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Pediatric Test 1

Pediatric Dentistry Test 1

QuestionAnswer
components of patient history? identifying data, chief complaint, present illness, past history, illness, operations, current health status, dental history, family history
where do we see early childhood caries most often? upper front and upper and lower posterior teeth
what teeth usually come in first? anteriors, upper and lower canines and then posterior
what are the most common operations kids have? tonsillectomy/ adenoidectomy or placement of ear tubes
what are the most comment current or chronic illnesses asthma, cardia, seizure disorders, bleeding disorders, behavior disorders
what are fordyce granules? sebaceous glands more commonly seen in hairy patients
what is a mucocele? due to trauma to salivary gland
what is geographic tongue? loss of filliform papillae changes periodically tends to be chronic condition may have some pain or sensitivity
what do we look at when classifying occlusion on primary teeth? Molar relationship looking at the most distal portion of our lower second primary molar
class I in primary dentition flush terminal plane (upper and lower distal portion end to end), canine end to end
class II in primary dentition mesial step (distal of lower primary molar is in front of the upper primary molar), canine class I
class III in primary dentition Distal step (lower secondary primary molar is distal to the second primary molar on maxillary), class II canine
what is over jet? facial aspect of the lower incisors to the facial aspect of the upper incisors
what is over bite? how much the upper incisors are overlying the lower incisors (percentage or mm)
what is child development? biological, physiological and emotional changes that occur in human beings between birth and the end of adolescences continuous process with a predictable sequence but has unique course for every child
what is growth? predictable and orderly process that results in increase in size
what is development? increase in complexity of form and function in an orderly sequence
what are the principles of child development? proceeds in head to toe direction center of the body outward depends on maturation and learning proceeds from simple to complex continuous process proceeds from general to specific individual rates of growth and development
what is cephalocaudle principle? development proceeds from head to toe direction child gains control of the head first, then the arms and legs crawling
what is proximodistal development? development proceeds from the center of the body outward spinal cord develops before outer parts of the body
how can growth be evaluated? height, weight, head circumference, BMI
what is cognitive development? construction of through processes including remembering, problem solving and decision making from childhood through adolescence to adulthood how children come to think, know and solve problems
what is piaget's theory of cognitive development the thinking process develops in sequential stages, each stage different from the others
what are the stages according to piaget? sensorimotor: birth to 2 years preoperational: 2 to 7 years concrete operational: 7 to 11 years formal operational: 12 to adult
how long does sensorimotor last? birth to 2 years
how long does pre operational last? 2 to 7 years
how long does concrete operational last? 7 to 11 years
how long does formal operational last? 12 to adult
what is skinner's theory on cognitive development behavior can be modified through experience
what are the early years of language? 2 months cooing 3 months babbling 9 months imitation of sounds
what is 12-18 months language development? 10-20 words, understands more than speaks
what is 18-24 months language development? combine words, bye bye stage, points at body parts 50 or more words
what is 3-4 years language development? carries conversations, three word sentences, count to 3, names 1-3 colors
what is 4-5 years language development? sentence length 4-5 words, tells stories, count to 10 names 5-6 colors
what is receptive language? when a person has trouble understanding others
what is expressive language? sharing thoughts ideas and feelings completely
what is a speech disorder? unable to produce speech sounds correctly or fluently or has problems with his or her voice
what makes up neurodevelopment development? gross motor, self help, fine motor
at 12 months what are the neurological developments? sit unsupported, crawl, walk two or three steps
at 1-2 years what is the neurological developments? walk unsupported, climbs on chair, self feeds with a spoon
at 2-3 years what is the neurological developments? walk upstairs, pedal a tricycle, turn pages on a book
what is temperament? describe the way that he or she approaches and reacts to the world, it is their personals style appears heritable and stable across time
what is personality? outcome of genetic predisposition to certain behaviors paired with effects of the social and family environment
what is 0-3 child development? babies learn to walk, crawl, stand, talk lap exams in dental office with oral sedation or IV sedation for work
at what age should the child be able to sit in the dental chair by themselves? age 3
what are luxation injuries? any injury to the tooth other than fracture usually involves displacement of the tooth
what is more common in primary dentition than permanent and also more common than fractures? luxation injuries
what is a concussion? tooth is hit but not displaced of loosened, no bleeding, bruised PDL, sore to touch or pressure
what is the treatment for a concussion? no treatment other than palliative, soft diet unlikely to have negative sequelae especially if isolated injury
what is a subluxation tooth is loosened but not displaced, little or no bleeding, sore to the touch or pressure
what is the treatment for a subluxation? no treatment other than palliative, unlikely to have negative sequelae
what is a lateral luxation? tooth is loosened and displaced in any direction other than the long axis, may interfere with occlusion, bleeding from gingival crevice and sore to touch or pressure radiographs show medial distal widening of PDM space on one side
