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Med Psych Test
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| cancer | second only to cardiovascular disease as a cause of death in the US |
| lung cancer | is the most common cause of cancer death in both sexes |
| breast cancer | second to lung cancer as a cause of death |
| prostate cancer | in males, ______________ is the second most common fatal cancer |
| colon and rectal | when the numbers for both sexes are summed, ______ & ________ rises to second place behind lung cancer as the second most common new cancer and the second most common cause of cancer death |
| benign | growth is one that usually does not have the capacity to cause death |
| malignant | growth that has the capacity to cause death |
| cancer | a malignant neoplasm |
| neoplasm | any abnormal growth of new cells |
| oncology | study of neoplasms |
| False | True or False? All neoplasms are malignant? |
| True | True or false? Melanoma is a malignant neoplasm |
| rhabdomyosarcoma | A malignant tumor composed of skeletal muscle is called |
| damaged DNA | root cause of cancer is: |
| mutations | permanent damage to DNA |
| carcinogenic | Mutations that lead to cancer are characterized as: |
| Epidemiology | the study of the patterns and causes of diseases |
| False | True or false? Most cancers are caused by mutations in ovarian or testicular germ cells |
| Chemical: cigarette smoke radiation: x ray, ionizing radiation viral: HPV chronic inflammation: Barrett esophagus | Name several types of environmental carcinogenesis and give examples |
| proto-oncogenes | promote normal cell growth |
| oncogenes | when proto-oncogenes become mutated they ar: |
| HER2 gene | proto-oncogene that produces human epidermanl growth factor 2, a protein that promotes normal cell growth |
| tumor-suppressor genes | "stop" switches that restrain normal cell growth by producing proteins that inhibit cell division |
| p53 gene | gene that promotes normal cell death, apoptosis; it is a mutant variety of which is the most common genetic defect in human cancers; prevalent in breast and colon cancer |
| DNA repair genes | "spell checkers" for "misspelled" DNA |
| xeroderma pigmentosa | an inherited disease with a predisposition to development of skin cancers, is caused by a faulty DNA repair apparatus that allows defective DNA to remain mutant |
| multistep process | Carcinogenesis is a _______ process |
| somatic cells | almost all cancer-related mutations occur in: |
| False: somatic cell DNA defects are NOT inheritable; they are acquired after birth and are the result of the effects of age, viruses, chemicals, radiation | True or False? somatic cell mutations are inheritable |
| inheritable cancer syndromes | inheritable germ cell defects are called ______________; they increase the risk of a particular cancer to a variable degree but do not guarantee cancer development |
| True | True or false? Multiple mutations are necessary to produce a cancer |
| premalignant changes | before becoming fully malignant, damaged DNA provokes in cells recognizable _______________ |
| Metaplasia | reversible change of one cell type into another caused by chronic injury; reverts to normal when the injury stops; IT IS NOT PRECANCEROUS |
| epithelium | metaplasia usually occurs in: |
| Dysplasia | PRECANCEROUS cellular change; may revert to normal or it may progress to malignancy; does not always progress to malignancy |
| metaplastic epithelium | most dysplasia arises in: |
| carcinoma in situ | At a certain point, dysplasia becomes severe enough to become high grade dysplasia or __________, a state that is cancer "in place" |
| epithelium | carcinoma in situ is neoplasia confined to the: |
| invasive | carcinoma in situ is not ________ because it has not penetrated the basement membrane to reach blood vessels or lymphatics in order to metastasize to other locations |
| clone | neoplasms grow by forming a ________, a set of identical cells descended from a single ancestor |
| monoclonal | All neoplasms are INITIALLY __________, in that they arise from a single cell and grow as successive generations of that cell |
| tumor cell heterogeneity | a tumor composed of multiple sets of cells, each differing in some respect from the others |
| number of dividing cells | The growth rate of neoplasms depends on: |
| growth fraction | fraction of tumor cells dividing; it is the main determinant of total growth rate |
| well differentiated | benign tumors are ______ differentiated |
| poorly | highly malignant tumors are _____ differentiated |
| angiogenesis | neoplasms develop their own blood supply by the process of: |
| invasion | the direct extension of tumor into adjacent tissue |
| metastasis | the discontinuous spread of tumor from site to another and is the most reliable sign of malignancy |
| 1. seeding across surface of body cavities 2. lymphatic spread 3. through blood | metastases may occur in 3 ways: |
| seeding | occurs as tumor cells float from point to point in body fluid |
| ovarian cancer | seeding is most often seen in the intra-abdominal spread of ______ on the surfaces of the peritoneum |
| lymphatic spread | occurs as tumor cells invade lymphatic vessels and are swept up by the lymphatic chain by the flow of lymph fluid |
| carcinomas (a malignant tumor of epithelium) | prone to invade lymphatics |
| hematogenous spread | occurs as tumor cells invade blood vessels |
| sarcomas (tumor of mesenchymal tissue ---bone, cartilage, fat, muscle, fibrous tissue) | hematogenous spread is typical of: |
| veins | most often invaded in hematogenous spread of tumor cells |
| immune surveillance | antineoplastic function of the immune system |
| True | True or false? The tumor lives most of its life before it is detected |
| False: They originate monoclonally but diverge into multiple clones as more mutations occur. | True or false? All tumors begin as a clone of a single cell (monoclonal) and remain monoclonal |
| True: Sarcomas tend to spread via blood vessels (hematogenous spread). | True or false? Carcinomas tend to spread via lymphatics rather than spreading via blood vessels |
| angiogenesis | The growth of new blood vessels into a tumor is called |
| Metastasis | The most reliable sign of malignancy is |
| False: Environmental factors also play a role, especially exposure to carcinogens. | True or false? Identical twins have the identical risk for cancer |
| carcinoma in situ | What is the name of an epithelial malignancy that has not invaded through the basement membrane |
| loss of immune surveillance | Why do patients with immune deficiency have more neoplasms than do normal people? |
| growth fraction | Which mainly determines the rate of tumor growth: growth fraction or rate of cell division? |
| local effects | most neoplasms are discovered because of their: |
| paraneoplastic syndrome | set of systemic symptoms NOT due to local or metastatic spread of tumor |
| high blood calcium (hypercalcemia) | most common paraneoplastic syndrome |
| small cell carcinoma of the lung | probably most often associated with paraneoplastic syndrome, especially Cushing syndrome (high blood cortisol) |
| cachexia | progressive loss of weight accompanied by weakness, lethargy, fatigue, and anemia that occurs to a greater or lesser degree in about half of cancer patients; equally fat and muscle loss |
| False: Clinical history is extremely important in the diagnosis of cancer, as, for example, some benign conditions can appear malignant microscopically. | True or false? Diagnosis of cancer is mainly a microscopic exercise in which clinical history has little importance |
| pressure on nearby structures | Local effects of tumor masses are caused by |
| paraneoplastic syndrome | Systemic effects of tumors are called |
| cachexia | the wasting associated with malignancy |
| cytology | the diagnostic study of individual cells for evidence of cancer or other abnormality |
| Pap smear | best known cytology procedure for cancer diagnosis is the: |
| fine needle aspiration | thin needle is inserted into the lesion, sometimes under radiological guidance and clusters of cells and attendant fluid are aspirated and spread onto a slide for examination |
| flow cytometry | method of physically separating and sorting individual cells of any kind according to certain physical characteristics, including markers expressed on the surface |
