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Spring 2012 chapters 16-29

Quiz yourself by thinking what should be in each of the black spaces below before clicking on it to display the answer.
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Answer
Question
Adrenocorticotropic Hormone   What hormone stimulates the cortex of the adrenal gland to produce its hormones?  
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adenohypophysis   What gland produces TSH, ACTH, FSH, LH, GH, and PRL?  
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adrenal medulla   What gland produces epinephrine and norepinephrine?  
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aldosterone   What hormone raises levels of sodium in the blood?  
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antidiuretic hormone   What hormone causes the kidneys to conserve water by putting it back into the blood?  
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calcitonin   What hormone lowers the level of calcium in the blood?  
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cortisol   What hormone controls the body's long term response to stress?  
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epinephrine   What hormone stimulates the fight or flight response?  
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estrogen   What hormone controls the maturation of the oocyte into an egg cell?  
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fasciculata   The zona __________________ of the adrenal cortex produces cortisol  
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follicle stimulating hormone   What pituitary gland hormone stimulates the gonads to produce gametes?  
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glomerulosa   The zona __________________ of the adrenal cortex produces aldosterone.  
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glucagon   What hormone raises blood glucose levels?  
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gluconeogenesis   The process of making glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors such as amino acids and fatty acids is _____________________.  
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glycogenolysis   The process of breaking down of glycogen in the liver in order to release glucose into the blood is ___________________.  
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growth hormone   What hormone stimulates mitosis in bone and muscle especially during childhood?  
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hormonal   The stimulus for production of thyroid hormone is __________ stimulation.  
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humoral   The stimulus for production of parathyroid hormone is __________ stimulation.  
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hypothalamus   What is the source of the releasing hormones that stimulate the adenohypophysis to release its hormones?  
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insulin   What hormone lowers blood glucose levels?  
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luteinizing hormone   What hormone causes the gonads to produce sex hormones?  
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neural   The stimulus for the release of ADH, oxytocin, and epinephrine is __________ stimulation.  
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neurohypophysis   What gland produces ADH and oxytocin?  
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oxytocin   What hormone stimulates uterine smooth muscle contraction during labor?  
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pancreas   What gland produces insulin and glucagon?  
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parathyroid   What gland produces the hormone that raises blood calcium levels?  
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parathyroid hormone   What hormone raises the levels of calcium in the blood?  
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prolactin   What hormone stimulates milk production by the mammary glands?  
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reticularis   The zona _______________ of the adrenal cortex produces small amounts of testosterone.  
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testosterone   What hormone controls the development of sperm cells?  
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thyroid   What gland produces T3/T4 and calcitonin?  
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thyroid hormone   What is the body's major metabolic hormone?  
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thyroid stimulating hormone   What hormone stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormone?  
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thyroxine   What is the chemical name of the T4 version of thyroid hormone?  
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triiodothyronine   What is the chemical name of the T3 version of thyroid hormone?  
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albumin   important plasma protein  
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aplastic   type of anemia due to bone marrow destruction  
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basophil   least numerous leukocyte; associated with allergy  
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colony stimulating factors   hormones that stimulate leukocyte production  
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eosinophil   defense against parasitic worms; also turns off inflammation  
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erythrocyte   come from a hemocytoblast  
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erythropoietin   hormone causing rbc production  
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ferritin   protein to which iron is bound while stored  
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fibrin   insoluble protein; end result of coagulation  
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fibrinogen   soluble precursor to fibrin  
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hematocrit   percentage of erythrocytes  
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hemoglobin   oxygen-carrying protein in red blood cells  
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hemolytic   type of anemia due to blood cell destruction  
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hemorrhagic   type of anemia due to blood loss  
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hemostasis   stopping of bleeding  
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hypoxia   stimulus for rbc production  
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intrinsic factor   necessary for vitamin B-12 to be absorbed from intestinal tract  
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iron   element attached to hemoglobin to which oxygen binds  
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iron deficiency   type of anemia characterized by small pale rbcs  
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leukemia   cancerous condition of a white blood cell  
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leukopenia   abnormally low white blood cell count  
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liver   Most plasma proteins produced by the _____.  
