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Integument MS

skin test

What structures are included in the integument? includes structures that cover body's exterior surface. Skin (sebaceous and sweat glands) and sensory nerve endings. Accessory structures (hair and nails
How often is the epidermis totally replaced? every 35-45 days
What is the dermis also referred to as? "true skin"
What four methods is skin lost by? radiation, conduction, evaporation, and convection'
What is radiation? transfer of surface heat in the environment (ex: fron surface of warm skin into cooler air)
What is conduction? the transfer of heat through contact. (placing cool cloth on warm skin)
What is evaporation? loss of moisture or water
What is convection? transfer of heat by means of currents of liquids or gases-> warm air molecules move away from body. (ex: cool breeze blows across body surface)
What cooling methods are ineffective when temperature and humidity outside the body increases? radiation, evaporation, and convection
what texture does vellus hair have? has a wooly or wispy texture
What type if texture does terminal hair have and when does it develop? terminal hair is coarser hair. It develops at jpuberty. (axillae, pubic region, face of men, arms, chest, and legs.
What are the two types of sweat glands? eccrine and apocrine glands
What are eccrine glands? release water and lytes (Na and Cl)- perspiration
What are apocrine glands? found around nipples, anogenital region, in the eyelids (Moll's glands), in mammary glands, and in external ear canals (cerumen). Release pheromones in some species.
What are characteristics of stage I pressure ulcers? redness, fails to blanch (return to normal color)
What are characteristics of stage II pressure ulcers? red, blistering, or shallow break in the skin (skin tears)
What are characteristics of stage III pressure ulcers? shallow crater extends to subcu tissue. Serous drainage (plasma) or purulent drainage (infection). Relatively painless.
What are characteristics of stage IV pressure ulcers? life-threatening, muscle and bone exposed, rand odor. Infection can spread throughout body- sepsis.
What is the normal appearance of the nails? slightly convex with a 160 degree angle between nail base and skin
What problem do concave-shaped nails indicate? (spooning), iron deficiency anemia
What problem would clubbing nails indicate? (angle greater than 160 degrees), suggests cardio disease
What do thickened nails indicate? fungal infection and poor circulation
What is Wood's light used for? (black light), help identify fungal infections (blue-green color emitted)
Who should tattooists be certified through? the Alliance for Professional Tattooists (follow infection-control guidelines)
What is vesiculation? blister formation
What is a furuncle? a boil
What is furunculosis? having multiple fununcles
What is a carbuncle? a furuncle that drains pus
What is shingles also known as? herpes zoster
When does shingles develop? develops years after infection with varicella (chicken pox)
What types of cells in the epidermis can skin cancer be involved with? squamous cells (flat and scaly), basal cells (round), and melanocytes (cells that contain color pigment)
How are squamous cell and basal cell carcinomas treated? electrodesiccation, surgical excision, cryosurgery, or radiation therapy
How is melanoma treated? radical excision of tumor and adjacent tissues, followed by chemo
What is onychomycosis? fungal infection (toenail or fingernail)
What is onychocryptosis? an ingrown toenail.
What is tinea pedis? athlete's foot
What is characteristic of a 1st degree burn and how long does it take to heal? suerficial burn, heals in about 5 days. (sunburn)
What is characteristic of a 2nd degree burn and how long does it take to heal? superficial partial thickness and deep partial thickness. A partial thickness heals in about 14 days. a deep partial thickness burn may require debridement or grafts.
What is characteristic of a 3rd degree burn? full thickness burn
How is burn depth determined? determined by assessing color, characteristics of skin, and sensation in the area of the burn.
What is the zone of coagulation? at the center of the injury, area where injury is most severe and usually deepest
What is the zone of stasis? the area of intermediate burn injury. Blood vessels are damaged here, but tissue has potential to survive
What is the zone of hyperemia? the area of least injury. The epidermis and dermis are only minimally damaged.
What are symptomes of hypovolemic shock? hypotension, tachycardia, oliguria, and anuria
What are three life-threatening complications of burns? inhalation injury, hypovolemic shock, and infection
What is a stridor? a harsh sound during breathing
What is tachypnea? An increased rate of breathing
What is eschar? A hard, leathery crust of dehydrated skin
How do you determine if fluid resuscitation was successful? a successful fluid resuscitation is gauged by a urinary output of 0.3 to 0.5 mL/kg/hr
What is epithelialization? regrowth of skin
What are purposes of skin grafts? lessens the potential for infection, minimizes fluid loss by evaporation, hastens recovery, reduces scarring, prevents loss of function
Why are pressure garments worn after having skin grafts? worn after skin grafts to reduce scarring. May need to wear up to 2 years.
How many calories should a burn victim increase to daily? increase calories to 4000 to 5000 per day
How much protein should a burn victim intake? 2.0 to 2.5 g/kg (especially if burns are over 10% TBSA)
What supplements should a burn victim add to their diet? supplements of Vit. C, A, and zinc
Created by: pepcpatty