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Questions practice
EPPP Questions to study
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Suspicious, not trusting, accusatory, pessimistic describes what personality disorder? | Paranoid |
| Reclusive, no motivation of relationships, blunted affect, indifference to praise or criticism describes what personality disorder? | Schizoid |
| decisions, social cognition, memory, emotion regulation. Damage - impaired decision-making and moral judgment, lack of insight, deficits in social cognition (reduced empathy), confabulation, and blunted describes which PFC part? | The ventromedial prefrontal cortex (VMPFC) |
| AKA expressive/nonfluent aphasia. Slow, labored speech that consists primarily of nouns and verbs. Has comprehension of written and spoken language is what disorder? | Broca’s aphasia |
| Highly attention seeking, emotional, over sexual and friendships are not as close as they think - describes what disorder? | Histrionic |
| executive functions, and damage can cause concrete thinking, impaired judgment and insight, poor planning ability, deficits in working memory, perseverative responses, and disinterest and apathy- which PFC area? | dorsolateral prefrontal cortex (DLPFC) |
| emotion regulation, response inhibition, and social behaviors. Damage to this area can cause poor impulse control, social inappropriateness (e.g., immature behavior, offensive jokes is which PFC area? | orbitofrontal cortex (OFC) |
| relatively intact comprehension with fluent speech that contains many errors, impaired repetition, and anomia, is which aphasia? | Conduction |
| occurs when the primary visual cortex is damaged while the eyes and optic nerves are intact is? | Cortical Blindness |
| individuals with cortical blindness exhibit ?, which occurs when they do not consciously see a visual stimulus but have appropriate physiological and behavioral responses to it (e.g., they reach for objects they claim they cannot see | Blindsight |
| Hypersensitive to rejection, low self esteem. Desire relationships but afraid is what personality disorder? | Avoidant |
| 95% of right-handed people and 50 to 70% of left-handed people, written and spoken language, logical and analytical thinking, and positive emotion are part of what hemisphere? | left hemisphere |
| holistic thinking, intuition, understanding spatial relationships, creativity, and negative emotions is what hemisphere? | Right Hemisphere |
| What drugs alleviate positive symptoms primarily by blocking dopamine (especially D3 and D4) receptors and alleviate negative and cognitive symptoms primarily by blocking serotonin receptors? | Second Generation Antipsychotics |
| combining an SSRI with ____ or ____ other serotonergic drug can cause serotonin syndrome, which is potentially fatal and involves extreme agitation, confusion, autonomic instability | MAOI lithium |
| people taking what two drug classes can develop tachyphylaxis, which is also known as antidepressant tolerance and antidepressant poop-out? | SSRI or MAOI |
| bupropion and other antidepressants that increase levels of norepinephrine and dopamine have an energizing effect, which means they’re useful for patients who have ?? but not for those who have ?? | low energy and motivation not for insomnia or are very anxious. |
| What is the benefit of buproprion? | causes few anticholinergic effects, does not cause sexual dysfunction, and is not cardiotoxic. |
| MAOI Side effects include anticholinergic effects, orthostatic hypotension, sedation, and sexual dysfunction. They may also produce a ? when taken with certain drugs (e.g., amphetamines, antihistamines) or food containing tyramine | hypertensive crisis |
| what side effect type is likely with high-potency FGAs (e.g., haloperidol and fluphenaz) w/ parkinsonism (resting tremor, muscle rigid, slowed movement), dystonia (uncontrollable muscle), akathisia (a sense of inner restlessness), and tardive dyskinesia | Extrapyramidal side effects in FGAs |
| Like the benzodiazepines, taking a what in conjunction with alcohol can be lethal? | barbiturate |
| What drugs increase GABA activity are used to treat anxiety, insomnia, seizures, alcohol withdrawal. Common side effects are drowsiness and sedation; unsteadiness, impaired memory, anticholinergic effects and, in older adults, disorientation? | benzodiazepines include diazepam (Valium), alprazolam (Xanax), and lorazepam (Ativan) |
| which is drug is used to treat generalized anxiety disorder/anxiety disorders. Side effects include dizziness, dry mouth, sweating, nausea, and headache. An advantage of it is that it does not cause sedation, dependence, or tolerance? | buspirone |