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lymphocyte   carries out the immune response  
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monocyte   phagocytic cell; immature macrophage  
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neutrophil   most numerous leukocyte  
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PDGF   growth factor from platelets which stimulates rebuilding the vessel wall  
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pernicious   type of anemia due to deficiency of vit B12 and/or intrinsic factor  
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plasmin   enzyme which degrades fibrin and destroys the clot after healing has taken place  
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plasminogen   inactive precursor of plasmin  
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platelets   develop from megakaryocytes; associated with clotting and vessel repair  
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polycythemia   abnormal excess of red blood cells leading to increased blood viscosity  
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serum   plasma from which clotting proteins have been removed  
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sickle cell   type of anemia due to abnormal hemoglobin  
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thalassemia   type of anemia due to depressed synthesis of globin chains  
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thrombin   enzyme which catalyzes the formation of fibrin  
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transferrin   transport protein for iron (not hemoglobin)  
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ADH   when released in high amounts causes intense vasoconstriction  
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acetylcholine   neurotransmitter which brings about parasympathetic nervous system effects on the heart  
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anastomoses   interconnections of vessels around organs or joints which allow alternate pathways of blood supply  
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aortic semilunar   the valve which closes when the left ventricle relaxes  
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arteries   vessels which carry blood away from the heart  
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arterioles   site of greatest peripheral resistance  
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atrioventricular node   second structure of the intrinsic conduction system; located in the interatrial septum  
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baroreceptors   mechanoreceptors that detect changes in arterial pressure; located in carotid sinuses, aortic arch, large arteries of neck and thorax  
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bicuspid   the valve which closes when the left ventricle contracts  
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blood pressure   cardiac output multiplied by peripheral resistance  
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brain   the place in the body where autoregulation of blood flow is triggered by an increase in carbon dioxide  
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calcium   increase in this mineral can lead to spastic heart contraction  
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capillaries   place where blood flow is the slowest  
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cardiogenic   type of shock due to heart failure  
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chordae tendineae   connective tissue strings which connect AV valve flaps to muscles in ventricular walls  
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coronary sinus   collects blood draining from the myocardium  
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diastolic   blood pressure reading associated with ventricular relaxation  
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elastic   The aorta is an example of a/an _______ artery.  
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endocardium   lining of the inside surfaces of the heart  
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epicardium   another name for the visceral pericardium  
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fenestrated   Capillaries that have pores are said to be ____________.  
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fossa ovalis   shallow depression which marks the spot where an opening existed in the fetal heart  
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hydrostatic pressure   force which dominates at arterial end of capillary bed to force fluid out of the circulation  
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hypovolemic   type of shock due to large-scale blood loss  
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inferior vena cava   returns blood from regions inferior to diaphragm  
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kidneys   organ which releases renin, which results in formation of angiotensin, a vasoconstrictor  
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left atrium   chamber attached to pulmonary veins  
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left ventricle   chamber attached to aorta  
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lungs   the place in the body where low oxygen leads to vasoconstriction  
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muscular   __________ arteries deliver blood to specific body organs; most named arteries.  
