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BSC 216 Test #3

Which of the following is an organ of the alimentary canal? esophagus
What separates the oral cavity from the nasal cavity? hard palate and soft palate
What is the main job of the pharynx? propulsion
What region of the stomach does food first enters after its passage through the relaxed gastroesophageal sphincter? cardia
Chief cells release: pepsinogen
What is the final segment of the small intestine? ileum
Which modification of the small intestine creates a brush border appearance upon microscopic examination? microvilli
Peristaltic contractions that propel the contents of the colon toward the distal large intestine are: mass movements.
What can we consciously control about the defecation reflex? relaxation of the external anal sphincter
What cells compose the liver lobules? hepatocytes
Which of the following does NOT transport bile? accessory pancreatic duct
What enzyme catalyzes reactions that initiate carbohydrate digestion? salivary amylase
Absorption is best described as the: movement of food particles through the wall of the alimentary canal.
Damaged hepatocytes will impair: bile production.
Cherise is lactose-intolerant because she produces insufficient amounts of an enzyme called: lactase.
What is the first process to occur in the digestive system? ingestion
Splanchnic circulation involves the blood supply that feeds and drains: abdominal digestive organs.
The digestive system is regulated by the sympathetic, parasympathetic, and enteric nervous systems. True
What creates the mesentery? visceral peritoneum
The crown of a tooth is covered by: enamel
Carbohydrate digestion begins in the: mouth
What is released by the enteroendocrine cells of the gastric glands? gastrin
Which hormone increases acid secretion by the stomach? gastrin
The stomach differs anatomically from other organs of the alimentary canal because it has an additional oblique layer of muscularis externa for churning. True
What is released by the enteroendocrine cells of the gastric glands? Which hormone increases acid secretion by the stomach? gastrin
The stomach differs anatomically from other organs of the alimentary canal because it has an additional oblique layer of muscularis externa for churning. True
At the splenic flexure, the colon becomes the: descending colon.
The final process to occur in the alimentary canal is: defecation.
The internal anal sphincter is controlled involuntarily while the external anal sphincter is controlled voluntarily. True
What is responsible for the emulsification of lipids in the duodenum? bile
What best exemplifies enzymatic hydrolysis? nutrient breakdown
Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction of lactose into glucose and galactose? lactase
Emulsification requires: bile salts
In which organ is chyme mixed with pancreatic juice and bile? duodenum
Which organ functions to absorb significant quantities of water, electrolytes, and vitamins? large intestine
The breakdown of carbohydrates into glucose in the body is classified as: catabolism.
Substances that lose electrons are said to be: oxidized
Electron transfer reactions are termed oxidation-____ reactions. reduction
Which of the following is NOT true of glycolysis? Four molecules of NADH are spent.
What molecule is both the starting compound and end result of the citric acid cycle? oxaloacetate
What part of a triglyceride undergoes β-oxidation? fatty acids
The release of urea in the urine is a mechanism for the body to rid itself of: ammonia
What molecule cannot be used for gluconeogenesis? fatty acid
The total amount of energy expended by the body to power all of its processes is called: the metabolic rate.
What part of the brain is involved in thermoregulation? hypothalamus
How are vitamins classified? micronutrients
Select the two factors upon which body mass index depends. height and weight
A mutation has damaged the formation of oxaloacetate. What process will be impaired? citric acid cycle
Under normal conditions, where should we expect to see most urea? urine
Which of the following is NOT a nutrient monomer used by the body to generate ATP? nucleic acids
What process involves the donation of a phosphate group from ATP to a reactant to “pay” for a cellular process? phosphorylation
Reactions in which smaller molecules are combined to make a larger molecule are known as anabolic reactions. true
What is NOT required for glycolysis to occur? What is NOT required for glycolysis to occur?
How many net ATP are produced as a result of glycolysis? 2 ATP
Carbon dioxide is formed during the electron transport chain (ETC). False
Which of the following results from the lipolysis of a triglyceride? glycerol and fatty acids
From which of the following are ketone bodies assembled during ketogenesis? acetyl-CoA
What two products can be generated from the transamination of an amino acid? a carbon skeleton and the amino acid glutamate
The process of storing glucose as glycogen is known as: glycogenesis
The majority of the body's energy is stored as: triglycerides.
