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Pharm Exam 2

Which of the following drugs, injected by IV, would produce a response similar to the profile obtained with injecting the combo of prazosin and epi Isoproterenol
How does cocaine and tricyclic antidepressants work block reuptake of NE into the synapse
Regular use of drugs like terbutaline and metaproterenol can result in decreased effectiveness due to receptor down regulation
Which of the following drugs would antagonize the effects of non-selective beta adrenergic agonist propanolol
Drug used to suppress premature labor Ritodrine
What is not true of NE useful to increase the duration of some local anesthesia
Which of the following adrenoreceptor antagonists will reduce responses mediated by both alpha and beta receptors Lebetalol
A diabetic patient suddenly developed hypoglycemia. The patient had be taking a drug that decreased the ability of the patient to feel some warning signs such as tachycardia and palpitation. The drug was most likely Metoprolol
What is the mechanism of B1 receptors increase cAMP
Administration of a beta-1 selective antagonist will affect all the following except peripheral vascular resistance
Which of the following drugs, when administered intravenously, can decrease blood flow to the skin, increase blood flow to skeletal muscle, and increase the force of contraction epinephrine
Which of the following drugs could cause bradycardia and with an overdose could cause cardiac arrest Propranolol
A patient in your dentist's chair exhibits a sinus tachycardia at a rate of 165bpm. He tells you he has been taking a lot of amphetamine to stay awake. If a B-adrenergic receptor antagonist is used, which of the following could result increased BP (??)
Stimulation of the following receptor would be most useful in a patient with nasal congestion alpha-1
Which of the following actions of epinephrine would be antagonized by prozasin but not propanolol Mydriasis
What is the typical treatment of asthma Albuterol
What is not indicated for treatment of acute asthma Salmeterol
One of the possible complications for this drug is postural hypotension non-selective alpha antagonist
What is a short acting beta blocker esmolol
Which one of these can cause reflex bradycardia alpha-1 agonist
How does Clonidine work? it is an alpha-2 receptor agonist that inhibits NE and sympathetic tone
The following drug class was initially contraindicated in patients with heart failure, but now is a standard treatment beta-1 anagonits (??)
Which is an example of a polyene Nystatin
Which is used as a 'swish or swallow' for treating candida Nystatin
Which prevents lanosterol and synthesis of ergosterol Azole
Interferes with RNA and protein synthesis Flucytosine
Which is a nucleoside inhibitor of reverse transcriptase Zidovudine
Which is an integrase inhibitor Raltegravir
Which is a protease inhibtor Indinavir
Which is a CCR5 inhibitor Maraviroc
What is a neuraminidase inhibitor Oseltamvir (Tamiflu)
What is used to treat HepB interferon alpha2B
Which is converted to a triphosphate compound that can inhibit DNA synthesis Acyclovir
Which is used to treat recurrent mucosal and cutaneous herpes Acyclovir
What is included in the standard of care for Hep C Ribavirin (or Boceprevir is possible answer)
How does Sofosbuvir work prevent replication of viral DNA
Dose of amoxicillin for patient with IE 2g
Dose of azithromycin for patient with IE 500mg
Predisposing to endocarditis except mitral valve prolapse
Dose of amoxicllin in joint replacement patients 2g
Beta lactam used to treat early stage odontogenic infections amoxicllin
Beta lactamase stable if suspect resistance Augmentin
Risk of increasing adverse effect of statin drugs to cause rhabdomyolysis Clarithromycin
Decrease effectiveness of penicillin when taken together Tetracycline
Amount of Penicillin VK that undergoes metabolism 10-30%
Antipseudomonal Penicillin Piperacillin
Cephalosporin that can diffuse through porins Cefactor
1st generation cephalosporin Cephalexin
Beta lactam that inhibits final transpeptidation step Aztreonam
Action that depends on absence of oxygen Metronidazole
Competitive inhibitor of bacterial PABA sulfonamide drugs
Causes hearing loss Tobramycin
Binds to 30s and 50s to cause aberrant proteins Gentamicin
Targets bacterial DA gyrase and topoisomeraise IV some 'floxacin'
How many methods are there for bacteria to become resistant to penicillin 4
Amoxicillin better than Penicillin VK in eradicating H. influenza
What patients should not get penicillin Asthmatics
How much amoxicillin remains excreted in the urine 80%
What is Periostat (doxycycline) used for adjunct with root planing and scaling to increase reattachment
This drug binds PBP and affects the last step of cell wall synthesis Cephalexin
What is the carrier form of Doxil liposome
These antibiotics are poorly absorbed because they are highly polar aminoglycosides
What does potassium clauvanate do protect from beta lactamases
Which is true of phenytoin effective for tonic-clonic seizures
Which is true of carbamazepine effective for complex partial seizures
Which is not true of phenobarbital causes gingival hyperplasia
The antifungal mechanism of Amphotericin B is Binding to ergosterol
Significant fungal resistance to Azoles can occur by which of the following mechanisms Mutations in lansterol 14-demethylase; active efflux of the drug from the fungal cell ("both A and C are correct")
All of the following with regard to Mycobacterium tuberculosis are correct except Mycobacterium tuberculosis contains peptidoglycan as the major cell wall component
All of the following in regard to Rifampin are correct except Rifampin is an inhibitor of DNA synthesis
Which of the following are considered advantages of combination therapy with Amphotericin B and Flucytosine A synergistic response to a combination of the drugs than with either alone; Reduced toxicity due to a lower dose of Amp B; The lower rate of resistance emergence in prolonged treatment ('all of the above')
All of the following with regard to the anti-malarial chloroquine are true except Chloroquine is not a prophylactic drug and is restricted use under the CDC
Which of the following drugs would be an alternative prophylactic in the case of a chloroquine-resistant malaria region Mefloquine; Doxycycline ('A and C are correct')
A first choice drug used in patients with rheumatoid arthritis that is also antineoplastic agent when used in higher dose is methotrexate
The following inhibits the action of TNF Etanercept (Enbrel); Infliximab (Remicade); Adalimumab (Humira).......('all of the above')
Alpha adrenergic blocking drugs Do not oppose the cardiac effects of sympathomimetic adrenergic agents
The following is true of the drug prozosin (minipress) Its primary effect is to block alpha-1 receptors; it produces less reflex tachycardia than non-selective alpha blockers ('A and B")
Beta adrenergic blocking agents can decrease cardiac output; decrease myocardial contractility; decrease heart rate; block the direct effects of norepinephrine on the heart ('all of the above')
Which of the following is the primary target of Rifampin DNA dependent RNA polymerase
All of the following in regard to tuberculosis therapy are correct except Rifampin and isoniazid should never be used in the same combination therapy
All of the following with regard to the anti-malarial chloroquine are true except Mefloquine is never used as a prophylactic therapy
All the following about Amphotericin B are true Except it is water soluble
What is a CCR5 inhibitor Maraviroc
Which of the following adrenoreceptor antagonists will reduce responses mediated by both alpha and beta receptors Labetalol
What is a short acting beta blocker esmolol
How does Clonidine work it is an alpha 2 receptor agonist that inhibits NE and sympathetic tone
Which is a major target for biologics TNF alpha
All of the following are mechanisms of action for biologics used in terating RA except Antagonism of COX-2 activity
An adverse reaction somewhat common to many of the biological agents serious upper respiratory tract infections
What is false about MTX only used by itself, whereas biologics are used together
Created by: hawleyd11