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myocardium   layer of the heart where the cardiac muscle is located  
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norepinephrine   neurotransmitter which brings about sympathetic nervous system effects on the heart  
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orthostatic hypotension   temporary low blood pressure and dizziness when rising suddenly from a reclining or sitting position  
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osmotic pressure   force which dominates at venous end of capillary bed to draw fluid back into the circulation  
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papillary muscles   muscles which protrude from ventricular walls to anchor AV valves in the closed position  
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parietal pericardium   covering of the heart next to the body wall  
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peripheral resistance   opposition to blood flow; measure of the amount of friction the blood encounters when passing through the vessels  
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potassium   in excess, this mineral interferes with depolarization and may lead to heart block and cardiac arrest  
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precapillary sphincter   cuff of smooth muscle which determines whether blood will enter the capillary bed  
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pulmonary semilunar   the valve which closes when the right ventricle relaxes  
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right atrium   chamber attached to the superior vena cava  
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right ventricle   chamber attached to pulmonary artery  
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secondary hypertension   high blood pressure due to identifiable disorders such as hyperthyroidism or Cushing's disease  
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sinoatrial node   pacemaker of the heart; located in right atrium  
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sodium   inhibits transport of calcium and thereby blocks heart contraction  
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superior vena cava   returns blood from regions superior to diaphragm  
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systolic   blood pressure reading associated with ventricular contraction  
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thyroxine   causes a slow, sustained increase in heart rate when released in large quantities  
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tricuspid   the valve which closes when the right ventricle contracts  
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tunica externa   part of blood vessel wall which is composed of collagen fibers to protect and anchor the vessel  
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tunica interna   part of the blood vessel wall which contains the endothelium  
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tunica media   part of the blood vessel wall which consists of smooth muscle cells and elastic fibers  
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valves   structures present in veins that prevent blood from flowing backward  
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vascular   type of shock due to extreme vasodilation; can be caused by autonomic nervous system dysfunction and septicemia  
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vascular shunt   short vessel that directly connects the arteriole and venule at opposite ends of capillary bed  
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veins   vessels which carry blood to the heart  
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vessel diameter   the most important factor in altering peripheral resistance  
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antibody   What is the antigen receptor on B cells?  
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antigen   What is a chemical substance that is recognized by the body as a foreign substance?  
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antigen-antibody complexes   What triggers the classical pathway of complement?  
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bone marrow   Where do B cells mature?  
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C3a and C5a   Which components of complement cause inflammation?  
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C3b   Which component of complement is an opsonin?  
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CD4   What surface protein identifies T helper cells?  
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CD8   What surface protein identifies cytotoxic T cells  
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Class I   What type of MHC molecule functions in self/nonself recognition?  
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Class II   What type of MHC molecule is found on immune system cells and helps to regulate the response?  
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cell wall polysaccharides of some pathogens   What triggers the alternative pathway of complement?  
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cell-mediated   Which type of immune response is primarily responsible for resolving viral, fungal, and parasitic infections, as well as fighting against cancer?  
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chemotaxis   The attraction of phagocytes to an area of inflammation by following an increasing concentration of inflammatory molecules.  
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cortex   Where in the lymph node are lymphocytes located?  
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cytotoxic T cells   Which cells are responsible for the cell-mediated immune response?  
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histamine   What substance increases vascular permeability during inflammation?  
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humoral   Which type of immune response is primarily responsible for resolving bacterial infections and can also be effective against viruses when they are outside of cells?  
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IgA   Which dimeric antibody is found in body secretions, protects the respiratory and digestive tracts, and is found in breast milk?  
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IgE   Which antibody binds to the surface of mast cells and basophils and functions in an allergic response?  
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IgG   Which antibody can trigger complement, enhance phagocytosis, and cross the placenta?  
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IgM   Which antibody is a pentamer which triggers complement and agglutinates antigens?  
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interferon   What is the general substance produced by virus-infected cells that protects uninfected cells from viral replication?  
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interleukin 1   What substance is produced by macrophages during antigen presentation to T helper cells to help activate the T helper cells?  
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interleukin 2   What substance is produced by T helper cells during binding with B cells to help activate the B cells?  
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lysosome   What organelle is key to the process of phagocytosis?  
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lysozyme   What is the substance found in many body fluids that breaks down the cell walls of some bacteria?  
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medulla   Where in the lymph node are macrophages located?  
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membrane attack complex   The combination of C5b,6,7,8,9 which destroys the plasma membrane of microbes is called the:  
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memory cells   What is responsible for the secondary immune response?  
