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BIO 270 Practice
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Identify four steps needed for the development of metastases. | 1. Breaking through the basement membrane and extracellular matrix 2. Gaining access to and circulating within the blood vessels or lymph system 3. Leaving the blood vessels or lymph system and adhering to distant tissues 4. Angiogenesis |
| Describe the Initiation-Promotion-Progression theory. | An initiating event causes a mutation in a cell. The initiating event may eventually be identified, but many times it is not. The promoting event is an expansion of the mutated cell's growth and reproduction. The continued growth of the cell is dependent |
| Identify measures that you can implement to prevent cancer. | Avoidance of known carcinogens, participating moderate exercise and consuming a balanced healthy diet, accepting vaccinations when indicated, and protection against chronic injury, including exposure to reactive oxygen species. |
| Centromere | Region of eukaryotic chromosome found near the attachment point of mitotic or meiotic spindle fibers |
| Chromosome | A DNA molecule and associated proteins |
| A person's genotype can be best described as: | The genetic makeup of an individual |
| A person's phenotype can be best described as: | traits that are observable or apparent |
| At the level of the cell, cancer is _______. | genetic |
| Cancer in children differs from adult cancers in that childhood cancers: | Commonly have a mesodermal germ layer origin |
| Mitochondrial gene disorders are transmitted to: | both daughters and sons |
| Mitochondrial genes produce proteins involved in | energy metabolism |
| All the offspring of a cross between a black-eyed mendelien and an orange-eyed mendelien have black eyes. This means that the allele for black eyes is ________ the allele for orange eyes. | dominant to |
| Any gene located on a sex chromosome | is called a sex-linked gene |
| A benign tumor differs from a malignant tumor in that a benign tumor | does not metastasize |
| Sex-linked conditions are more common in men than in women because | men need to inherit only 1 copy of the recessive allele for the condition to be fully expressed |
| What is the normal complement of sex chromosomes in a human male? | One X chromosome and one Y chromosome |
| A carrier of a genetic disorder who does not show symptoms is most likely to be ________ to transmit it to offspring. | heterozygous for the trait and able |
| Any change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA is called | a mutation |
| The information of a gene is specified in | the order of bases A, T, G or C |
| The p53 gene serves as a ________ in regulating the cell cycle. | tumor supressor |
| Most genetic disorders of humans are caused by | recessive alleles |
| The target of damage in Huntington disease is: | nerve tissue |
| This is the lethal aspect of cancer: | metastasis |
| This type of care for those with cancer is focused on treating symptoms without curing the cancer: | Palliative |
| What is the risk of a mother with the genetic mutation that causes Fragile X syndrome passing the gene on to offspring? | 50% of males affected |
| Which is not a mechanism of tumor spread? | Angiogenesis |
| Which of the following best describes cell proliferation? | is under the control of genes |
| Which of the following gene categories, when mutated, will affect the cell's ability to encode for the proteins involved in cell growth or regulation? | Oncogenes |
| Which of the following is a manifestation of Down syndrome? | Epicanthal eye folds |
| Which of the following is true about tumor grading? | A higher grade equates to a poorer prognosis |
| Which of these conditions follows a multifactorial pattern of inheritance? | Coronary artery disease |
| Which one of the following hemoglobin types is produced during sickle cell crisis? | HbS |
| Which prenatal test(s) diagnoses Down syndrome? | Karyotype |
| Without this, tumor cells would be unable to establish a nutrient network to support continued overproliferation: | angiogenesis |
| Chromosomal anomalies are detected by a ______________________________, the visual organization of chromosome. | karoytype |
| DNA is located in the _________________________ of the cell | nucleus |
| Prenatal screening for chromosomal abnormalities includes withdrawal of amniotic fluid in a procedure known as __________________________________. | amniocentesis |
| Any agent that causes damage to DNA is a potential carcinogen. | True |
| As more is learned about cancer, it has become clear that cancer, with few exceptions, has no genetic basis. | False |
| Immunology is the study of: | all of these |
| One primary cell type involved in adaptive immunity includes: | lymphocyte |