| blood cells | flow cytometry is useful in classifying malignancies of: |
| biopsy | collection of intact pieces of tissue for microscopic diagnosis by surgical excision or needle to obtain thin cylinder of tissue |
| immunohistochemistry | involves bathing a biopsy specimen with antibody against specific tumor proteins to see if they attach to tumor cells, an indication tumor proteins are present |
| tumor markers | substances produced by normal or neoplastic tissue and may appear in blood at increased levels in the presence of a neoplasm |
| early detection | tumor markers are not useful for ________ because they lack sensitivity and specificity; useful to confirm diagnosis or monitor therapy |
| carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) | protein found in the blood of patients with colon cancer |
| liver disease | CEA is increased in: |
| alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) | another marker that may be produced by neoplasms and appear in blood, but abnormal levels are also associated with other conditions |
| neural tube defects | when elevated in amniotic fluid, AFP has a positive association with fetal __________ |
| Down syndrome | when AFP is low in amniotic fluid, it has a correlation with: |
| Prostate specific antigen (PSA) | protein made by the prostate, which has proven to have some value in screening men for prostate cancer |
| benign neoplasm | tend to have a rounded, smooth outline with a rim of compressed fibrous tissue at the edge (a fibrous capsule); the cut surface is smooth and uniform with a regular consistency and appearance throughout |
| malignant neoplasm | tend to be irregular, with fingers of tumor invading adjacent tissue and the cut surface has a varied appearance with areas of necrosis, hemorrhage, calcification |
| polyp | some tumors grow as a _______, a mass that protrudes from an epithelial surface |
| papilloma | some tumors grow as a _______, which grows in a fern- or finger-like pattern with prominent folds and rises above the epithelial surface |
| anaplasia | loss of differentiation |
| pleomorphism | lack of differentiation is characterized by ________, great variety in the size and shape of cells and nuclei |
| hyperchromatism | when nuclei are dark with extra genetic material |
| grading | The assessment of the degree of cell differentiation (specialization), nuclear atypia, mitotic figures, and other gross and microscopic features of malignancy; "How bad does this tumor look" |
| staging | an evaluation of tumor behavior that relies on the size of the primary tumor and its spread; |
| TNM system: T- size of primary tumor N- extent of LN involvement M- distant metastases | common clinical staging convention is the __________ |
| True: they lack sensitivity and specificity | True or false? Tumor markers are not a reliable method for early detection of cancer |
| True | True or false? The gross characteristics of a neoplasm are important diagnostic characteristics |
| cytology | The diagnostic study of individual cells for evidence of cancer or other abnormality is |
| Biopsy | The collection of intact pieces of tissue for microscopic diagnosis by surgical excision or needle to obtain a thin cylinder of tissue is |
| Pleomorphism | Great variety in the size and shape of cells and nuclei in a tumor is called |
| stage | Which provides the best information to guide prognosis and therapy in patients with malignancy: the stage of the tumor or its grade? |
| atypical nuclei stage IV | Which of the following terms describe aggressive tumors: well-differentiated, atypical nuclei, Grade I, Stage IV |
| cure | tumor-free survival for a certain period of time (usually 5 or 10 years) |
| surgery | typically the first choice of treatment for discrete neoplasms |
| radiofrequency ablation | involves inserting into the tumor a probe that emits high frequency radio waves, which heat tissue to the point of necrosis |
| cryotherapy | involves freezing the tumor to induce necrosis |
| laser therapy | can be used to treat superficial cancers of skin or mucosa by burning the tumor away |
| chemotherapy | drug treatment of malignant neoplasms; has its greatest effect on rapidly dividing cells |
| surgery and radiation | How was cancer treated prior to the development of cancer drugs |
| first = led to broad attacks on the cancer cell's ability to synthesize DNA or divide.now we try to impact mechanisms causting cancer ex target directly antihormonal agents | How has our understanding of cancer mechanisms changed cancer therapeutics? |
| 50% | regular colonoscopy reduces the death rate from colorectal carcinoma by more than: |
| False: Declines in the death rate for colon and cervical cancer have occurred due to increased public awareness of the need for colonoscopies and Pap smears, which has led to earlier diagnosis and treatment. | True or false? Screening programs have no effect on the death rate from cancer |
| False: sometimes early detection makes no difference | True or false? Early detection of cancer guarantees cure |
| False: Women ages 20 to 40 should have a clinical breast exam once every three years, and annually thereafter. | True or false? Women ages 20 to 40 should have a clinical breast exam every year |
| infectious disease | a transmissible (infectious) agent invades through physical barriers and overcomes innate and adaptive immune defenses cause injury and disease |
| direct contact with the environment | most infections occur in organs that are in: |
| inflammation | the primary response to infection |
| Hepatitis B | The most prevalent infectious disease worldwide |
| True | True/False? Taken as a whole, infectious diseases are the most common cause of death worldwide |
| endemic rate | The normal or expected rate of infection in a population or geographic area |
| epidemic | when cases occur at above normal rates, the infection is termed: |
| Hepatitis B | the most PREVALENT of all infectious diseases |
| infectious disease | remains the number one cause of death worldwide |
| commensal relationship | agents benefit but we are not harmed |
| pathogens | agents that can cause disease |
| host | infected person, plant, or animal |
| parasites | infectious agents are essentially ____________, organisms that live off of the host, the infected living thing. |
| microbes | infectious agents are usually microscopic and are typically called: |
| proteins | smallest microbes |
| intestinal worms | largest microbes |
| prions | mere molecules, a corrupted form of normal brain protein |
| DNA metabolism | prions have NO: |
| virus | packs of nucleic acid encased in a protein coat (capsid) |
| cell wall nucleus metabolism | viruses have NO: |
| Baltimore system | classifies viruses according to whether their nucleic acid is DNA or RNA, single stranded or double stranded |
| bacteria | much larger than viruses and can be seen by conventional light microscopy; can live and reproduce outside of cells in body fluid; have a DNA and cell membrane but no nucleus |
| shape need for oxygen color of stain | bacteria are classified according to: |
| gram stain | universal standard stain for bacteria |
| gram positive | bacteria that retain their deep purple coloring are: |
| gram-negative | bacteria that lost their purple coloring and restrained red |
| cocci | spherical forms of bacteria: |
| bacilli | elongated forms of bacteria: |
| coccobacilli | combination of spherical and elongated bacteria: |
| spirochetes | corkscrew shape bacteria: |
| aerobic | bacteria that require oxygen |
| anaerobic | bacteria that do not require oxygen |
| hyphae spores | fungi have two distinctive forms: |
| hyphae | long, branching, multicellular filaments of fungi |
| molds | hyphae are known as: |
| spores | fungi that grow as multicellular clusters of budding round forms |
| yeast | spores are known as: |
| hyphae | in cool temperature, fungi tend to grow as: |
| yeast | at body temperature deep infections of fungi occur in ______ form |
| dermatophytes | infections of skin, hair, and nails are caused by species called: |
| Tinea | dermatophyte infections are typically called |
| histoplasma capsulatum | associated with deep infections in the lungs or other viscera |
| pneumocystis jirovecii | very small fungus that causes serious pneumonia in persons with AIDS |
| protozoa | motile, single-cell, nucleated organisms that are capable of reproducing within cells or extracellularly; responsible for illness and death in developing countries |
