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Blood Banking 2

Practice test for 2nd Blood Banking exam DelTech Owens

QuestionAnswer
Antigens are molecules that bind to antibodies or __ __. T-cell receptors
How would you describe allogeneic antigens? they are nonself antigens
How would you describe autologous antigens? they are self antigens
__ are partial antigens that require a carrier molecule to elicit an immune response. Haptens
Antigens contain different __ __ that can elicit different types of antibodies. antigenic determinants
Another word for antigenic determinants is ? epitopes
Most reactions in transfusion medicine are ? humoral
B cells that produce the majority of antibodies are called ? plasma cells
B cells that respond rapidly to the next exposure to a pathogen and transform into plasma cells are called ? memory B cells
After they recognize an antigen, B lymphocytes present the antigen to ? T lymphocytes
After B cells have presented an antigen to a T cell, the T cells will trigger B cells to produce ? plasma cells
What kind of cell can respond to the next exposure to a pathogen without activation from a T cell? Memory B cells
What are the best immunogens? Proteins
What are the 2nd best immunogens? complex carbohydrates
Degree of __ is a factor contributing to the immunogenicity of a particle. foreigness
What region determines that class of an antibody? Constant region
What region binds the antigen? variable
Which antibody works in the immediate spin phase? IgM
Which antibody works in the AHG phase? IgG
Which antigen has a lag phase of 5 to 10 days before it reacts to an immunogen? IgM
What do you call the structure that forms when the antigen and antibody combine? immune complex
The strength of the binding between the antibody and the antigen is influenced by what 3 things? 1. size 2. shape 3. charge ... of the antigen
Immune complexes are held together by __ forces and contribute to the __ of the attachment. noncovalent forces, avidity/strength of attachment
Which antibody has a lag phase of only 1 to 3 days? IgG
The attraction between 2 molecules on the basis of opposite charge is called ? ionic bonding
The attraction of 2 negatively charged groups for a H+ atom is called ? hydrogen bonding
The attraction between the electron cloud of one atom and the protons within the nucleus of another atom is called ? van der Waals forces
For blood banking, antigens are located on the membranes of __. RBCs
Antibodies are molecules found in __ or __. plasma or serum
Which are glycoproteins or glycolipids: antigens or antibodies? antigens
IgG antibodies react at what temp? 37C
IgM antibodies react at what temp? room temp
Which antibodies are considered clinically significant: IgG or IgM? IgG
When are IgM antibodies considered clinically significant? when they activate complement (ABO antibodies can do this)
In vivo reactions happen where? in the body
in vitro reactions happen where? the test tube/lab
Exposure of foreign antigens during transfusion or pregnancy may cause sensitization resulting in production of __. alloantibodies
An antibody that occurs naturally against foreign tissues from a person of the same species is called ? alloantibody
What kind of test will detect alloantibodies? antibody screen test
Detection of alloantibodies BEFORE a transfusion helps the patient how? It prevents formation of antibodies to the transfusion in vivo.