what is the treatment for a lateral luxation? if not too mobile, reposition with gentle finger pressure if very mobile extract
what is the likely sequelae for a lateral luxation? abscess is most likely
what is an intrusive luxation? intrusion tooth is displaced deeper into the alveolus along the long axis, tooth is displaced such that the crown appears shorter than adjacent teeth, tooth will not be loose, bleeding from gingival crevice but no soreness, no mobility
what does the radiographic exam look like in intrusive luxation? absence of PDM space
what is the treatment for intrusive luxation? choose to watch for re-eruption if not pushed into permanent tooth bud forming at it's root end or extract if no movement within 2-3 weeks: extract if severely intruded extract
what is the most common adverse seqelae for intrusive luxation? abscess then ankylosis
what is extrusive luxation? extrusion tooth is loosened and displaced along its long axis farther out of the bone so crown appears longer than adjacent teeth, bleeding from gingival crevice and sore to touch or pressure with mobility
what does the radiographs looks like in extrusive luxation? widening of PDM space at apex
what is the treatment of extrusive luxation? if not too mobile, reposition with gentle finger pressure if very mobile, extract
what is the most common sequelae for extrusive luxation? abscess
what is an avulsion or exarticulation? tooth is missing, bleeding empty socket radiographic shows empty socket
what is more common in permanent dentition than primary and more common than laxations in permanent dentition trauma? tooth fractures
what is the treatment for enamel only uncomplicated fractures? smooth rough edges
what is the treatment for enamel and dentin uncomplicated fractures? composite bonding over area of bond tooth fragment back on tooth may do ssc on primary teeth
what is the treatment for a complicated fracture? pulp treatment, pulpotomy/ectomy SSC or esthetic crown
how much does pulp necrosis increase if the dentin is left unexposed for greater than 24 hours? 5% to 10%
what is the treatment for apical 1/3 root fracture? usually not mobile so seldom requires splinting, good prognosis
what is the treatment for middle 1/3 root fracture? fair prognosis if coronal segment not too mobile or separated too much, may be able to reposition and splint but if that mobile will probably extract
what is the treatment for coronal 1/3 root fracture? poor prognosis, extract
what does immediate grey color of a tooth mean? may be like bruise and return to normal but merits close supervision
what does delayed grey color of a tooth mean? almost always indicates pulp necrosis
what is the treatment for grey tooth? pulpectomy or extraction
what does yellowing of the tooth mean? pulp obliteration, calcific metamorphosis indicates excess dentin is being formed, rarely continues to pulp necrosis
what does immediate pink coloring of the tooth mean? may be like a bruise and return to normal but merits close supervision
what does delayed pink coloring of the tooth mean? almost always indicates extensive respiration needs extraction
when does a posterior tooth not need space maintenance? there are 2 teeth erupted into tight occlusion distal to the space
when do you use size 0 film? for BW and PA's prior to eruption of the 1st permanent molars less than 6 years old
when do you use size 1 film? special views of maxillary and mandibular PA's rarely used but with digital feeling large, good for small mouths
when do you use size 2 film? all maxillary and mandibular occlusals bitewings and PA's after the 1st permanent molars are in occlusion
when do you use size 4 film? a large occlusal
what does a new patient exam consist of for primary dentition prior to eruption of 6 year molars and contacts closed? 1 maxillary occlusal 1 mandibular occlusal 2BW
what does a mixed dentition new patient exam consist of after 1st permanent molars erupt, posterior contacts are closed and inter proximal cannot be visualized directly 2 occlusals, if all 4 permanent incisors are erupted than change to PA 2 BW if no second permanent molars 4 BW if 2nd permanent molars erupted panorex 4-8 PA
what does a permanent dentition new patient exam consist of? 2 anterior PA's 4BW panorex 8PA
when should a patient with increased risk for caries get x-rays? every 6-12 months posterior BW
when should a mixed dentition child with low risk get x-rays? 12-24 months
when should an adolescent low risk child get x-rays? 18 to 36 months
why are occlusal or anterior PA taken? baseline film due to high incidence of trauma to maxillary incisors diagnosis caries, trauma or mesiodens
why are bitewings taken? diagnosis of small inter proximal lesions in a patient with closed posterior contract evaluation of furcation in teeth with deep carious lesions or abscesses
why are posterior periodical or panoramic films taken? visualization of developing permanent teeth determination of missing or extra teeth determination of pathology
when is an occlusal film diagnostic? all apices of all erupted anterior teeth clearly visible with a minimum of 1 mm bone showing past apices all four permanent incisor buds visible
when is an occlusal film taken? prior to eruption of permeant incisors
when is a anterior PA taken? after eruption of permanent incisors
when is an anterior PA diagnostic? apices of all four permanent incisors must be clearly visible with a minimum of 1 mm bone visible past apices all periodical area suspected of pathological changes must show normal bone apical to the questionable area
when is a bitewing diagnostic? each inter proximal area observed without overlap
what should be visible in primary dentition bitewings? distal of canine and distal of 2nd primary molar should be visible in primary dentition
what should be visible in mixed dentition bitewings? distal of canine and distal of permanent molar should be visible in mixed dentition
what should be visible in full permanent dentition? distal of canine and medial of 2nd permanent molar
what is the technique for successful anterior PA's? occlusal plane -25 degrees for mandibular tube head +60 degrees over tip of nose for maxillary tube head -30 degrees over tip of chin for mandibular