| vaginitis diarrhea | in industrialized nations, protozoa cause common, less serious disease such as: |
| malaria | insects spread some protozoa such as: |
| helminths | parasitic worms; infect aout 1/3 of the world population |
| schistosomiasis | the most serious of all helminth diseases; worm passes through snails before infecting humans |
| ectoparasites | are small insect- like creatures that attach to or live in the skin (fleas, ticks, bedbugs, lice) |
| 1. direct cell contact or invasion 2. release of toxins 3. provocation of an immune response | after infection, organisms cause damage by 3 mechanisms: |
| virulence | the degree of harmfulness of a microbe |
| tropism | most microbes, viruses included, exhibit a preference for a particular cell type. This is called: |
| bacterial toxin | any bacterial substance that contributes to illness |
| endotoxin | toxin that is a component of the cell membrane released as the organism dies; produced by Gram (-) bacteria |
| exotoxin | toxin that is a product synthesized and excreted by the bacterium; produced by Gram (+) bacteria |
| endotoxic shock | most endotoxins come from gram-negative bacteria and can cause a form of vascular collapse called: |
| contagion | spread of infection from one person (host) to another |
| community-acquired infection | infection acquired outside of a hospital |
| nosocomial infection | infection acquired in a hospital |
| reservoir | a place where the pathogen exists and from which it spreads to new hosts |
| carrier | a person or animal harboring the pathogen but suffering no obvious disease |
| direct contact ingestion indirect contact droplets vectors | the modes of transmission from reservoir to new host: |
| fomites | inanimate materials (doorknobs, gloves, bed sheets) |
| septicemia/sepsis | when blood is the main infected tissue, the condition is called: |
| incubation period | the time between invasion and appearance of signs and symptoms |
| prodromal period | after the incubation period, a ___________ may occur in which the patient suffers from mild, nonspecific symptoms. Headache, loss of appetite, fatigue are common. |
| acute phase | the prodromal period is followed by the ___________ of the illness, a time of maximum acute, typical clinical signs and symptoms |
| convalescence | the acute phase is followed by _________, during which symptoms fade |
| recovery period | no symptoms are present, but the patient may feel fatigued |
| True | True or false? Gram-positive organisms are purple while Gram-negative organisms are red-pink |
| True | True or false? Virulence is the ability to cause disease |
| False: Host immunity does not always decrease virulence, and the host response may actually induce additional inflammation and damage. | True or false? Host immunity always decreases virulence |
| True | True or false? Incubation time varies between diseases |
| Prions Viruses bacteria fungi parasites (protozoa, helminths, ectoparasites) | What are the major categories of infectious agents? |
| Viruses: obligate intracellular parasites; no cell wall Bacteria: can live outside of cells; have a cell wall | Name the crucial differences between viruses and bacteria |
| Exotoxin | An organism called Bacillus cereus grows in reheated rice and can cause food poisoning very quickly within four hours. Is it more likely that endotoxin or exotoxin causes this disease? |
| parasite | Eosinophilic inflammation is most likely caused by what type of infection |
| Fungi mycobacterium (TB) | Granulomas, or granulomatous inflammation, are most likely caused by what two types of organisms |
| LYMPHOCYTIC | Chlamydia trachomatis and Treponema pallidum cause _________ inflammation |
| neutrophils + liquefactive inflammation | pus= |
| ACUTE | Bacterial incite _____ inflammation |
| left shift | Acute neutrophilia creates a: |
| rhinovirus | family of over 100 varieties that are the cause of about half of all cases of the common cold |
| adenovirus | usually infects the upper respiratory tract causing tonsillitis and often presents in combination with conjunctivitis |
| respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) | a major cause of lower respiratory tract infections during infancy and childhood |
| bronchiolitis and pneumonia | respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is the most common cause of __________ and __________ in children under one year of age |
| type B | influenza type ______ is less common and causes mild disease |
| Type A | influenze type _______ is a severe respiratory infection |
| rotavirus | the most common cause of severe diarrhea among infants and young children |
| norovirus | causes about 90% of nonbacterial outbreaks of epidemic gastroenteritis around the world |
| measles (rubeola) | most common cause of vaccine-preventable illness worldwide; a very highly contagious infection by the measles virus |
| nasal and oral secretions | measles is spread through: |
| mumps | an acute, contagious infection caused by the mumps virus. It is characterized by painful swelling of the salivary glands, usually the parotids |
| rubella (german measles) | a contagious virus infection by the rubella virus that may be asymptomatic or may cause a brief, mild febrile illness featuring adenopathy, rash |
| respiratory droplets | rubella is spread by: |
| poliomyelitis | an acute, contagious infection cause by the poliovirus; Most infections cause no symptoms, but in 1% the virus invades motor neurons in the brain or spinal cord causing paralysis |
| oral-fecal contamination | poliomyelitis is spread by: |
| Hepatitis A | the cause of acute viral hepatitis, an epidemic form of hepatitis transmitted by oral-fecal contamination |
| Coxsackie virus type A | infection is tropic for oral mucosa and skin; children are most often affected ; infections causes painful blisters of the oral cavity (hyperangina) and rash on the palms and soles (hand-foot-and-mouth disease) |
| Coxsackie virus type B | tropic for heart, lungs, pancreas, and nervous system and causes inflammation of those organs |
| latent infection | those in which the virus persists in noninfectious form but can periodically reactivate to cause recurrent disease and new infections |
| herpesvirus | members of the __________ family cause almost all latent virus infections |
| cold sores | type 1 herpes simplex virus (HSV) is usually associated with: |
| genital herpes | type 2 herpes simplex virus (HSV) is usually associated with: |
| herpes zoster virus (varicella zoster virus) | closely related to HSV; the acute infection is chickenpox |
| cytomegalovirus (CMV) | a variety of herpesvirus that infects blood monocytes and related cells and causes a wide array of illnesses depending on host age and immune status |
| AIDS | cytomegalovirus is the most common opportunistic infection in ______ patients where it most frequent manifestations are pneumonia, retinitis, and colitis |
| productive infections | infections in which the virus persists in infectious form and continues to replicate and cause chronic injury |
| hepatitis B and C virus | the most common types of chronic productive virus infection are caused by: |
| transformative infections | infections in which the virus persists in infectious form and can stimulate the transformation of normal tissue into a neoplasm |
| Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) | the agent of infectious mononucleosis (IM), a short term febrile illness of young adults; has been linked to the development of some non-hodgkin lymphomas and nasopharyngeal carcinoma |
| human papilloma virus (HPV) | over 100 types; preferentially infects skin and squamous mucosa; some types can cause skin warts, angogential warts, dysplasia and cervical cancer |
| Kaposi sarcoma associated herpesvirus (KSHV) | agent of Kaposi sarcoma, a sluggishly malignant skin tumor that is endemic in the mediterranean basin and africa |
| True | True or false? Vaccination against viruses has decreased the incidence of many virus diseases |
| False; it decreases the risk | True or false? Vaccination against viruses increases cancer risk |
| Herpes simplex virus type 1 | What virus is responsible for cold sores? |
| varicella zoster virus | What virus is responsible for shingles? |
| epstein-barr virus | What virus is responsible for infectious mononucleosis? |