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natural killer cells   These cells have the ability to kill a wide variety of microbes and tumor cells with no prior activation.  
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neutrophils and macrophages   These two types of cells are the phagocytic cells in the body.  
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opsonization   What is the process called whereby antibodies bind to an antigen and mark it for destruction by phagocytosis?  
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Peyer's patches   What is the name of the lymphoid tissue defending the digestive tract against pathogens?  
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plasma cells   What cells develop from B cells and produce antibodies?  
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redness, heat, pain, swelling   What are the four signs of inflammation?  
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specificity and memory   What are the two hallmarks of the immune system?  
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spleen   What structure stores and releases blood in times of demand and serves as a lymph node for the blood?  
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thymus   Where do T cells mature?  
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tonsils   What is the name of the lymphoid tissue defending the upper respiratory tract against pathogens?  
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valves   What do lymphatic capillaries have that blood capillaries do not have?  
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alveoli   sacs where the bulk of gas exchange occurs  
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conducting   dead air space; _______ zone  
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constrict   Poor ventilation causes pulmonary capillaries in that area of the lungs to ________.  
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diaphragm   Inspiration depends on the action of the _________ muscle.  
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dilate   Good ventilation causes pulmonary capillaries in that area of the lungs to ________.  
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elasticity   Quiet expiration is a passive process that just depends on the natural ________ of the lungs.  
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epiglottis   switching mechanism that covers the larynx during swallowing so food does not enter the trachea  
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expiratory reserve volume   amount of air that can be evacuated from the lungs after a tidal expiration  
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external respiration   gas exchange between blood and alveoli  
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inspiratory reserve volume   amount of air that can be forcibly inspired beyond tidal volume  
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internal respiration   gas exchange between blood and tissue cells  
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laryngopharynx   superior to larynx  
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larynx   voice box; also provides an open airway  
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macrophage   type of immune system cell found in the alveoli  
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nasopharynx   passageway posterior to the nasal passages  
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negative   The pressure in the pleural cavity is said to be ________ relative to both the intrapulmonary and atmospheric pressures.  
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nose   moistens, warms, filters, and cleanses air; resonating chamber, houses olfactory receptors  
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oropharynx   passageway posterior to the mouth; passageway for food and air  
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perfusion   In order to have good gas exchange in the lungs, the body has mechanisms to match ventilation with ________.  
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pleural   the name of the serous membrane cavity surrounding a lung  
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pressure   Diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide from blood to the tissue cells is a result of differences in _______ gradients.  
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primary bronchus   structure which enters a lung at the hilus  
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respiratory   actual site of gas exchange; _________ zone  
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surfactant   substance which reduces surface tension in the alveoli  
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tidal volume   amount of air that moves into and out of the lungs with each breath during normal quiet breathing  
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trachea   structure located between larynx and bronchi; lined with ciliated cells  
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uvula   prevents food from entering nasopharynx during swallowing  
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ventilation   moving air in and out of the lungs  
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vital capacity   total amount of exchangeable air  
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ADH   hormone which causes the distal and collecting tubules to be permeable to water and causes reabsorption of water into the blood  
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active transport   When ATP is used to move substances back into the blood against a concentration gradient, the process is known as ________ ________.  
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adipose   The middle supporting layer around the kidney which protects and holds them in place is the ______ capsule.  
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aldosterone   hormone which stimulates sodium transport from tubule to the blood  
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ascending   part of the loop of Henle that is permeable to sodium and impermeable to water  
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Bowman's capsule   part of the nephron which collects filtrate from the glomerulus  
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calyces   parts of the kidney which collects the urine  
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cortex   part of the kidney that contains the nephrons  
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descending   part of the loop of Henle that is impermeable to sodium and permeable to water  
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fascia   The dense connective tissue which anchors kidneys to surrounding structures is the renal ______.  
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filtration   function of the glomerulus  
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loop of Henle   part of the nephron responsible for sodium and water balance  
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macula densa   When filtrate flow needs to be faster or slower _____ ______ cells stimulate afferent arterioles.  