Antibodies can activate what kind of proteins that could lead to the destruction of RBCs? complement
The final phases of complement activate the __ __ __. membrane attack complex
When activated, complement enhances what process? immunologic
The classical complement pathway is activated by __. antibodies
The alternative complement pathway is activated by __ __ __ __. foreign cell surface constituents
What complement effect clears immune complexes, enhances phagocytosis, and promotes release of enzymes from neutrophils? opsonization
What complement effect increases smooth muscle contraction and inflammation? anaphylaxis
What complement effect recruits platelets and phagocytes to the lyse the invader? chemotactic
No agglutination means there was no __. reaction
What are the 2 steps of agglutination? 1. sensitization 2. lattice formation
Sensitization is when ? antibody binds to antigen before a visible reaction occurs
Lattice formation is when ? antibody-coated cells cross-link to form visible agglutination
You need at least __ RBCs to bind together to get agglutination. 2
The distance between cells caused by charged ions is known as ? zeta potential
When antigen and antibody concentrations are equal, this is called the zone of ? equivalence
What helps bring the cells closer together so you can see the reaction? centrifugation
Agglutination reactions are graded on a semiquantitative scale ranging from what to what? 0-4+
What else, besides agglutination, indicates a positive reaction? hemolysis
Hemolysis is usually caused by activation of ? complement
After centrifugation, the RBC button is ? smaller
After centrifugation, a pink or red __ is observed. supernatant
Anticoags stop complement from activating in vitro by chelating __. calcium
Where can HLAs be found? on leukocytes and tissue cells (cells with a nucleus)
HLA antibodies can be produced as a result of what 2 things? 1. transfusion 2. pregnancy
Antibodies have been associated with __ and transfusion reactions. refractoriness
HLA testing can assess the __ __ for disease susceptibility. risk factors
HLAs can be used for organ and HPC (hematopoietic progenitor cell) __. transplants
Genes that code for HLA are part of the __. MHC
Class I of MHC genes effect what? 1. platelets 2. WBCs 3. nucleated cells
Class II of MHC genes effect what? 1. macrophages 2. dendritic cells 3. B cells
Class III of MHC genes effect what? 1. complement 2. cytokines
People inherit one __ from each parent. haplotype
HPCs can be obtained from what 3 places? 1. bone marrow 2. peripheral blood 3. cord blood
Platelet __ can trigger immune responses. proteins
Antibodies to platelets can cause what 2 things? 1. NAIT (neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia) 2. PTP (Posttransfusion purpura)
The most common platelet antibody is directed against ? HPA-1a (or P1-a1)
NAIT (neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia) causes destruction of __ __ by __ __. newborn platelets by maternal antibody
PTP (Posttransfusion purpura) causes destruction of platelets after a __. transfusion
Routine testing methods for immunohematology include what 3 methods? 1. tube testing 2. gel technology 3. solid-phase adherence technology
RBCs are tested with commercial __ to determine the identity of the antigen. antisera
Serum or plasma is tested with commercial __ to identify antibodies. RBCs
ABO/D blood typing detects A,B,D antigens on the patient's __. RBCs
ABO serum testing detects ABO antibodies with specifity to __ __ __. red cell antigens
The source of the antibody during an ABO/D typing is ? commercial anti-A, anti-B, anti-D
The source of the antibody for ABO serum testing is ? the patient's serum or plasma
ABO/D typing is also know by what 2 names? Front/Forward typing
ABO serum testing is also known by what 2 names? Back/Reverse typing
The antibody screening test detects (antibodies or antigens?) with specificity to blood cell (antibodies or antigens?) 1. antibodies 2. red cell antigens
What is the source of the antibody used during an antibody screening test? screening cells
What is the source of the antibody during an antibody screening test? patient's serum or plasma
An antibody identification test identifies the specificity of red cell __. antibodies
What is the source of the antigen used during an antibody identification test? Panel cells
What is the source of the antibody during an antibody identification test? Patient's serum or plasma
A crossmatch test determines the serological compatibility between donor and patient before __. transfusion
What is the source of the antigens used during a crossmatch test? Donor's RBCs
What is the source of the antibody used during a crossmatch test? Patient's serum or plasma
One category of reagents used in blood banking includes RBCs with known __. antigens
One category of reagents used in blood banking includes antisera with known __. antibodies
One category of reagents used in blood banking includes what antiglobuline reagents? 1. anti-IgG 2. complement (NOTE: it can either one or both)
One category of reagents used in blood banking includes potentiators to enhance __. antibodies
Who licenses blood banking reagents? Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (FDA)