| Norovirus | What virus is most likely to cause gastroenteritis on a cruise ship? |
| rhinovirus | What virus is most likely to cause the common cold during the school year? |
| mumps | what virus is most likely to involve the parotids and gonads? |
| Because the virus mutates in a way that makes each new strain not susceptible to last year's vaccine. | Why are influenza vaccines recommended annually? |
| staphylococci and streptococci | examples of gram positive bacteria |
| staphylococci | gram positive cocci that cause acute, pyogenic infections |
| staphylococcus aureus | the most common pathogenic species; causes skin abscesses and other infections, pharyngitis, bone infection, pneumonia, and heart valve infections and is the major cause of infection in skin burns |
| direct contact with skin or clothing | S. aureus is spread by: |
| streptococci | cause a wide variety of pyogenic infections of skin, pharynx, lungs, and heart valves |
| antigenic properties hemolysis | For clinical purposes, streptococci are more easily identified according to their ___________ and according to the character of ___________ they cause when cultured on blood agar plates |
| S. penumoniae S. mutans | Alpha hemolytic streptococci: |
| Streptococcus pneumoniae | the cause of lobar pneumonia |
| Streptococcus mutans | anaerobic species that i a major cause of dental caries |
| pharynx and skin | Group A beta hemolytic streptococci typically cause infection of superficial surfaces such as: |
| Acute streptococcal pharyngitis | Examples of Group A beta hemolytic streptococci: |
| strep throat | Acute streptococcal pharyngitis causes: |
| Cellulitis Impetigo | Two types of group A skin infection occur: |
| cellulitis | a painful, superficial, edematous, erythematous infection of skin, subcutaneous tissue, and lymphatics |
| impetigo | a superficial skin infection of young children that appears first as small blisters which breaks form patches of red, "honey crusted" lesions covered with dried exudate |
| Group B streptococci | are a major cause of neonatal pneumonia, meningitis, sepsis and in adults are frequent culprits in UTIs |
| Group D streptococci | anaerobic ; also called enterococci |
| Diphtheria | an acute pharyngeal or skin infection cause by Corynebacterium diphtheria, an anaerobic, gram positive bacillus passed through respiratory droplets or skin contact |
| Listeria monocytogenes | gram-positive bacillus that grows at refrigerator temperature and causes food-borne infections through contaminated dairy products, raw vegetables, and raw chicken and other meats |
| anthrax | Bacillus anthraces is the agent of ______________, a large toxin producing bacillus that produces spores capable of lying dormant in the soil for decades |
| Nocardiosis | an acute or chronic infection caused by various species of Nocardia; most infections occur in immunodeficient patients |
| Clostridium difficile | a commensal anaerobe that normally lives in low numbers in the colon |
| pseudomembranous colitis | if C. difficile is killed off by antibiotics, it can overgrow and cause _______________, a severe inflammatory disease of the colon |
| gas gangrene | Clostridium perfringens is the agent of: |
| tetanus | Clostridium tetani is the agent of ________, an acute poisoning from a neurotoxin |
| botulism | Clostridium botulinum is the agent of __________, a paralytic poisoning |
| Neisseria | The only important gram negative cocci |
| Intestinal and respiratory infection | most gram negative bacilli cause: |
| pertussis or whooping cough | a highly communicable disease of children featuring paroxysms of severe coughing accompanied by a final inspiratory whistle (the "whoop") |
| pseudomonas aeruginosa | an opportunistic pathogen that frequently causes hospital-acquired infections particularly among burn victims and patients on ventilators |
| insect bites | Rickettsiae are a group of obligate intracellular bacteria that are transmitted to humans by: |
| spotted fevers | R. rickettsia is one of a group of rickettsiae that are agents of: |
| epidemic typhus | R. prowazeki is the agent of _________; it is transmitted by body live living on people who are in close quarters and do not change clothing regularly |
| scrub typhus | R. tsutsugamushi is the agent of ___________; the natural reservoir is rural rodents such as field mice; it is transmitted to humans by the bite of a type of mite known as a chigger |
| Lyme disease | caused by the spirochete borrelia burgdorferi; it is transmitted fro rodents to humans by the bite of a deer tick |
| Mycobacteria | family of comma-shaped aerobic bacilli that cause chronic infection, TB foremost. |
| acid-fast | term widely used to denote all mycobacteria |
| tuberculosis (TB) | a major chronic, progressive communicable disease caused by mycobacterium tuberculosis |
| lungs | TB occurs most commonly in the: |
| caseous necrosis | TB incites distinctive chronic granulomatous inflammation, which features a central area of semi-solid crumbly, necrotic tissue called: |
| primary TB | Tb infection that is arrested in the lungs or bronchial LN by the immune system and become dormant without symptoms of disease. This initial infection is known as: |
| primary progressive TB | in this initial TB infection, the immune system cannot control spread and infection immediately progresses to active disease, which is known as: |
| reactivation TB (secondary TB) | almost 95% of clinical TB is ___________ which arises from dormant primary TB because the patient has developed a chronic, debilitating disease |
| apex of lung | secondary TB is almost always manifest by lesions in: |
| Mantoux test | skin test for TB infection (purified protein derivative test) |
| leprosy | a chronic infection caused by mycobacterium leprae which has tropism for the low temp found in peripheral nerves, skin, and the oral-respiratory mucous membranes |
| skin and peripheral nerves | leprosy mainly affects |
| True | True or false? Anaerobic bacteria are present in the mouth and are responsible for aspiration pneumonia |
| True | True or false? Staphylococcus and streptococcus are Gram-positive bacteria that can infect a number of different organs |
| False: In high risk or immunocompromised patients, it would be considered positive. | True or false? In testing for TB, a purified protein derivative test of less than 15 mm is always considered negative |
| False | True or false? Mycobacterium leprae is the most virulent mycobacterium |
| False: It is more common in African Americans, Alaskan Inuit, Native Americans, Hispanics, and Southeast Asians. | True or false? Tuberculosis has no predilection for ethnic groups |
| secondary | Are most cases of tuberculosis primary or secondary tuberculosis? |
| C. perfringens | Gas gangrene is caused by which Clostridial species |
| eye infection and blindness | A new teenage mother refuses antibiotic treatment for her newborn. What is the newborn at risk for? |
| molds yeast | Fungi grow in two forms: |
| mycosis | a fungus is a : |
| 1. superficial mycoses 2. subcutaneous mycoses 3. endemic mycoses 4. opportunistic mycoses | four main clinical forms of fungal infection: |
| candida | group of fungi that usually live as commensals on skin and in the mouth, GI tract, and vagina |
| C. albicans | most common of human fungal infections |
| diaper rash vaginitis | most common C. albicans infections are: |
| blastomycosis coccidioidomycosis cryptococcosis histoplasmosis | Name the endemic mycoses (collectively known as deep mycoses) : |
| lungs | primary site for deep mycoses |
| Immunosuppression/Immunodeficiency | Mucor infection in the nasal passages of a diabetic patient is a surgical emergency. What is the main host factor that predisposes to many fungal infections including Mucor? |
| protozoa worms ectoparasites | humans are parasitized by three varieties of parasites: |
| protozoa | unicellular, motile, microscopic pathogens with a nucleus. they are larger and more complex than bacteria and fungi |
| malaria | caused by one of four species of tiny plasmodium amoebae |
| RBCs | malaria parasites invade ______ and destroys them |
| peripheral blood eosinophilia | hallmark of helminth infections |
| filariasis | an infection by roundworms transmitted by mosquitoes and found most commonly in Asia and Africa; can cause massive lymphdema of the scrotum and leg (elephantiasis) |
