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Question
Answer
Patient comes in complaining of headache. During the neurological exam, you shine the penlight into this patient’s eyes, and observe her pupil contract. Which cranial nerve is responsible for the afferent effect   CN2 Optic  
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Patient comes in complaining of headache. During the neurological exam, you shine the penlight into this patient’s eyes, and observe her pupil contract. Which cranial nerve is responsible for the Efferent effect   CN3 Oculomotor  
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Which cranial nerves are being tested during the “H”-test?   Cn 3,4,6 Oculomotor, trochlear, Abducens  
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Using cotton to access the sensation on a patient’s face, which cranial nerve is being tested   CN 5 Trigeminal  
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A patient cannot hear well in his left ear and cannot keep his balance when asked to walk a straight line. Which cranial nerve is most likely damaged?   CN 8 Vestibulocochlear  
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Which Two cranial nerves are responsible for the gag reflex   CN 9 & 10 Glossopharyngeal & vagus  
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When asked to shrug both shoulders, the patient is unable to shrug her right shoulder. Which cranial nerve is most likely damaged   CN 11 Spinal accessory  
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When a male patient is asked to stick out his tongue, you observed that his tongue is deviated or pointed to the right which cranial nerve is damaged   Right CN 12 Hypo glossal  
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Patient comes in complaining of numbness and tingling sensation of the palmer side of her first 3 digits and half of the 4th digit on the left hand. Which nerve is being affected?   Medial nerve  
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Patient comes in complaining of numbness and tingling sensation of the palmer side of her first 3 digits and half of the 4th digit on the left hand. You suspect carpel tunnel syndrome. Which test should you perform initially to confirm your suspicion   Tinel’s sign  
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Patient comes in complaining that he can not extend his wrist. Which nerve is most likely affected   Radial nerve  
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When performing the anterior and posterior drawer test on the patient’s lower extremities. What is the examiner testing for   Anterior and Posterior cruciate ligament, respectively  
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Patient complains of hearing a “pop” followed by pain around the right achilles tendon area, and inability to extend the right foot. What is the test to assess achilles tendon rupture   Thompson test  
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A female complains of pain around the left posterior calf area, she also mentions that she just got off an international plane that flew for 14 hours. You are concerned about DVT. Which physical exam should you preform?   Homan’s test  
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A. Patient complains of burning sensation around the 3rd intermetatarsal space of her left foot. The foot does not appear to be inflamed. What is your top differential diagnosis   Morton’s neuroma  
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Bradycardia is defined as a pulse less than   60 BPM  
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Tachycardia is defined as a pulse greater than   100 BPM  
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Bradycardia can be both   Physiological or pathological  
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During physical examination of the abdomen, what is the correct procedural sequence?   Inspection, auscultation, palpoation, percussion  
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During inspection of the skin, pallor is commonly a sign of   Anemia  
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What is the first location where jaundice appears in a patient   Sublingual  
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In a patient with hypothyroidism you would expect their skin findings to be   Dry and cold  
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During skin examination, decreased skin turgor is a common sign of   Dehydration  
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What does Lichenification mean   Thickening of the skin  
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An elderly patient came in for a massage. You observed that there are a number of brown raised greasy and velvety looking lesions on the patient’s trunk that have a “stuck on” appearance. What is your initial differential diagnosis?   Seborrheic keratosis  
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What is the name of the precancerous lesion that commonly leads to squamous cell carcinoma   Actinic keratosis  
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During your evaluation of a patient’s skin you observed lesions that yo believe is Kaposi’s sarcoma. What should you ask the patient   Any history of sexually transmitted disease  
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When does Basal cell carcinoma metastasizes during the course of the condition?   Later in the course of the condition  
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During physical examination, you observed a mixed black/brown/yellow colored lesion on the patient’s arm with irregular boarder. What is your top differential diagnosis   Melanoma  
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What determines the metastatic potential of a malignant melanoma   Depth  
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Clubbing of the fingers is usually associated with   Chronic hypoxia, lung cancer, or hepatic cirrhosis  
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Barrel chest is commonly associated with   Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)  
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During physical examination, hyper resonance elicited during percussion indicates?   COPD, emphysema, ipsilateral Pneumothorax  
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An obese patient came to the office for a physical exam. You observed that his face is round, there is fat pad on his upper back and there are many red/purplish striations on his abdomen. What is your top differential diagnosis?   Cushing disease  
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True of false? Lipoma is a malignant fatty tumor found in the subcutaneous tissue that should be removed immediately due to high chance of metastasis?   FALSE  
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During auscultation of the femoral artery you heard bruit. What does it mean?   PARTIAL OCCLUSION OF THE FEMORAL ARTERY  
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During physical examination of the abdomen, you saw a mass located at the right lower quadrant and the mass becomes larger when you ask the patient to cough. What is your top differential diagnosis?   Hernia  
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When assessing for cardiac valve abnormalities with a stethoscope, which is the correct location on the patient for auscultating the aortic valve?   Right 2nd intercostal space  
