not grow in the absence of oxygen. The bacterium is probably which of the following? | an obligate aerobe |
| Which describes the condition in which blood contains actively dividing bacteria? | septicemia |
| Which of the following choices lists the steps of pathogenesis in the correct order? | exposure, adhesion, invasion, infection |
| Which of the following is not an example of evidence used by John Snow to determine that cholera was being transmitted by water in London in the 1800s? | microscopic examination of water |
| Which of the following statements about quarantine is false? | Public health authorities can quarantine patients for any diseases. |
| Which of the following terms refers to the ability of an antimicrobial drug to harm the target microbe without harming the host? | selective toxicity |
| Which of the following would be a virulence factor of a pathogen? | a surface protein allowing the pathogen to bind to host cells |
| During what period of infectious disease is a patient capable of transmitting the disease to others? | during all periods of a disease |
| What is an organism that can grow without oxygen but that grows best with oxygen called? | Facultative anaerobe |
| During which stage of growth are bacteria most resistant to antibiotics and why? | The stationary stage because microbes at this stage have slower metabolic activities, so they are less susceptible to antibiotics that target those activities. |
| Which of the following is NOT a reason for the difficulty in treating biofilms? | Biofilms are usually only formed by antibiotic resistant bacteria. |
| Liquid growth media that contain antibiotics should be sterilized using which method? | membrane filtration |
| Which method of microbial control introduces double-strand breaks into DNA? | ionizing radiation |
| Which of the following is a false statement? | HEPA filters can remove dust and dirt but are unable to filter airborne virions. |
| Which of the following is a cleaning protocol that lowers microbial load to public health standards? | Sanitization |
| Foodborne disease outbreaks from the consumption of candy bars is rare because it is controlled by which of the following methods? | Lowering water activity |
| Which of the following is a false statement? | Individuals cannot have MRSA as part of their normal flora or microbiota. |
| A second infection that emerges due to killing of protective flora during antibiotic treatment is called? | superinfection |
| Mary Mallon, aka Typhoid Mary, was which type of carrier? | asymptomatic |
| Which of the following types of medical items requires sterilization? | needles |
| Which of the following is a true statement? | The addition of salt or sugar to food preserves food by dehydrating the food. |
| Which clinical situation would be appropriate for treatment with a narrow-spectrum antimicrobial drug? | treatment of strep throat caused by culture identified Streptococcus pyogenes |
| Which of the following precautions can reduce the risk of increasing antimicrobial resistance? | Narrow-spectrum antibiotics should be prescribed whenever possible,use of antibacterial soaps 4 everyday use should be avoided,Antibiotics should not be prescribed for viral infections,Patient should finish taking entire course of antibiotics |
| Reassortment of genes responsible for the production of influenza virus spike proteins between different virus particles while co-infecting the same host is called? | antigenic shift |
| A mosquito bites a person who subsequently develops a fever and abdominal rash. What type of transmission would this be? | biological vector transmission |
| One effect of washing regularly with antibacterial agents is the removal of normal microbiota. This can result in? | increased susceptibility to disease. |
| Protozoan and helminthic diseases are difficult to treat because? | their cells are structurally and functionally similar to human cells. |
| During which period of disease is a patient most susceptible to developing a secondary infection? | period of decline |
| How does penicillin work? | Penicillin binds to penicillin-binding proteins, thus inhibiting the transpeptidation reaction during cell wall synthesis. |
| Infected fleas that have the bacterium Yersinia pestis growing inside them are able to transmit plague. In this case, the infected fleas are best described as which of the following? | Biological vector |
| Quorum sensing is used by bacterial cells to determine which of the following? | the density of the population |
| Which clinical situation would be appropriate for treatment with a narrow-spectrum antimicrobial drug? | treatment of strep throat caused by culture identified Streptococcus pyogenes |
| Which describes the difference between a secondary infection and a superinfection? | A superinfection is a type of secondary infection that can develop when antibiotics kill much of the patient’s normal flora. |
| Which is a reason for antimicrobial resistance being higher in a biofilm than in free-floating bacterial cells? | Cells are metabolically inactive at the base of a biofilm. |
| Which of the following is an example of a nosocomial disease? | obtaining a Pseudomonas respiratory infection during a recent visit to the hospital |
| In which of the following patterns of disease does the patient experience no signs or symptoms? | incubation and convalescence |
| Superantigens produce intense immune responses by stimulating lymphocytes to produce ____________. | cytokines |
| Benzimidazoles and avermectins are used to treat which type of infection? | helminth |
| Capnophiles are bacteria that grow best under which of the following conditions? | relatively high CO2 and relatively low oxygen concentrations |
| During which phase would penicillin, an antibiotic that inhibits cell-wall synthesis, be most effective? | log phase |
| Food spoilage is often caused by which type of microbe? | psychrotrophs |
| Listeria monocytogenes, the causative agent of listeriosis, can pass through the blood-placenta barrier to infect a fetus. This type of transmission to the fetus is known as which of the following? | vertical direct contact |
| Molecular Koch’s postulates are used to identify which characteristic of pathogens? | virulence factor genes |