| trichinosis | infection by roundworm; transmitted by eating inadequately cooked infected pork |
| True | True or false? Cooking pork prevents trichinosis. |
| Schistosomiasis | Most important of all worm infections; caused by a fluke worm and infects the vasculature of GI and genitourinary tract |
| Echinococcosis | tapeworm infection caused by larvae of several varieties of tapeworm passed back and forth between dogs and cows |
| True | True or false? Echinococcus infects the liver and is acquired by ingesting contaminated food |
| skin or hair | ectoparasites live on the: |
| lice | wingless, blood sucking insects that infest the hair of the head, body, or pubis |
| scabies | an infestation of the skin mite Sarcoptes scabiei |
| Malaria, Giardia | What is the most common protozoal infection in the world? In the United States? |
| liver intestine urinary bladder | Schistosomes can infect which organs |
| wrists waistline genitals finger webs | what skin surfaces are infected by scabies |
| Chlamydia Gonorrhea | What are the first and second most common sexually transmitted diseases in the United States? |
| HPV | the most common serious STI in the united states |
| condyloma acuminatum squamous carcinoma | HPV produces two different but related lesions in women: |
| condyloma acuminatum | more common HPV lesion; benign, cauliflower like growth of the cervical, vaginal, vulvar squamous mucosa |
| syphilis | chronic sexually transmitted disease cause by the spirochete Treponema pallidum; can cause dementia, severe disability or death if left untreated |
| chancre | the hallmark lesion of primary syphilis |
| secondary syphilis | a combination of lymphadenopathy and skin lesions on the palms of hands and soles of feet |
| condyloma lata | epidermal growth in secondary syphilis |
| cardiovascular system | tertiary syphilis affects the ______________ and usually presents as syphilitic aortitis |
| tick bite | What mode of transmission is responsible for the infections of Lyme disease? |
| primary syphilis- chancre secondary syphilis- skin rash, genital condyloma late latent syphilis- subclinical tertiary syphilis- brain and vascular disease | How does each stage of syphilis manifest |
| true | True or false? Chlamydia can be cured with a single dose of antibiotics. |
| False; condyloma acuminatum is caused by HPV | True or false? Condyloma lata is a benign, cauliflower-like growth of the cervical, vaginal, or vulvar squamous mucosa caused by HPV |
| True | True or false? Antisyphilis antibodies remain present for a lifetime |
| False: Immunity against reinfection is often not achieved, making reinfection possible. | True or false? Immunity against reinfection with STIs prevents patients from acquiring the same STI a second time |
| False: Culture is the "gold standard." | True or false? Molecular techniques are now considered the "gold standard" for identification of bacteria |
| gram stain and culture | What are the two most important traditional techniques used to identify organisms? |
| Adaptive Mutation | ; A mechanism through which certain cells can increase the rate in which genetic mutations occur, often in response to stress. This mechanism may help explain how bacteria develop resistance to certain antibiotics. |
| Anemia | ; A condition in which there is a deficit in the number of healthy red blood cells in the blood, resulting in fatigue and feelings of weakness. |
| Antibiotic Resistance | ; The process through which pathogenic microorganisms, by way of genetic mutation, develop the ability to withstand exposure to the drugs that had once been successful in eradicating them. |
| Antibiotics | A class of drugs used to kill or inhibit the growth of disease-causing microorganisms. Typically antibiotics are used to treat infections caused by bacteria, but in some cases they are also used against other microorganisms, such as fungi and protozoa. |
| Antibodies | A class of drugs used to kill or inhibit the growth of disease-causing microorganisms. Typically antibiotics are used to treat infections caused by bacteria, but in some cases they are also used against other microorganisms, such as fungi and protozoa. |
| Autoimmune Disease | ; An umbrella term for a range of conditions in which the immune system mistakenly attacks healthy tissue in the body. |
| Bacilli | ; A taxonomic class of bacteria. |
| Bacteria | ; A large group of unicellular microorganisms that lack a cell nucleus. Some bacteria are pathogenic and harmful to humans, some have no effect at all on humans, and some are beneficial. |
| Beta-lactam Antibiotics | ; One of several families of antibiotics, including penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems, and monobactams, containing a molecular ring-shaped structure made up of three carbon atoms and one nitrogen atom. |
| Biological Agent (Terrorism) | ; A bacterium, virus, or other biological toxin used in bioterrorism or biological warfare. |
| Bioterrorism | ; The deliberate release of a virus, bacterium, or other biological agent to cause illness and death in people, animals, or plants. |
| Bioweapon | ; A bacterium, virus, or other biological toxin used in bioterrorism or biological warfare. |
| Bronchial Tubes | ; Large tubes that carry air into smaller branches of the lungs after the air has passed through the mouth, nasal passages, and windpipe. |
| Cancer | ; A class of diseases in which abnormal cells divide without control and are able to invade healthy tissues in various parts of the body. |
| Category A Agents | ; A class of biological agents that the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention views as posing the highest priority risk to U.S. national security. |
| Cell | ; The smallest unit of living matter capable of functioning independently. |
| Cell Membrane | ; A semipermeable barrier that separates the interior of a cell from the external environment. |
| Chromosome | ; An organized structure of DNA and proteins within the nucleus of a cell that contains many genes. |
| Chronic Disease | ; Any disease that is long lasting (3 months or more) or recurrent—as opposed to an acute disease—and cannot be prevented by a vaccine or cured by medication. |
| Chronic Inflammation | ; A prolonged form of localized immune response to harmful agents and damaged tissue that is characterized by redness, swelling, heat, pain, and/or loss of function. |
| Cirrhosis | ; A condition caused by chronic liver disease characterized by the development of scar tissue leading to a loss of liver function. |
| Contagion | ; A general term for any disease-causing infectious agent spread by direct or indirect contact. |
| Cytokine | ; A type of protein secreted by cells in the immune system that carries signals that facilitate cell-to-cell communication and help regulate the way the immune system responds to inflammation and infection. |
| Disease | Any abnormal condition that affects all or part of an organism, resulting in symptoms such as pain or loss of function. |
| DNA | Short for deoxyribonucleic acid, DNA is any of the nucleic acids that contain the genetic instructions necessary for the development and functioning of all living organisms as well as some viruses. |
| Encephalitis | Inflammation of the brain, often caused by a virus. |
| Endemic | The baseline level of disease usually present in a community. |
| Epidemic | An often sudden increase in the level of disease in a specific population over a given period of time. |
| Evolution | The change in heritable traits in a population of organisms over successive generations. |
| Exoskeleton | An external skeleton that protects and supports an organism, in contrast to an internal endoskeleton. |
| Fertilized Egg | Sometimes referred to as a zygote, this is the resulting initial cell formed when a sperm cell unites with an egg cell. |
| Fungi | A taxonomic kingdom of spore-forming organisms distinct from plants, animals, and bacteria that includes microorganisms such as yeast and molds, as well as mushrooms. |
| Gastrointestinal Tract | The structure in the body, beginning with the mouth and extending to the anus, through which food is ingested, broken down, and absorbed to provide the body with nutrients, and waste products are excreted. |
| Gene | The physical and functional unit of heredity made up of DNA. Every individual has two copies of each gene, one inherited from the mother and the other from the father. |