| what Beta-blockers is also used to treat anxiety, with research suggesting that it’s more effective for alleviating the somatic symptoms of anxiety than its psychological symptoms (e.g., apprehension, worry, dread)? | Propranolol |
| What drug is first-line drug for acute mania and classic bipolar disorder (euphoric mania without rapid cycling). Common side effects include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, a metallic taste, increased thirst. And levels checked regularly? | Lithium |
| What drugs is used to treat alcohol use disorder and had the most severe symptoms (nausea and vomiting, shortness of breath, tachycardia, a throbbing headache, dizziness, and other unpleasant symptoms)? | disulfiram (Antabuse) |
| was originally used to treat major depressive disorder but has also been found to prevent relapse following smoking cessation by reducing nicotine craving and withdrawal symptoms. What is the drug? | Bupropion |
| What reward pathway and neurotransmitter does THC exert its psychoactive effects on? | mesolimbic dopaminergic reward pathway, dopamine |
| What emotion theory says people can appraise the situation differently; and also assumes, in contrast to other theories, that physiological arousal follows cognitive appraisal? | Lazarus’s Cognitive Appraisal Theory |
| in LeDoux’s Two-System Theory, what are the two systems? | Subcortical system for survival (low road) Cortical system for conscious emotions (high road) |
| What three disorders are due to a chromosomal deletion, which occurs when part of a chromosome is missing? | Prader-Willi Syndrome, Angelman Syndrome, and Cri-Du-Chat Syndrome |
| What 3 disorders are due to sex chromosome abnormalities? | Klinefelter Syndrome, Turner Syndrome, and Rett Syndrome |
| What autosomal disorder is caused by an abnormality on a chromosome that’s not a sex chromosome. 3 types? | Down Syndrome |
| What syndrome develops normally the first 6 to 18 months of life. then develops characteristic of slowed head/brain growth, seizures. loss of speech/motor, and may have autism like symptoms? | Rett Syndrome |
| What disorder may have intellectual disability (usually mild to moderate); hypotonia (decreased muscle tone); a short stocky build; a wide face, thick tongue, and almond-shaped eyes; possible alzhemer's? | Down Synd. |
| What autosomal recessive disorderis unable to adequately metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine; and build up causes eczema, a musty body odor, hypopigmentation, and stunted growth? | PKU |
| Prenatal exposure to alcohol can cause fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD) which encompasses how many disorders? | 4 Fetal alcohol syndrome most severe disorder, Partial FAS. Alcohol-related neurodev dis a CNS dysfunction w/o prominent facial, retarded growth-defects. Alcohol-related birth defects w heart, kidney, vision, w/o other prominence. |
| What weight is considered low birth? | Low birthweight infants are those who weigh less than 5-1/2 pounds at birth |
| How many weeks for preterm baby? | Preterm infants are born before the 37th week. The consequences of preterm birth may include respiratory distress, a comprised immune system, a cardiovascular disorder, cognitive impairment, and visual and hearing problem |
| What are a small for date infant? | a birthweight that’s below the 10th percentile of the expected weight for the length of gestation. Small-for-date infants are at greater risk for problems than preterm infants who are at the expected weight for their gestational age |
| Why is small for date infant a greater risk? | They’re more likely to die during the 12 months after birth, to have brain damage, and to be at increased risk for infections . more likely to remain short in stature throughout childhood and learning and behavior problems at school. |
| What are characteristics in prader willi syndrome? | symptoms vary but often include a narrow forehead, almond-shaped eyes, short stature, and small hands and feet; hypotonia (poor muscle); global developmental delays; hyperphagia (chronic overeating) and obesity; hypogonadism; skin-picking |
| Angelman's syndrome has what unique characteristics? | a wide jaw and pointed chin, severe developmental delays, communication and intellectual disabilities, hyperactivity, a tendency to be unnaturally happy, ataxia, seizures, and hand-flapping |
| Cri-du chat has what unique characteristics? | extent and location of the deletion and include a high-pitched (cat-like) cry, intellectual disability, developmental delays, microcephaly, characteristic facial features (e.g., widely set eyes, low-set ears, round face). |
| Major structural damage to pregnancy is likely to be when? | in general, is from the third to the eighth week after conception. exposure during the 2nd half of the first trimester causes the greatest harm -body’s structures and organs are forming most rapidly |