| Cells that become differentiated in the bone marrow are: | plasma cells |
| This is a process by which influenza viruses are well adapted to escape host defenses and gradually change genetic composition during replication in the human host cell: | Reassortment |
| Your roommate has influenza. All of the following are appropriate measures to avoid this infection except: | Sterilization |
| Formation of these is a protective mechanism during some cases of chronic inflammation where an area is walled off in order to protect surrounding unaffected tissues: | Granulomas |
| Which is not a major goal of the inflammatory response? | form an antigen-antibody response |
| How does the inflammatory response know when to retreat? | Feedback mechanisms regulated by plasma protein systems |
| You notice that after you sprained your ankle that the ankle became swollen, red, and hot. Why did the ankle get hot? | Increased blood flow to the site |
| In chronic inflammation, extensive scarring is due to: | Fibroblast activity |
| Which of the following types of viral hepatitis is not associated with transmission through contact with infected blood? | A |
| This is a standard of health care that recognizes all blood and body fluids as potentially infected: | Universal precautions |
| Which best describes why yeast infections are common in women on antibiotics? | Destroying one type of resident flora (bacteria) can allow overproliferation of another competing type (yeast) |
| List the clinical manifestations for bacterial meningitis. | A rapid and severe onset of symptoms. Irritation of the meninges results in: severe headache and nuchal rigidity. The increase in ICP from brain edema and resultant hypoxia to decreased alertness, including loss of consciousness, changes in mental status, |
| The antibody class involved in hypersensitivity reaction is: | IgE |
| List the clinical manifestations for anaphylaxis. | Bronchospasm, urticaria, angioedema, hypotension, and edema. |
| This type of hypersensitivity reaction involves degranulation of basophils and mast cells when IgE binds to an allergen: | immediate hypersensitivity reaction |
| The cell that must be “loosened” in order for the products of healing to get to the site of injury: | endothelial |
| Without this process, leukocytes would be unable to move across endothelial cells and get to the site of injury: | diapedesis |
| Which is not a mechanism by which a pathogen causes disease in humans? | attack of the pathogen by the host cells immune cells |
| An activated monocyte is also known as a: | macrophage |
| Which of the following sets of clinical manifestations is most characteristic of influenza? | body aches, cough, sore throat |
| Which of the following is characteristic of tinea versicolor? | presents as hypopigmented patches |
| Which of the following statement is not true regarding ulcerative colitis? | It can occur anywhere in the gastrointestinal tract from the mouth to the anus |
| Cirrhosis, a complication of chronic hepatitis, leads to liver failure by all of the following mechanisms except: | massive destruction of Kupffer cells |
| Which is a complication of infection where pathogens gain access to the blood? | septicemia |
| Which characteristic best describes the inflammatory response? | regulated by chemical mediators |
| Anaphylaxis is mediated by which class of antibody? | IgE |
| Which characteristic explains why some pathogens do not cause disease in humans? | receptor binding |
| This type of hypersensitivity reaction involves failure of the development of self-tolerance: | autoimmune reaction |
| Which of the following serves as the rationale for AIDS treatment with antiretroviral therapy? | triple therapy with reverse transcriptase, protease, and fusion inhibitors |
| A specific type of gram-negative bacteria contains endotoxin in the bacterial cell envelope. What is the likely clinical manifestation if these bacteria become pathogenic? | Fever |
| Urinary tract infection and pelvic inflammatory disease share which characteristic? | ascending infections |
| You are cooking macaroni and cheese and while pouring the pasta into the colander you splash scalding water on your arm. The area becomes red, painful, and blisters form. How would this burn be classified? | deep partial thickness burn |
| One primary cell type involved in cell-mediated immunity includes: | cytotoxic T lymphocytes |
| The loss of cell-mediated and humoral immunity in acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is due to: | CD4 lymphocytes |
| Which is not a characteristic of resident flora? | They do not compete with disease-producing microorganisms |
| Which of the following is not a characteristic clinical manifestation of Crohn disease? | constipation |