| Genetics | A branch of biology that studies heredity and variation in organisms. |
| Germ | In the context of microbiology, a microorganism that causes disease. |
| Germ Theory | A theory in medicine stating that microorganisms are the causative agents of infectious, contagious diseases. |
| Globalization | The process by which regional economies, societies, and cultures are becoming integrated through a global network of trade, migration, communication, and the spread of new technology. |
| Habitat | The specific geographical area or physical environment that is inhabited by an organism or a population of organisms. |
| Immunization | The process of strengthening the body's defense against a particular infectious agent, often accomplished by receiving a vaccine. |
| Incubation Time | The period of time between exposure to an infectious agent and the appearance of symptoms of the infection or disease it causes. |
| Infection | The entry, establishment, and replication of pathogens inside a host organism. |
| Infectious Disease | A type of illness caused by a pathogenic agent, including viruses, bacteria, fungi, protozoa, parasites, or abnormal proteins known as prions. |
| Institute of Medicine | An independent, nonprofit organization that works outside of government to provide unbiased and authoritative advice on health and medicine to decision makers and the public. |
| Interferon | A type of protein produced by cells of the immune system that help keep viruses, bacteria, and cancer cells from growing. |
| Intravenous | The use of veins through which medications and solutions are administered. |
| Latent Infection | An infection that is currently not producing or showing any symptoms but has the potential of being reactivated and then manifesting symptoms. |
| Lipid | A broad group of molecules including fats and waxes that are insoluble in water and are an important part of living cells. |
| Meningeal Infection | An infection of the protective membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord, known collectively as the meninges. |
| Metabolism | The sum total of chemical reactions that occur within a living cell both to build new molecules within the cell and break down and assimilate sources of energy for the cell. |
| Microbe | Sometimes referred to as a microorganism, a microbe is an organism that is microscopic and thus invisible to the naked eye. |
| Morbidity | The relative occurrence of a disease or a condition that causes illness. |
| Mortality | The number of deaths in a given time or place. |
| Mucous Membrane | The moist linings of body passages and internal cavities involved with absorption and secretion of substances. |
| Mutation | A change in the sequence of DNA in a cell's genome that can be caused by radiation, viruses, certain types of chemicals, errors, or environmental factors that occur during cell division and DNA replication. |
| Nanometer | A unit of length equal to one one-billionth ( |
| x | |
| 0-9) of a meter. | |
| National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases (NIAID) | Part of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services and the National Institutes of Health, NIAID conducts and supports basic and applied research to better understand, treat, and ultimately prevent infectious, immunologic, and allergic diseases. |
| Natural Selection | The process by which certain heritable traits that contribute to the survival and reproductive success of an organism become more widespread within a population over successive generations. |
| Nerve Toxin | Also called neurotoxins, these refer to poisonous substances that cause damage to cells in the nervous system. |
| Organism | A living being that can reproduce, grow, react to external stimuli, and maintain its internal equilibrium. |
| Outbreak | An unexpected increase in the incidence of a particular disease over a given time period and geographic range. A general term that may refer either to an epidemic or a pandemic. |
| Pandemic | An increase in the occurrence of a particular disease over a very large region, such as a continent or the entire globe, that is greater than what is expected over a given period of time. |
| Parasitism | A close relationship between two organisms in which one organism, the parasite, benefits at the expense of the host organism. |
| Pathogen | A biological agent that causes disease. |
| Peptic Ulcer | An open sore that develops on the inner lining of the stomach or upper small intestine. |
| Plasmid | A ring of DNA usually found in bacteria that is separate from and can replicate independently from DNA in a chromosome and can provide bacteria with some advantages, such as antibiotic resistance. |
| Prion | A causative agent of infectious disease that is composed primarily of protein. |
| Protein | Large molecules composed of one or more chains of amino acids in a specific order determined by the base sequence of nucleotides in the DNA coding. |
| Protozoa | A taxonomic group of single-celled microorganisms that live in almost every kind of habitat and include some pathogenic parasites of humans and other animals. |
| Recombinant Technology | The process that allows technicians to create artificial pieces of DNA in which two or more DNA sequences, often from separate organisms, are combined in ways that would not normally occur naturally. |
| Replication | The process of producing a copy of a strand of DNA. |
| Reproduction | The process by which parent organisms create new offspring by either sexual or asexual means. |
| Reservoir | An organism in which a parasite that is pathogenic for some other organism lives and reproduces without harming its host. |
| Respiratory Tract | The part of the anatomy that has to do with the passage of air and includes the nose, larynx, trachea, and lungs. |
| Rheumatic Fever | An inflammatory disease that may be caused by an untreated or improperly treated case of strep throat. |
| Rhinovirus | A type of virus that is responsible for causing upper respiratory tract infections in humans, otherwise known as the common cold. |
| RNA | Short for ribonucleic acid, RNA is a molecule with long strands of nucleic acids containing a nitrogenous base, a ribose sugar, and a phosphate. RNA is responsible for controlling a number of chemical activities, including protein synthesis, within cells. |
| Schizophrenia | A serious mental illness characterized by the presence of hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech or thinking, a loss of contact with reality, and a noticeable deterioration of functioning in everyday life. |
| Skin Lesion | Any abnormal tissue on the skin caused by injury or disease. |
| Species | One of the most basic units of biological classification, ranking just below the genus and comprising individuals or populations capable of interbreeding. |
| Sperm Cell | The male gamete, or sex cell, which carries the hereditary material of the male parent and unites with the female egg cell during sexual reproduction. |
| Staph Infection | An infection caused by any one of several harmful species or subspecies of bacteria of the genus Staphylococcus. |
| Sterilization | The process of destroying all forms of life, including infectious agents, from a surface, fluid, or biological medium with the use of heat, chemicals, irradiation, high pressure, filtration, or some combination of these methods. |
| Strain | A genetic variant or specific subtype of a microorganism, such as a virus or bacteria. |
| Suburbanization | The process of land conversion and development around the periphery of major cities. |
| Symptom | A subjective indication of the presence of disease or a departure from the body's normal state of functioning. |
| Tissue Culture | The process by which tissues are intentionally grown under controlled conditions. |
| Toxin | A poisonous substance, often a protein, produced by the metabolic processes of living cells or organisms that can cause disease if introduced into the body. |
| Trachea | The main trunk of the network of tubes that carries air to and from the lungs, sometimes referred to as the "windpipe." |
| Transition Zone | The area, sometimes referred to as an ecotone, encompassing the edges of two distinct ecosystems, such as the area where a forest intersects with grassland. |
| Universal Flu Vaccine | A vaccine that is effective against all forms of the influenza virus. |
