skin test
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| What structures are included in the integument? | includes structures that cover body's exterior surface. Skin (sebaceous and sweat glands) and sensory nerve endings. Accessory structures (hair and nails
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| How often is the epidermis totally replaced? | every 35-45 days
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| What is the dermis also referred to as? | "true skin"
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| What four methods is skin lost by? | radiation, conduction, evaporation, and convection'
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| What is radiation? | transfer of surface heat in the environment (ex: fron surface of warm skin into cooler air)
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| What is conduction? | the transfer of heat through contact. (placing cool cloth on warm skin)
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| What is evaporation? | loss of moisture or water
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| What is convection? | transfer of heat by means of currents of liquids or gases-> warm air molecules move away from body. (ex: cool breeze blows across body surface)
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| What cooling methods are ineffective when temperature and humidity outside the body increases? | radiation, evaporation, and convection
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| what texture does vellus hair have? | has a wooly or wispy texture
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| What type if texture does terminal hair have and when does it develop? | terminal hair is coarser hair. It develops at jpuberty. (axillae, pubic region, face of men, arms, chest, and legs.
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| What are the two types of sweat glands? | eccrine and apocrine glands
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| What are eccrine glands? | release water and lytes (Na and Cl)- perspiration
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| What are apocrine glands? | found around nipples, anogenital region, in the eyelids (Moll's glands), in mammary glands, and in external ear canals (cerumen). Release pheromones in some species.
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| What are characteristics of stage I pressure ulcers? | redness, fails to blanch (return to normal color)
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| What are characteristics of stage II pressure ulcers? | red, blistering, or shallow break in the skin (skin tears)
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| What are characteristics of stage III pressure ulcers? | shallow crater extends to subcu tissue. Serous drainage (plasma) or purulent drainage (infection). Relatively painless.
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| What are characteristics of stage IV pressure ulcers? | life-threatening, muscle and bone exposed, rand odor. Infection can spread throughout body- sepsis.
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| What is the normal appearance of the nails? | slightly convex with a 160 degree angle between nail base and skin
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| What problem do concave-shaped nails indicate? | (spooning), iron deficiency anemia
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| What problem would clubbing nails indicate? | (angle greater than 160 degrees), suggests cardio disease
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| What do thickened nails indicate? | fungal infection and poor circulation
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| What is Wood's light used for? | (black light), help identify fungal infections (blue-green color emitted)
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| Who should tattooists be certified through? | the Alliance for Professional Tattooists (follow infection-control guidelines)
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| What is vesiculation? | blister formation
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| What is a furuncle? | a boil
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| What is furunculosis? | having multiple fununcles
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| What is a carbuncle? | a furuncle that drains pus
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| What is shingles also known as? | herpes zoster
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| When does shingles develop? | develops years after infection with varicella (chicken pox)
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| What types of cells in the epidermis can skin cancer be involved with? | squamous cells (flat and scaly), basal cells (round), and melanocytes (cells that contain color pigment)
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| How are squamous cell and basal cell carcinomas treated? | electrodesiccation, surgical excision, cryosurgery, or radiation therapy
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| How is melanoma treated? | radical excision of tumor and adjacent tissues, followed by chemo
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| What is onychomycosis? | fungal infection (toenail or fingernail)
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| What is onychocryptosis? | an ingrown toenail.
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| What is tinea pedis? | athlete's foot
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| What is characteristic of a 1st degree burn and how long does it take to heal? | suerficial burn, heals in about 5 days. (sunburn)
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| What is characteristic of a 2nd degree burn and how long does it take to heal? | superficial partial thickness and deep partial thickness. A partial thickness heals in about 14 days. a deep partial thickness burn may require debridement or grafts.
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| What is characteristic of a 3rd degree burn? | full thickness burn
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| How is burn depth determined? | determined by assessing color, characteristics of skin, and sensation in the area of the burn.
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| What is the zone of coagulation? | at the center of the injury, area where injury is most severe and usually deepest
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| What is the zone of stasis? | the area of intermediate burn injury. Blood vessels are damaged here, but tissue has potential to survive
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| What is the zone of hyperemia? | the area of least injury. The epidermis and dermis are only minimally damaged.
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| What are symptomes of hypovolemic shock? | hypotension, tachycardia, oliguria, and anuria
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| What are three life-threatening complications of burns? | inhalation injury, hypovolemic shock, and infection
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| What is a stridor? | a harsh sound during breathing
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| What is tachypnea? | An increased rate of breathing
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| What is eschar? | A hard, leathery crust of dehydrated skin
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| How do you determine if fluid resuscitation was successful? | a successful fluid resuscitation is gauged by a urinary output of 0.3 to 0.5 mL/kg/hr
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| What is epithelialization? | regrowth of skin
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| What are purposes of skin grafts? | lessens the potential for infection, minimizes fluid loss by evaporation, hastens recovery, reduces scarring, prevents loss of function
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| Why are pressure garments worn after having skin grafts? | worn after skin grafts to reduce scarring. May need to wear up to 2 years.
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| How many calories should a burn victim increase to daily? | increase calories to 4000 to 5000 per day
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| How much protein should a burn victim intake? | 2.0 to 2.5 g/kg (especially if burns are over 10% TBSA)
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| What supplements should a burn victim add to their diet? | supplements of Vit. C, A, and zinc
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