Componenents of a QC program include what 3 things? 1. statement of criteria for reagent performance 2. documentation of reagent use 3. corrective actions for lack of performance
Polyclonal antibodies are made from several different clones of __ __ that secrete antibodies of different specificities. B cells
Polyclonoal antibodies recognize multiple __. epitopes
An example of polyclonal antibodies includes ? antihuman globulin (AHG)
Monoclonal antibodies are made from single clones of B cells that secrete antibodies of the same __. specificity
Monoclonal antibodies use __ technology. hybridoma
Monoclonal antibodies recognize a single __. epitope
Examples of monoclonal antibodies include what 3 antibodies? 1. anti-A 2. anti-c 3. anti-IgG
Anti-A is directed toward which antigen? A
Anti-A's reaction to group B antigens will be (+ or -?) negative
Anti-B's reaction to blood type O will be (+ or -?) negative
Reagents used to test for ABO typing will be used during which spin phase? immediate (or IS for immediate spin)
When performing ABO typing using the immediate-spin phase, confirmation testing should check for expected __. antibodies
What is the most important antigen in the rH blood group system? D (due to increased immunogenicity)
The AABB's Standards for Blood Banks and Transfusion Servicees requires all blood samples to be typed for which antigen? D
When typing for the D antigen, commercial anti-D is combined with what? the patient AND donor RBCs
How do you ensure that a false-positive has not occurred when performing a D antigen typing test? Use a negative reagent
High-protein or low-protein reagents have polyclonal antibodiese? high-protein
High-protein or low-protein reagents have about 6% bovine albumin? high-protein
High-protein or low-protein reagents have monoclonal antibodies OR monoclonal and polyclonal blends? low-protein
Low-protein reagents that only have monoclonal antibodies use which kind of antibody? IgM
High-protein or low-protein reagents have promote false-positive agglutination? high-protein
High-protein or low-protein reagents have replaced the other in blood banking? low-protein replaced high-protein
Low-protein reagent controls should show agglutination or no agglutination? no agglutination
What can cause a false-positive agglutination when using low-protein reagent controls? 1. strong cold autoantibodies 2. protein abnormalities
A separate control is used (instead of the low-protein reagent control) if RBCs agglutinae with __ __ antisera. all ABO antisera
Name 3 procedures that use commercial RBCs that contain known antigens to confirm the prsence of antibodies in patient serum or plasma. 1. ABO serum testing 2. Screening tests 3. Antibody identification
In ABO serum testing (also called reverse grouping), what cells are combined with the patient's serum or plasma to determine the reverse grouping? A1 and B cells
When reverse grouping (or ABO serum testing), patients possess the antibody directed against the antigen of the ABO system that is __ in their RBCs. lacking
When reverse grouping, a patient who has a positive reaction with reagent B cells has the anti-__ antibody. B
When reverse grouping, a patient who has type O blood will register positive or negative for both anti-A and anti-B antibodies? positive
A1 and B cells are resuspended to a concentration of what percent? 2-5%
A1 and B cells used in reverse grouping must be from a single donor or a pool of donors? either one
When reverse grouping, the A1 and B cells used in the ABO serum test must positive or negative for Rh antigens? negative
A1 and B cells should not be used when reverse grouping is the red cells __, __ in the vial, or show hemolysis. red cells darken or agglutinate in the vial
What kind of cells are used in antibody screen (detection) tests for unexpected antibodies? screening cells
Can pooled donor cells be used as screening cells? yes
When are only single-donor vials used in a screening test? when the patient is about to receive a transfusion
Do single-donor cells or pooled-donor cells give a stronger screening test reaction? single
Each lot of screening cells comes with an __ that shows the antigen profile. antigram
Screening cells MUST express antigens associated with the most clinically significant __. antibodies
Screening cells are regulated by the __. FDA
Panel cells are similar to screening cells, but panel cells come in vials of __ or more while screening cells come in sets of __ or __ vials. 10 or more, 2 or 3
What is the name of the procedure where panel cells are used to identify antibodies? antibody panel
Every lot of panel cells should have an antigram that shows the __ profile of each vial. antigenic
During an antiglobulin test, commercial antibodies with a specificity toward human __ are used to agglutinate antibody-coated RBCs. globulins
The reagent used in an antiglobulin test have antibodies toward what 2 things? 1. IgG 2. complement (anti-C3d and anti-C3b)
Which test detects IgG or complement bound to RBCs in vivo? DAT (Direct antiglobulin test)
When performing a DAT, anti-human globulin reagent is added after the RBCs have been __. washed
If a patient has a transfusion reaction, the DAT test will be pos or neg? positive
Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn will cause the DAT to be pos or negative? positive
26
Created by: IsaacJ
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