| What is the relationship between severe burns and the development of gastritis? | Burns shunt blood away from stomach |
| Poor tissue perfusion can lead to this complication of chronic inflammation: | ulceration |
| Which of the following does not explain why multiple pathways are needed for the activation and suppression of chemical mediators? | The response must be overzealous to be effective |
| Rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by all of the following except: | chronic inflammatory processes predominated by neutrophils |
| Distinguish iatrogenic from nosocomial. | Nosocomial illnesses are caused by exposure to the health care environment. Iatrogenic illnesses are the inadvertent result of medical treatment. An example of an iatrogenic illness is the development of a urinary tract infection through the placement of |
| How is pathophysiology differentiated from pathology? | Pathology is the study of the structural and functional changes in cells and tissues as a result of injury. Pathophysiology is basically a combination of pathology and physiology; that is, structural and functional changes at a cellular and tissue level t |
| Identify the factor that differentiates gigantism from acromegaly. | Gigantism is due to hormone-stimulated excessive growth before epiphyseal growth plate closure. Acromegaly is due to hormone-stimulated excessive growth after epiphyseal growth plate closure. |
| List three risk factors that increase the risk for the development of cervical cancer. | Early age of sexual activity onset, multiple sexual partners, exposure to oncogenic forms of the human papilloma virus (HPV), and smoking. |
| What is the difference between epidemic, endemic, and pandemic? | A condition is endemic when the incidence and prevalence are stable and predictable. A dramatic increase in the incidence of a health condition in a population is termed epidemic, that is, above the endemic rate. When this epidemic spreads across continen |
| Cardiovascular disease is a condition that has genetic and environmental influences. This type of condition is considered: | multifactorial |
| Cell death associated with inflammation is known as: | Necrosis |
| Damage to cells resulting from frostbite is classified as which type of injury? | thermal |
| Due to a persistent stressor, columnar cells may turn into squamous cells as a method of adaptation. This process is known as: | Metaplasia |
| Five-year survival rates are often applied to patients with cancer as an indication of this: | Prognosis |
| Health is often equated with this concept: | Homeostasis |
| Increase in functional demand resulting in increased cell number is: | Hyperplasia |
| Increase in functional demand resulting in increased cell size is: | Hypertrophy |
| Phagocytosis is an example of which type of cellular function? | Ingestion |
| Receptors that project into either the intracellular or the extracellular environments are known as: | peripheral proteins |
| Reduction in functional demand leads to cellular: | Atrophy |
| The organelle responsible for synthesis of proteins by bound ribosomes is called the: | rough endoplasmic reticulum |
| The permanent cessation of menses is known as: | Menopause |
| The transport mechanism requiring energy is: | Primary active transport |
| This is defined as fully differentiated body part with specialized functions: | Organ |
| This is defined as impairment of cell, tissue, organ, or system functioning: | Disease |
| This is defined as the action or workings of various parts of the body and is altered in the presence of disease: | Function |
| This term describes how a disease starts, progresses, and resolves: | Pathogenesis |
| What is the process that makes cells with the same genetic material develop into specific cell types? | Differentiation |
| Which of the following best describes the health-illness continuum? | It is a dynamic entity |
| Which of the following is characteristic of the plasma membrane? | contains a bilayer of lipids with polar heads |
| Which one of the following is part of the cellular cytoskeleton? | Actin |
| You are diagnosed with an illness and no one is sure of the cause. This condition would be termed: | Idiopathic |
| You have influenza. Identify a systemic manifestation of that condition: | Fever |
| You have just purchased a new bike helmet and wear this daily when you bike to school. What level of prevention are you demonstrating? | Primary |
| You received a paper cut while turning the page in your textbook. Identify a local manifestation of that injury: | Pain |
| Your father is on a rehabilitation unit after a stroke, so that he can relearn how to perform his usual activities of daily living. What level of prevention is implemented here? | Tertiary |
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