what is the technique for successful bitewings? angle tube head at positive 10 degrees slightly above the occlusal plane
when is a posterior PA diagnostic? apices of all erupted teeth must be visible with a minimum of 1 mm of bone past the apices
what is the technique for successful posterior PA? maxillary posterior +40 degrees slightly below pupil centered on the tooth to be x-rayed mandibular: -10 degrees below border of the mandible and centered on the tooth to be x-rayed
what surface is more susceptible on 1st primary molar? distal surface because it is in firm contact with the 2nd primary molar
what surface is more susceptible on 2nd primary molar? mesial surface
when is it recommended that the child is brought to the dentist for the first time? no later than the eruption of the first tooth or first birthday
what is the number one chronic infectious disease of childhood? caries
what is vertical transmission? transmission of microbes from mother or caregiver to child
what is horizontal transmission? transmission of microbes between members of a group like family members of a similar age or students in a classroom
what is anticipatory guidance? proactive counseling of parents and patients about developmental changes that will occur in the interval between health supervision visits that includes information about daily care taking specific to that upcoming interval
what is included in anticipatory guidance for ages 0-3 oral hygiene, diet and fluoride
what is anticipatory guidance for mothers? oral hygiene, diet, fluoride, caries removal,
what can be mistaken for child abuse? accidental injuries, genetic diseases, acquired diseases, infections
what is the definition for child abuse? any mistreatment or neglect of a child that results in non accidental harm or injury and which cannot be reasonably explained genuine threat of substantial harm and failure to make a reasonable effort to prevent an action of another
what is the definition of child neglect? leaving a child in a situation where the child would be exposed to a substantial risk of physical or mental harm failure to provide food, shelter, clothing or adequate supervision
what are the most common types of maltreatment? neglect 78% physical abuse 19% sexual abuse 10% emotional maltreatment 9% medical neglect 2%
who are the abusers? 60% are female, 40% are male 80% are parents 10% other relatives
what is phase I of abuse? increased tension, anger, blaming, arguing, verbal abuse almost anything the abuser sees as negative can cause battering
what is phase II of abuse? the beginning of abuse- physical and or verbal may be a slap, push, shove, punch or worse may either begin as a single incident or hours of repeated beatings
what is phase II of abuse? a calm after the beatings or abuse occur abuser may deny, try to minimize or rationalize it and offer explanation for the abuse abuser may to try to make up for it by apology and gifts, saying it will never happen again
what is the definition of physical abuse? any act which results in non accidental trauma or physical injury most often unreasonable severe corporal punishment
sites of inflicted injury cheek, ear, lips and labial frenum, neck, buttocks and lower back, genitals and inner thighs
what is the definition of emotional abuse? systematic tearing own of another human being, pattern of behavior that can seriously interfere with a child's positive mental and psychological development victim sees himself or herself as unworthy of love and affection
what is the definition of sexual abuse? involvement of dependent developmentally immature children in sexual activities that they do not comprehend
what is the most common form of child maltreatment reported to CPS? child neglect
what is medical/dental neglect? failure ti provide health care although finically able to do so withholding traditional care due to religious beliefs is not usually considered medical neglect
what are the three things that puts a 0-3 child in the moderate risk for caries risk assessment? Child has plaque on their teeth Child has special health care needs Child is a recent immigrant
what does caries risk assessment according to AAPD do for parents? treatment of the disease process instead of treatment of outcome gives understanding of disease factors individualizes, determines frequency of preventive and restorative treatment anticipates caries progression
what are the three factors for the caries risk assessment? biological, protective, clinical findings
what puts a child at a high risk? the presence of a single risk indicator in any area of the high risk category
what puts a child at a moderate risk? the presence of at least one moderate risk indicator and no high category
what puts a child at a low risk no moderate or high risk indicator
what are the high biological risks for 0-3 or 0-5 year olds mother has active decay parent is of low socioeconomic status child has more than 3 meals containing snack or bereaves per day child is put to bed with bottle
what are the protective factors for 0-3 or 0-5 year olds child receives optimally fluoridated drinking water or fluoride child has teeth brushed daily with fluoridated toothpaste child receives topical fluoride from health professional child has dental home/regular dental care
what are the high clinical finding risk found in 0-3 or 0-5 children? child has white spot lesions or enamel defects child has visible cavities or fillings
what do you do with a low risk 1-2 year old recall every 6-12 months, twice daily brushing, diet counseling
what do you do with a moderate risk 1-2 year old with parents engaging recall every 6 months, twice daily brushing, fluoride supplements, professional topical fluoride
for a low risk 3-5 year old what is radiographic orders? 12-24 months recall every 6-12 months
for a moderate risk 3-5 year old what is radiographic orders 6-12 months recall every 6 months
for a high risk 3-5 year old what is radiographic orders 6 months recall every 3 months
what are the moderate risk levels for children greater than 6 years old? patient has special health care needs patient is a recent immigrant patient has defective restorations patient wearing an intraoral appliance
Created by: Chobchi