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medulla   part of the kidney that contains the renal pyramids  
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net filtration pressure   Glomerular filtration rate is directly proportional to ____ _______ _______.  
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osmosis   After sodium is moved by active transport back into the blood, water will move passively by _______.  
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pelvis   part of the kidney continuous with the ureter  
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peristalsis   process by which urine is propelled along urinary tract  
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solvent drag   When water leaves the proximal tubule, solutes left behind are more concentrated and then will follow by diffusion in a process called _____ ______.  
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transparent   The closest barrier surrounding the kidney is the ________ renal capsule.  
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tubular reabsorption   function of the proximal convoluted tubule  
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tubular secretion   function of the distal convoluted tubule  
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ureter   tube which connects kidney to bladder  
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urethra   tube which connects bladder to outside the body  
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vasoconstriction   When filtrate is flowing too rapidly, the regulatory cells will stimulate _________ of the afferent arteriole.  
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vasodilation   When filtrate is flowing too slowly the regulatory cells will stimulate _________ of the afferent arteriole.  
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Absorption   Transport of end products from the GI tract to blood or lymph.  
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Amylase   Enzyme that breaks down carbohydrates  
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Ascending colon   Second segment of large intestine  
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Bacterial flora   Ferment indigestible carbohydrates, synthesize B complex vitamins and Vitamin K  
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Bile   Emulsifies fats for lipid digestion  
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Cecum   First segment of large intestine  
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Chemical digestion   Breaking molecules down to the monomeric building blocks which can be absorbed; accomplished by enzymes.  
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Chief cells   Stomach cells which produce pepsinogen  
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Chyme   Mixture of partially digested food and enzymes into a creamy paste; ejected from stomach to small intestine in small amounts  
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Descending colon   Fourth segment of large intestine  
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Duodenum   First segment of small intestine  
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Enteroendocrine cells   Stomach cells which produce gastrin  
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Gallbladder   Stores bile  
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Goblet cells   Secrete mucus  
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Hepatic portal vein   Carries nutrient-rich blood from intestines to the liver  
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Ileum   Third segment of small intestine  
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Intestinal villi   Finger-like projections of the mucosa; over 1 mm high; within is a dense capillary bed and a modified lymphatic capillary called a lacteal.  
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Intrinsic factor   Required for absorption of Vitamin B12  
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Jejunum   Second segment of small intestine  
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Kupffer cells   Hepatic macrophages  
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Large Intestine   Major function to absorb water.  
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Lipase   Enzyme that breaks down fats  
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Liver   Produces bile  
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Mechanical digestion   Includes chewing, mixing food with saliva, churning food in stomach, and segmentation of the intestines.  
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Microvilli   Tiny projections of the plasma membrane of the absorptive cells of the mucosa; bears some intestinal digestive enzymes (called brush border enzymes).  
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Mouth   Carbohydrate digestion begins here.  
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Pancreas   An accessory digestive organ that produces a broad spectrum of enzymes, water, and electrolytes with a pH of 8.0.  
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Parietal cells   Stomach cells which secrete HCl and intrinsic factor  
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Pepsin   Enzyme that breaks down proteins  
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Peristalsis   Means of propulsion involving alternate waves of contraction and relaxation of muscles in the organ walls; squeezes food along the pathway from one organ to the next.  
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Plicae circulares   Deep circular folds that extend around the circumference of the small intestine; force chyme to spiral through the lumen continually mixing the chyme with intestinal juices and allowing time for full nutrient absorption.  
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Segmentation   Mixes food with digestive juices and increases the rate of absorption by repeatedly moving different parts of the food mass over the intestinal wall.  
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Sigmoid colon   Fifth segment of large intestine  
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Sinusoids   Modified hepatic capillaries  
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Small Intestine   Lipid digestion begins; protein and carbohydrate digestion completed; nutrients absorbed.  
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Stomach   Proteins are the only thing digested here.  