| The decimal reduction time (D-value) is how long it takes to kill which percentage of a microbial population? | 90% |
| Which method of microbial control does not rely on denaturing proteins and/or disrupting the integrity of the cell membrane? | lyophilization |
| Which of the following best describes the cell membranes of microbes that thrive at low temperatures? | They have relatively high amounts of unsaturated fatty acids. |
| Which of the following is a common secondary fungal disease? | oral thrush |
| Which pathogen cannot pass the blood–placenta barrier and infect a fetus? | Salmonella typhi |
| Endotoxins such as LPS (lipid A) are ___________________. | part of the gram-negative cell wall |
| Which of the following pathogens undergoes antigenic variation to avoid immune defenses? | Plasmodium |
| Drug resistance occurs? | when antibiotics are used indiscriminately. |
| After antigen presentation and activation, antibodies are produced and secreted by which cells? | plasma cells |
| All of the following are affects of histamine EXCEPT ? | fever. |
| All of the following are generally used in vaccines EXCEPT? | antibodies |
| All of the following are true of hypersensitivity EXCEPT? | it occurs when an individual is exposed to an allergen for the first time. |
| All of the following occur during inflammation. What is the first step? | vasodilation |
| Anaphylaxis is the term for reactions caused when certain antigens combine with | IgE antibodies. |
| Chemotherapy to inhibit the progression of HIV infection utilizes all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT | destruction of viral ribosomes. |
| Helper T cells are activated by which of the following? | MHC class II |
| In some cases, transplanted tissue (such as bone marrow) can produce cytotoxic T cells that attack the host cells of the recipient. Which of the following describes such an attack? | graft versus host disease |
| Innate immunity __________. | is nonspecific and present at birth. |
| Innate immunity includes all of the following EXCEPT | production of antibody. |
| Newborns' immunity due to the transfer of antibodies across the placenta is an example of | naturally acquired passive immunity |
| Normal microbiota provide protection from infection in each of the following ways EXCEPT | they produce lysozyme. |
| The antibodies found in mucus, saliva, and tears are? | IgA |
| The antibodies that can bind to large parasites are | IgE |
| The most abundant class of antibodies in serum is | IgG |
| The presence of which of the following indicates a current infection rather than a previous infection or vaccination? | IgM |
| What type of immunity results from recovery from mumps? | naturally acquired active immunity |
| What type of immunity results from vaccination? | artificially acquired active immunity |
| When an antibody binds to a toxin, the resulting action is referred to as? | neutralization |
| Which antibodies will be in the serum of a person with blood type B, Rh+? | anti-A, anti-Rh |
| Which class of molecules is the most antigenic? | proteins |
| Which of the following cells is NOT an APC? | natural killer cells |
| Which of the following leukocytes initiates inflammation? | mast cell |
| All of the following are affects of histamine EXCEPT? | fever |
| PAMPs would be found on the surface of which of the following? | pathogen |
| The function of the "ciliary escalator" is to? | trap inhaled dust and microorganisms in mucous and propel it away from the lower respiratory tract. |
| Which of the following best describes the innate nonspecific immune system? | a generalized and nonspecific set of defenses against a class or group of pathogens |
| Why was James Phipps (the boy who was purposely infected with cowpox) protected against smallpox? | Cowpox is antigenically similar to smallpox. |
| Treatment with certain drugs to reduce transplant rejection can cause? | immunosuppression |
| What type of immunity results from transfer of antibodies from one individual to a susceptible individual by means of injection? | artificially acquired passive immunity |
| Which of the following bacterial components would most likely result in B cell stimulation by T-independent antigens? | capsule |
| Which of the following exhibits the highest phagocytic activity? | macrophages |
| Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cellular immunity? | B cells make antibodies. |
| Which of the following is a true statement about inflammation? | Granulomas are examples of chronic inflammation. |
| The antibodies found on the surface of B cells, and which always exist as monomers, are? | IgD |
| Plasma cells are activated by a(n)? | antigen |
| Macrophages arise from which of the following? | monocytes |
| All of the following are reasons why an HIV vaccination has not been developed EXCEPT? | vaccines are not effective against viral infections. |
| Where are acute phase proteins produced? | liver |
| Which of the following statements about LPS is false? | LPS is an endogenous pyrogen. |
| Which of the following lists in the correct order the events of acute inflammation after tissue injury? | erythema, edema, heat, pain, altered function |
| Which bacterium is able to invade sweat glands of the skin and can use lipase to degrade sebum? | Propionibacterium |
| All of the following are reasons why an HIV vaccination has not been developed EXCEPT? | vaccines are not effective against viral infections. |
| All of the following are true regarding NK cells EXCEPT? | they destroy infected body cells by phagocytosis. |
| CD4+ T cells are activated by? | interaction between CD4+ and MHC II |
| Thymic selection | destroys T cells that do not recognize self-molecules of MHC. |
| A cell that has been infected with an intracellular pathogen will be targeted for destruction by which type of lymphocyte? | CD8+ regulatory T cell |
| Which of the following leukocytes is used for protection against protozoa and helminths? | eosinophils |
| Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of B cells? | They recognize antigens associated with MHC I. |
| Which of the following is the best definition of antigen? | a chemical that elicits an antibody response and can combine with these antibodies |
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