| Cocaine exposed infants- do they have lifelong problems? | exposed infants tend to be irritable and overly reactive to environmental stimuli, often a shrill piercing cry, difficult to calm and feed. In school, possib motor, attention, memory, behavior problems; in adolescence, difficulty problem-solving |
| What is the age of viability? | earliest age at which a baby can survive outside the womb is referred to as the age of viability. The age reported by different experts varies somewhat, but most agree that it’s between 22 and 26 weeks after conception |
| What impacts personality most- shared or non shared factors? | the influence of non-shared environmental factors is substantial and increases with increasing age, while the influence of genetics decreases with increasing age. heritability estimates for personality range from about .40 to .50 |
| Mood stabilizer that can treat manic and depressive episodes. Is the oldest. lowers suicide risk (80% LESS LIKELY) | Lithium |
| Anti Convulsant that can treat Mani but NOT depressive episodes in Bipolar. | Valproic Acid or Carbamazepine |
| Antipsychotics- faster at treating urgent mania and any will do. BUT only these can treat the depressive episodes. | Olanzapine, Quetiapine, Luurasidone, Cariprazine |
| systematic desensitization | by Wolpe, uses counterconditioning (he referred to as reciprocal inhibition). involves replacing an undesirable anxiety response w an incompatible and more desirable relaxation response. Classical. |
| stimuli associated with the problem behavior are paired with an unconditioned stimulus that naturally produces an unpleasant response that’s incompatible with the reinforcing response. Addict. Classical | Aversion Therapy |
| include exposure with response prevention, cue exposure therapy, implosive therapy, and eye movement desensitization and reprocessing. | Interventions that use classical extinction |
| type of exposure that’s always conducted in imagination and incorporates psychodynamic element. Exaggerate fear. PD conflicts underlie fear | Implosive therapy |
| Interventions That Use Counterconditioning | Aversion Therapy, Systematic Desensitization |
| Interventions that use classical extinction to alter a behavior include: | exposure with response prevention, cue exposure therapy, implosive therapy, and eye movement desensitization and reprocessing. |
| encoding specificity hypothesis, retrieval from long-term memory is maximized when | the conditions at the time of learning (encoding) new information are the same as the conditions at the time of recall. |
| According to the mediator effectiveness hypothesis | practice testing improves memory by generating effective mediators (cues) that facilitate the future retrieval of information |
| He attributed the formation of cognitive maps to latent learning, which occurs without reinforcement or being demonstrated in observable behaviors. | Tolman’s Latent Learning: Tolman derived his theory of latent learning from research with rats in mazes. |
| Kohler’s theory of insight learning was influenced by | Gestalt psychology and was based on his research with chimpanzees. Insight "ah ha" moment. |
| Bandura concluded that observational learning depends on four mediational processes | attention, retention, production, and motivation |
| Research evaluating the application of Bandura’s theory to the treatment of phobias has found | that modeling is most effective when it uses guided participation, which is also known as participant modeling. It involves having the client observe a model gradually approach the feared stimulus in steps |
| research led Davidson and Parker (2001) to conclude that eye movements do not add to the effectiveness of EMDR and | and that its beneficial effects are due to repeated exposure in imagination to the feared event |
| when aversion therapy is used to treat a client’s fetish, presentation of the fetish object might be paired with | electric shock to the client’s arm. In this situation, the fetish object is the CS, the electric shock is the US, and the pain caused by the electric shock is the UR. |
| When discrimination became very difficult (when an ellipse was very similar to a circle), the dogs became extremely agitated and uncharacteristically aggressive. Pavlov referred to these unusual behaviors as | experimental neurosis and concluded that they were caused by a conflict between excitatory and inhibitory processes in the central nervous system |
| Interventions that make use of positive reinforcement include | shaping, chaining, and the Premack principle. |
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