The synthesis of fatty acids is known as lipolysis. False
Which hormone stimulates the uptake of glucose by cells, lowering the concentration of glucose in the blood? insulin
Feeding centers are located in the: hypothalamus
Feeding occurs during the absorptive state. False
Heat is exchanged between the body and the environment by all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT: precipitation
Thermoregulation involves a steady core body temperature near: 37.5 °C (99.5 °F)
Calorimetry is used to measure the basal metabolic rate (BMR). true
Fruits, honey, candy, and juices are dietary sources of: monosaccharides and disaccharides.
Which statement is true regarding complete proteins? Complete proteins provide all of the essential amino acids.
Which of these vitamins is water-soluble? vitamin C
The indentation on the medial surface of the kidney is the __________. hilum
The functional units of the kidneys are __________. nephrons
Urine drains from a major calyx into __________. the renal pelvis
Where does blood in the arcuate artery travel next on its journey toward the glomerulus? interlobular (cortical radiate) artery
The portion of the renal tubule through which filtrate initially flows is known as the __________. proximal tubule
What should NOT be found in filtrate? albumin
The glomerular filtration rate is defined as __________. the amount of filtrate formed by both kidneys in one minute
The myogenic mechanism acts to restore glomerular filtration rate (GFR) by changing __________. vessel diameter
What will NOT stimulate the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS)? an increase in systemic blood pressure
Sympathetic stimulation of the kidney can do all of the following, EXCEPT __________. increase the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
Reabsorption of filtered glucose from the filtrate into the cells of the proximal tubule is by __________. secondary active transport
Substances used to measure renal clearance should be __________. filtered but neither reabsorbed nor secreted
What effect does high blood pressure have on the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in the absence of regulatory mechanisms? GFR will increase.
A drug that inhibits angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) may lead to __________. decreased blood pressure
Dilute urine is more likely to be produced when __________. the collecting duct is impermeable to water
Urine is transported from kidney to the urinary bladder by the __________. ureter
What is NOT a major function of the kidneys? hematopoiesis
Erythropoietin is produced by the kidneys to __________. regulate red blood cell production by the bone marrow
In which kidney region are the renal pyramids located? renal medulla
What are the two main subdivisions of the nephron? renal corpuscle and renal tubule
The process of filtration occurs at the __________. renal corpuscle
Which statement best describes the function of tubular reabsorption? Tubular reabsorption reclaims items from filtrate and returns them to the blood.
Filtrate and whole blood contain identical constituents. False
What is the normal value for the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in mL/min? 125
Glomerular colloid osmotic pressure (GCOP) is created by __________. proteins such as albumin in the blood
What is net filtration pressure (NFP) in the glomerular capillaries, in mm Hg? 10
Which of the following is an effect of angiotensin-II (A-II)? A-II promotes thirst.
The reabsorption of bicarbonate ions in the proximal tubule helps regulate __________. blood pH
Which hormones promote facultative water reabsorption? aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
The majority of sodium ions are reclaimed through sodium ion leak channels in the proximal tubule. true
How much urine, in liters, is typically produced in a 24 hour period? 1.8
What does the countercurrent mechanism accomplish in the nephron loop? creation of a steep concentration gradient for continued water reabsorption
The juxtamedullary apparatus acts as a special vascular system called the countercurrent exchanger. False
Countercurrent multiplication and exchange occurs in the __________. nephron loop and vasa recta
Where does ADH promote water reabsorption? medullary collecting duct
Each of the following is typical of urine EXCEPT __________. a pH of 3.0
Renal clearance is defined as __________. the rate at which the kidneys remove a substance from the blood
What is renal clearance used to estimate? glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
The trigone of the urinary bladder is created by __________. the openings to the two ureteral orifices and the internal urethral orifice
What initiates the micturition reflex? Stretch receptors in the wall of the urinary bladder signal the sacral region of the spinal cord.
Voluntary neural control is necessary for __________. relaxation of the external urethral sphincter
Created by: 1246825635331130