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ACLS Test

Enter the letter for the matching Answer
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1.
Once both mechanical and electrical capture are confirmed, increase the mA by ___ (or the smallest increment the monitor allows) to create a "safety margin"
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2.
What infusion dose and rate of Dopamine is used to achieve increased chronotropy, inotropy, and increased BP?
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3.
What is the loading dose and rate of Magnesium Sulfate for treating Torsades de Pointes with a pulse or AMI with Hypomagnesemia?
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4.
What are the Indications of Diltiazem?
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5.
What are the Adverse Effects of Adenosine?
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6.
If a patient has cardiac or renal dysfunction, what is the dose and rate of Procainamide for recurrent VF/pVT?
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7.
What is the 1st-line antiarrhythmic infusion for treating wide-complex tachyarrhythmias?
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8.
What is the dose and rate of Lidocaine for treating a perfusing arrhythmia?
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9.
What are the Adverse Effects of Amiodarone?
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10.
What is the rapid infusion dose and rate of Amiodarone?
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11.
What 3 signs indicate an increase is perfusion when pacing an Adult patient?
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12.
An abnormal sound heard over an artery that typically reflects turbulent blood flow. This is caused by narrowing of the carotid artery, typically due to plaque build-up
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13.
How many Joules are used to treat regular and monomorphic wide-complex tachyarrhythmias via synchronized cardioversion?
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14.
What 1st-line IV medication is used to treat Stable Adult Bradycardia?
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15.
To achieve Acute Rate Control, what is the 2nd dose of Diltiazem?
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16.
To achieve Acute Rate Control, what is the 1st dose of Diltiazem?
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17.
What are the Contraindications for Lidocaine?
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18.
How often can an Amiodarone rapid infusion be repeated?
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19.
What are the Actions of Magnesium Sulfate?
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20.
What are the Indications for performing a synchronized cardioversion?
A.
1-2g mixed in 50-100 mL of diluent (administer over 5-60 mins)
B.
0.25mg/kg (max of 20mg) over 2 minutes
C.
Not recommended if AMI is present, signs of toxicity develop, concurrent treatment with Class I antiarrhythmics, hypersensitivity to medication, or 2nd and 3rd-degree AV blocks without a pacemaker
D.
May cause severe hypotension, bradycardia, and prolong the QT interval (can lead to Torsade de Pointes)
E.
10 minutes
F.
skin color, mental status, blood pressure increase
G.
Reduces early after depolarization (EAD) in patients with prolonged QT syndrome
H.
Atropine
I.
Unstable narrow or wide-complex tachyarrhythmias
J.
May cause transient periods of bradycardia, asystole, and ventricular ectopy
K.
0.35mg/kg (max of 25mg) over 2 minutes
L.
2
M.
150mg over 10 minutes
N.
100J
O.
Bruit
P.
Amiodarone
Q.
5-10 mcg/kg/min
R.
1st-line medication for Afib and Aflutter with RVR, 2nd-line medication for SVT that is refractory to vagal maneuvers and Adenosine
S.
0.5-0.75mg/kg (up to 1-1.5 mg/kg)
T.
12 mg/kg
Type the Answer that corresponds to the displayed Question.
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21.
What Class of Antiarrhythmics are Sodium Channel Blockers?
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22.
Markers should appear on the ___ when sync mode is operative during synchronized cardioversion
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23.
What is the half-life of Amiodarone?
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24.
After administering a fluid bolus to treat hypotension post-arrest, you should administer a ___
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25.
If a patient has renal or cardiac dysfunction, what is the maintenance infusion rate of Procainamide?
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26.
A type of vagal maneuver in which the carotid is massaged at the level of the baroreceptors
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27.
How often should Epinephrine be administered during cardiac arrest?
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28.
How often can a follow-up dose of Labetalol be administered?
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29.
The process of applying external pacemakers to a patient which allows adjustments to heart rate and current outputs is known as ____.
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30.
Vagal maneuvers stimulate the ___ nerve

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