| Urogenital Disease | Disease of the organs involved in the excretion of fluids and reproduction. |
| Vaccine | A biological preparation that improves the immune system's ability to recognize and destroy harmful infectious agents. |
| Vector | An organism (usually an arthropod such as a flea, mosquito, or tick) that carries an infectious agent from one host to another. |
| Virus | An infectious agent that is only capable of replicating itself inside the living cells of other organisms. |
| White Blood Cell | A special type of cell that works as part of the immune system to defend the body against disease and infection. |
| Yeast | A broad group of microscopic fungi that includes harmless forms of yeast used in baking and alcoholic fermentation as well as pathogenic species that can cause disease. |
| Zoonoses | Any disease that can be transmitted from vertebrate animals to humans. |
| Immunity | cellular and molecular mechanism to protect against foreign invaders or nonself threats |
| Autoimmunity | immune system attacks self/own tissue as well as foregin invaders |
| Defense Mechanisms body systems | Immune, Lymphatic, Physical and chemical barriers |
| Non-immune defense Mechanisms | Filtering mechanisms like the spleen lymph nodes, GI tract, Genitourinary tract, Physical Barriers and Chemical Barriers |
| Primary lymphatic organs | lymph nodes, thymus, Bone marrow, and Spleen |
| Lymphatic System | absorbs fat from GI and deliver to blood, filter tissue fluid for foreign content, house and support immune cells. |
| Two division of Immune system | Innate immunity, Adaptive immunity |
| Innate Immunity | natural immunity present from birth |
| Adaptive immunity | acquired, requires interaction with invading agent & develops response that is remembered for future exposure |
| Antigen | Any substance that stimulates an adaptive immune response |
| MALT | a lymphoid tissue present in the upper respiraory tract and Gastrointestinal tract |
| lymph nodes purpose | serve as sentry posts monitoring the body for microbes and tumor cells |
| Primary response | initial exposure takes one week- immune system does not recognize antigen and stimulates production of antibodies |
| Secondary response | very quick as the immune system recognizes the antigen and has already developed antibodies ready to attack |
| lymphocytes | main cell of immune system, 5% found in circulating blood and 95% in lymph tissue |
| B cells | produce and secrete antibodies (proteins) in blood that attack foreign agents |
| T cells | attack foreign agents directly; no antibodies involved |
| Macrophages | large phagocyte derived from monocytes |
| Igm | responsible for immediate immune response or short term protection |
| IgG | most abundant appears after IgM antibodies and responsible for long term immunity |
| IgA | concentrated in breast milk, respiratory and GI tract. |
| IgD | found in tissues and inflammatory cells |
| IgE | found in tissue and inflammatory cells |
| antibody | is an anti antigen protein |
| Lymphocytes and macrophages | immune cell type that are able to migrate freely amount blood and lymphoid organs |
| Aerobe | An organism that requires oxygen for life and reproduction |
| Anaerobe | An organism that does not require oxygen for life and reproduction |
| Antimicrobial | Drugs used to stop or slow the growth of specific microbes |
| Antibacterial or Antibiotic | Drugs used to stop or slow the growth of bacteria in the body, allowing the bodys immune system to kill the invading bacteria |
| Bactericidal | Drugs that kill bacteria |
| Bacteriostatic | Drugs that inhibit bacterial growth |
| Antifungal | Drugs used to stop or slow the growth of fungus |
| Antithelmintics | Drugs used to stop or slow the gowth of parasitic worms |
| Antiviral | Drugs used to stop or slow the growth of viruses |
| Autoimmune Diseases | Diseases characterize by inflammation and destruction of the body's tissues caused by the body's immune system |
| Bacteria | Single-celled microorganisms that do not have a defined nucleus and are found virtually everywhere |
| Pathogenic Bacteria | Bacteria that cause disease |
| Nonpathogenic | Bacteia that do not cause disease |
| CD4 count | The lab value that counts a certain type of erythrocyte |
| Colonization | The presence of bacteria in a human host that is not part of the normal fleura |
| Dermatophytes | Fungi that cause infection of the hair, skin, and nails |
| Disease | A condition of the body in which there is abnormal functioning resulting from the effects of heredtary, infection, diet, or exercise |
| Dysentery | An infection of the intestinal tract that causes severe diarrhea with blood and muccus |
| Endemic | A disease constantly present in a population |
| Epidemic | A greater than normal number of cases of a disease in an area within a particular period |
| Etiology | The study of the causes and origins of a disease |
| Fomite | An inanimate object on which pathogens may be transmitted |
| Fungi | Plant-like microorganisms that lack chlorophyll and need to live off of a food source that is either dead or alive. |
| Immunocompetent | Having an immune system posseses the ability to mount a normal immune response |
| Immunodeficient | A condition in which the body's immune response is damaged, weakened, or is not functioning properly |
| Immunosuppression | Supression of th immune system, by drugs or radiation therapy in order to prevent rejection of a transplanted organ, or to control an autoimmune disorder. |
| Microbiology | The study of very small or microscopic organisms of either animal or plant origin. |
| Bacteriology | The study of bacteria |
| Mycology | The study if fungi to include molds, mushrooms, and yeasts |
| Parasitology | The study of parasites |
| Protozoology | The study of protozoa |
| Virology | The study of viruses |
| Micrometer | A unti of length, equal to one-millionth of a meter |
| Morphology | The study of the form and structure of an organism |
| Mucocutaneous | Affecting the skin an mucuous membranes |
| Mycosis | A general term pertaining to any fungal infection, either superficial or systemic |
| Neutropenia | An Abnormally low white blood cell count, which will hamper the body in fighting infections |
| Nonpathogenic | Microorganisms that do not cause disease |
| Normal flora | Microorganisms that constantly and consistently inhabit the human body, some of which are known to perform tasks that are useful for the human host. |
| Pandemic | A worldwide epedemic of a particular disease |
| Parasite | An organism that lives within or upon another form of life and depends on that form of life nourishment and suvival. |
| Pathogen | An organism or bacteria capable of causing disease. |
| Spore | A reproductive element of a plant or microorganism, usually in a resting state and encased in a hard, resistant protein coat. |
| Systemic | Affecting the body as a whole, generally life thrreatning |
| Toxin | A poisonous substance |
| Vector | An insect or other organism that transmits parasitic microorganisms from person to person |
| Virus | A small microorganism, which needs a living cell to replicate. |
| Inflammation | body's composite cellular reaction to injury. |
| Stem cells | a class of undifferentiated cells that are able to differentiate into specialized cell types. |
| mitosis | division of 1 cell into 2 indentical daughter cells |
| DNA | building block for proteins; genetic code |
| Gene | segment of DNA with a specific purpose |
| Chromosome | a group of genes |
| Meiosis | division of fertilized egg cell |
| Apoptosis | natural, planned cell death |
| A type of cell with a Asymmetric division characteristic | stem cells |
| Labile tissues | are composed of cells with shortlife and abundant stem cells |
| Permanent tissues | are composed of very long-lived cells and have few or no stem cells |
| What causes hypxia/anoxia | ischemia |
| RNA | carries the DNA code/message from nucleus to cytoplasm |
| mRNA | carries protein code acfoss nuclear membrane |
| tRNA | transfers code code ribosome |
| rRNA Riosomal | produces proteins |
| What type of accumulation occurs in the brain cells of patients with Alzheimer's disease? | protein |
| Metaplasia | is reversible change of one cell type into another |
| Dysplasia | is a less reversible change of a cell into a precancerous cell |
| name the two sources of inflammatory mediators | cells, plasma |
| After an injury what takes place first? | vascular |