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Transverse colon   Third segment of large intestine  
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Adrenal glands   Source of small amounts of testosterone in females  
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Antrum   A central fluid-filled cavity which is the hallmark of a secondary follicle.  
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Bulbourethral gland   Produces thick, clear mucus which is secreted into the urethra before ejaculation to neutralize traces of acidic urine  
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Cervix   Produces mucus to protect uterus from bacterial infections and also to keep sperm out unless it is in midcycle  
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Corpus luteum   Secretes progesterone and some estrogen - this shuts down LH and FSH from the pituitary so no more follicles develop at this time.  
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Ductus Deferens   Associated with the spermatic cord  
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Ejaculation   Caused by a sympathetic nervous system spinal reflex;  
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Ejaculatory duct   Place where sperm and seminal fluid mix together  
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Endometrium   Layer of the uterus into which a fertilized ovum will burrow; shed during menstrual cycle if implantation does not occur  
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Epididymis   Sperm gain the ability to swim here.  
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Estrogen   Simulates secondary sexual characteristics in female and maturation of oocytes  
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FSH   Stimulates spermatogenesis by causing sperm-producing cells to be receptive to testosterone's effects  
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Fimbriae   Fingerlike branches of uterine tubes which may capture an ovulated oocyte  
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Follicular phase   Part of the ovarian cycle in which the hypothalamus stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete FSH and LH. These stimulate follicle growth and maturation and estrogen secretion.  
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Fructose   Component of semen; provides energy to sperm  
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Gamete   General term for an egg or a sperm  
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Interstitial cells   Produce testosterone  
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LH   Binds to interstitial cells and causes them to secrete testosterone which serves as final trigger for sperm formation.  
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Luteal Phase   Phase of ovarian cycle that occurs after ovulation; estrogen levels decline; previous LH surge also transforms the ruptured follicle into the corpus luteum and causes it to begin to secrete hormones.  
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Menstruation   Shedding of endometrium caused by falling progesterone levels.  
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Myometrium   Layer of the uterus which contains smooth muscle cells  
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Nitric Oxide   Produced in response to parasympathetic reflex; causes arterioles of the penis to dilate in an erection  
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Ovary   Primary sex organ in the female.  
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Ovulation   When estrogen levels get really high, the anterior pituitary is stimulated to release a burst of LH around day 14 and this occurs.  
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Perimetrium   Outermost layer of uterus; also part of the visceral peritoneum  
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Primary follicle   A developing oocyte with multiple surrounding granulosa cells  
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Primordial follicle   A developing oocyte with a single layer of surrounding cells  
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Prostaglandins   Component of semen; decreases viscosity of cervical mucus; stimulates reverse peristalsis of the uterus  
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Prostate gland   Produces an acidic fluid which contains citrate (nutrient) and several enzymes which activate the sperm  
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Scrotum   Contains testes  
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Seminal Vesicles   Produce an alkaline fluid containing fructose, coagulating enzymes, ascorbic acid, and prostaglandins  
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Seminiferous tubules   Sperm are produced here  
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Testes   Primary sex organ in the male.  
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Testosterone   Stimulates the male secondary sex characteristics; causes sperm formation; responsible for sex drive in both sexes  
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Uterine tube   Most common place for fertilization to take place.  
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Uterus   Functions to receive, retain, and nourish a fertilized ovum  
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Vesicular Follicle   The oocyte bulges from the surface of the ovary just prior to ovulation  
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Zygote   Fertilized egg; first cell of the new individual  
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Three components of Ejaculation   1. Reproductive ducts and accessory glands contract and empty contents into the urethra, 2. Bladder sphincter muscle constricts preventing urine expulsion or reflux of semen, and 3. Smooth muscles of penis contract  
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Secretion of FSH and LH   These stimulate follicle growth and maturation and estrogen secretion. As estrogen rises it shuts down the release of FSH and LH from the pituitary but FSH and LH are still being produced and stored.  
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