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When assessing for cardiac valve abnormalities with a stethoscope, which is the correct location on the patient for auscultating pulmonic valve?   Left 2nd intercostal space  
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When assessing for cardiac valve abnormalities with a stethoscope, which is the correct location on the patient for auscultating tricuspid valve?   Left lower sternal boarder  
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When assessing for cardiac valve abnormalities with a stethoscope, which is the correct location on the patient for auscultating mitral valve?   Left 5th intercostal space, mid axillary line  
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True or false When feeling for the apical pulse on a patient, your hand is placed on the patient’s right 5th intercostal space, mid axillary line.   False  
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When someone describes that a thrill was felt when placing the ball of the hand on the patient’s chest, they are describing a feeling of   Abnormal vibration  
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When there is stenosis of the tricuspid valve, you would expect which chamber of the heart to be enlarged   Right Atrium  
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When there is stenosis of the bicuspid valve, you would expect which chamber of the heart to be enlarged   Left Atrium  
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When there is stenosis of the pulmonary valve, you would expect which chamber of the heart to be enlarged   Right ventricle  
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When there is stenosis of the aortic valve you would expect which chamber of the heart to be enlarged   Left Ventricle  
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Patient with Mitral regurgitation, during systole the blood is flowing from   Left ventricle to the left atrium  
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Patients with tricuspid regurgitation, during systole the blood is flowing from   Right ventricle to the right atrium  
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Patient with ventricular septal defect, during systole the blood is flowing from   Left ventricle to the Right ventricle  
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Episodic muscular ischemia induced by activity and relieved by rest is   Intermittent claudication  
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Acute arterial occlusion presents with   Sudden onset of pain due to thrombus or embolus  
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A female patient came into your office complaining that she sometimes observes her hands become white, then blue, and later red, this is know as   Raynaud’s phenomenon  
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What condition is mostly associated with smoking   Thromboangitis obliterans (buerger disease)  
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When examining the upper extremities, what is the location of axillary lymph   Inside the arm pits  
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True or False: When examining the patients limbs, you observed that there is a shinny appearance and a loss or decrease of hair on the patient’s bilateral extremities. This is indicative of venous insufficiency   FALSE  
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Where are Popliteal pulses are assessed   Behind the knees  
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Where are Dorsalis pedis pulses assessed   On top of the foot  
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Where are Femoral pulses assessed   In the groin  
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Facultative aerobes can grow in   In the presence of O2 or in the absence of O2  
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Obligated anaerobes can grow in   The absence of O2  
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HIV mostly affect which cells in the body   CD4 t-cells  
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Which type of hepatitis is transmitted by fecal-oral route   Hep A or Hep E  
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What is the role of reverse transcriptase in AIDS virus   Make DNA from RNA  
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The organism, borrelia is responsible for   Lyme disease  
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Which virus affects both the testicles and the parotid gland   Mumps virus  
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What is an isotope   Two or more forms of the same element but with different neutron number  
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True or False: Anabolism is a synthesis reaction   TRUE  
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T or F: Catabolism is a decomposition reaction   True  
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T o F: Formation of a peptide bond between two amino acids is a hydrolysis reaction   False  
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T or F: Oxidation reaction is when a molecule loose an electron   True  
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T or F: reduction is when a molecule looses an electron   False  
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Glycogen is mostly found in the   Liver  
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T or F: Gluconeogenesis is the process of forming glycogen   False  
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Which lipoprotein is considered as “good” lipoprotein?   HDL  
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Bilirubin is formed from the breakdown of   Red Blood Cells  
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T or F: Unsaturated fatty acids are organic molecules that contain only single bonds   FALSE  
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What are some ketones   Acetone, Beta-hydroxybuterate, Acetoacetic acid  
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T or F: RNA is a double stranded nucleic acid responsible for protein production   FALSE: RNA is a single stranded nucleic acid. DNA is a double stranded  
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Function of rRNA   Forms ribosomes  
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Function of tRNA   Binds to amino acid during translation  
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Function of mRNA   Directs synthesis of polypeptide chain  
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Describe transcription   DNA copied to RNA  
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Describe translation   RNA copied to protein  
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What are the fat soluble vitamins   Vitamin A, D, E, K  
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A patient complains of night blindness which of the following vitamin is most likely be deficient in this patient?   VIT. A  
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What vitamin plays a significant role in clotting cascade   Vit. K  
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What vitimin plays a significant role in blood calcium level   Vit. C  
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Deficiency of which vitamin will lead to megaloblastic anemia   Vit. B12  