| What is the most important cell in chronic inflammation | macrophage |
| Define lymphadenopathy | enlarged or tender lymph nodes regardless of cause |
| What is the most abundant cell in fibrous repair | fibroblast |
| what is the traditional name for the method of healing of broad wounds? | Second intention |
| When is a healing wound most vascular | Days 3-7 |
| In what disease state do diabetic wounds sometimes heal slowly? | Vascular disease |
| What's unique about stem cells | asymmetic division |
| Endoderm is derived from | pancreas |
| A ghostly outline of cells that have died in place but their architecture is preserved is | Coagulative necrosis |
| Which cells are the principal inflammatory cell in a parasitic infection | Eosinophil |
| Chronic Inflamation | injury, inflammation and repair co-exist, lympocytes, monocytes and plasma cells involved |
| A copious amount of water fluid low in protein is seen in | Serous inflammation |
| Teh comlete, or nearly complete, restoration of normal anatomy and function by the regrowth of normal functional cells | regeneration |
| Mitochrondia | produces energy for cell |
| Ribosomes | snthesizes amino acids |
| Lysosomes | digestive enzymes destroy foreign material ingested by cell |
| Endoplasmic reticulum (ER) | connects the nucleus on the one side and cell membrane on the other; allowing ribosomes to moe |
| Smooth ER | synthesis of steriods, metbolic breakdown of drugs and other molecules |
| Rough ER | accepts mRNA from nucleus |
| Meiosis | division of fertilized egg cell |
| Necrosis | cell death caused by disease |
| Mild acute cell injury | last minutes |
| Mild chronic cell injury | last for weeks |
| hypoxia | lack of oxygen |
| hypertrophy | increase in size and functional capacity of a cell caused by hormonal stimulation or high blood pressure |
| liquefactive necrosis | dead issue dissolves into fluid, dead cells |
| Caseous necrosis | a distinctive form of coagulative necrosis in which tissue maintains a cheese-like appearance (TB infection) |
| fat necrosis | Is necrotic adipose tissue with chalky-white appearance due to deposition of calcium and is characteristic of trauma to fat |
| stable cells | reserve of stem cells that reprduce and divide slowly unless stimulated by stress or injury, then they divide rapidly. |
| labile cells | continously regenerated or relaced from a pool of stem cells |
| permanent cells | highly specialized cells that do not regenerate and have no reserve stem cells. |
| Acute inflammation | short term injury; hours to days continues until tissue is repaired; neutrophils involved |
| Granules | contain powerful enzymes and is actively involved in acute inflammation and have anti-parasitic properties |
| The three types of Granules | Neutrophil, Eosinophil, and Basophil |
| Neutrophil | a granule that has active in acute inflammation by ingesting (phagocytosis) material with powerful enzymes. |
| Eosinophil | a granule that has anti parasitic properties and is active in inflammation due to allergy or parasitic infections. |
| Basophil | a granule that is attracted to injured tissue due to allergic reactions by releasing histamine to enhance inflammatory response such as swelling, itching, congestion, mucous production. |
| Monocye | active in chronic inflammation and acts as a phagocyte to capture foreign proteins |
| lymphocyte | active in chronic inflammation to spleen thymus and tonsils. It has two types T cells and B cells |
| B cells | give rise to plasma cells and produce antibodies |
| T cells | directly attack infected cells |
| hyperplasia | is the enlargement of a tissue or organ due to an increased number of cells |
| disease | an unhealthy state caused by the effects of injury (an impairment of health or a condition of abnormal functioning) |
| acute disease | arises rapidly |
| chronic disease | usually begins slowly with signs and symptoms that are difficult to interpret, persists for a long time, and generally cannot be prevented by vaccines or cured by medication |
| pathology | study of changes in bodily structure and function that occur as a result of disease |
| etiology | cause of the injury |
| pathogenesis | natural history and development |
| idiopathic | etiology is unknown |
| iatrogenic | byproduct of medical diagnosis or treatment (Greek iatros, for physician) |
| anatomic pathology | study of structural changes caused by disease |
| clinical pathology | study of the functional aspects of disease by laboratory study of tissue, blood, urine, or other body fluids |
| normal | a measurement or observation falling into the usual range in a healthy person |
| abnormal | a measurement or observation not falling into the usual range |
| true positive | test is positive and the patient actually has the disease |
| false positive | test is positive but the patient does not have the disease |
| true negative | an observation or measurement that correctly suggests the absence of disease |
| false negative | an observation or measurement that incorrectly suggests the absence of disease |
| sensitivity | in medical testing, the ability of a test to be positive in the presence of disease |
| specificity | in medical testing, the ability of a test to be negative in the absence of the disease |
| symptoms | complaints reported by the patient or someone else on behalf of the patient and are part of the medical history |
| signs | direct observations by examiner |
| syndrome | collection of clinical signs, symptoms, and data |
| normal range | an established span for quantitative tests that have numerical results |
| mean | the average of quantitative measurements |
| standard deviation | a statistical measure of the degree of natural variability of quantitative results |
| sickness | disease |
| health | wellness |
| predictive value | in medical testing, the ability of a test to correctly indicate the presence or absence of disease |
| prevalence | the number of people who have a disease at any given moment |
| incidence | the number of new cases of disease that appear per year |
| lesion | the anatomic abnormalities of disease |
| pathophysiology | abnormal functionality of disease |
| Explain the difference between anatomic and clinical pathology. | Anatomic pathology is the study of structural change; Clinical pathology is the study of functional change |
| Describe the relationship between structure and function. | Structure and function are intimately related; abnormal structure often produces abnormal function and vice versa |
| Differentiate between a symptom and a sign. | Symptoms are complaints reported by the patient or by someone else and are part of the medical history; Signs are direct observations by the examiner |
| Explain the meaning of normal range as it relates to medical tests. | A normal range is established for tests that have numerical results. Normal range is defined by statistical methods to include 95% of test results in a population of healthy persons. It follows that 5% of healthy persons will have abnormal results. |
| Discuss why sensitive tests should be used first in the diagnostic process. | Positive results with a highly sensitive test include almost all people with disease plus some that are healthy; it misses few who have disease. This positive group can then be tested in follow-up by a highly specific test. |
| Explain why it is usually futile (pointless) to test for disease in a population in which the prevalence of disease is very low. | Most positive results will be false-positive results |
| Which of the following is an example of clinical pathology? | a. Study of a breast biopsy specimen b. Study of blood glucose level patterns c. An autopsy A |
| Which of the following is the more sensitive test? One that has... | a. Relatively large number of false-positive results b. Low number of positive results c. High number of false-negative results A |
| Which of the following is a functional disorder? | a. Myocardial infarct b. Bacterial endocarditis c. Congestive heart failure C |
| True or False? Healthy people may have abnormal test results. | True |
| True or False? The prevalence of a disease is the number of new cases that appear each year. | False (incidence) |
| True or false? The best way to use diagnostic tests is to start with sensitive tests and follow with specific tests. | True |
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