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The process by which food is broken down mechanically and chemically in the gastrointestinal tract and converted into absorbable forms is known as   Digestion  
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When asking the patient to smell vanilla versus chocolate, you are accessing what nerve   CN1  
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When brushing a cotton swab on the patients face to access for sensation you are accessing what nerve   CN5  
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When asking the patient to show her teeth or smile, you are accessing what nerve   CN7  
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Performing the Rinne’s and Weber’s test on a patient with a tuning fork you are accessing what nerve   CN8  
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When asking the patient to shrug his shoulders you are accessing what nerve   CN11  
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When asking the patient to stick out her tongue you are accessing what nerve   CN 12  
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Which cranial nerve is responsible for the motor to parotid gland   CN9  
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Which cranial nerve is responsible for the motor to stomach   CN10  
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Damage to which part of the nervous system will lead to bitemporal hemianopia   Optic chiasm  
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Spinal accessory nerve is responsible for the motor of which muscles   Trapezius and stenocleidomastoid  
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Codman’s drop arm tests for   Rotator cuff  
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Empty can test: tests for   Supraspinatus  
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Yergason’s test tests for   Bicipital tendon injury  
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Speeds test tests for   Bicipital tendon injury  
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Shoulde apprehenson test. Tests for   Dislocation  
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Anterior slide test. Tests for   Labrum tears  
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Cozen’s test. Tests for   Tennis elbow (laterial epicondolitis)  
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Glofers elbow =   Medial epicondolitis  
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Valgus and varges stress test =   Ligament sprain  
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Intermittent tingling and parathesis of the fourth and fifth digits with pain in the elbow raidating to teh ulna aspect of the forearm and hand   Ulna nerve impingment (entrapment)  
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Phalen’s test =   Carpal tunnel syndrome.  
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Tinel’s sign tests for   Carpal tunnel syndrome  
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Presence of ape and deformity indicates   Carpal tunnel entrapment  
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Presence of claw hand deformity indicates   Ulnar nerve entrapment  
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Froment’s sign =   Ulnar nerve entrapment  
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Presence of wrist drop deformity indicates   Radial nerve entrapment  
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Finkelstein’s test =   De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis  
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Trendelenburg’s test =   For stability of the hip joint and assesses the hip ABDUCTORS stabilizing the pelvis  
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Patrick Faber=   Machanical hip joint dysfunction, iliopsoas spasm, or sacroiliac problem  
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Ober’s test.   Assesses TFL/ITB (iliotibial band)  
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Thomas test   Assesses iliopsoas and rectus femoris  
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Genu recurvatum =   Knee in hyperextended position  
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Genu valgum =   Knocked knees  
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Genu varus   Bowl legged  
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Tibial torsion   Tibia rotated in relation to femur, can cause toeing in or toeing out  
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Anterior draw test   For anterior cruciate ligament stability  
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Posaterior draw test   For posterior cruciate ligament sability  
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Balgus stress test   For collateral ligament stability  
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Varus stress test   For collateral ligament stability  
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McMurray’s test   For medial meniscus  
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Nobles test   For ITB syndrome  
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Clarke’s test   For chondromalacia patellae  
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Thompson test   Achilles rupture  
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Anterior draw test (ankle)   Talofibular ligament  
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Posterior draw test (ankle)   for talofibular ligament  
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Homan’s test   DVT (deep vein thrombosis)  
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Hallux valgus   Lateral deviation of the great toe  
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Morton’s toe   Aka mortons foot. Second toe is longer then the great toe  
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Pes planus   Flat feet  
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Pes cavus   “Hollow foot” or “rigid foot” accentuated longitudinal arch, both medial and lateral longitudinal arches are accentuated.  
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Results in the formation of claw toes, metatarsal heads and deformed toes are often sore, toes do not touch the ground in active or passive movement.   Pes cavus. Hollow foot, rigid foot  
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Foraminal compression test   For cervical radiculopathy (causes pain)  
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Cervical distraction test   For cervical radiculopathy (decreases pain)  
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What test would you use for the compression of the vertebral artery   Vertebral artery test  
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Which three tests could you use for thoracic outlet syndrome   Adson’s test. Wright test (hyperabduction test). Costoclavicular syndrome test.  
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Straight leg raise   For lumbar radiculopathy  
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Valsalva’s maneuver   For umbar radiculopathy by raisin intrathecal pressure  
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Heel walk   For lumbar radiculopathy, indicates injury to L5 nerve root  
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Toe walk   For lumbar radiculopathy, indicates injury to S1 nerve root  
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Double straight leg raise   For sacroiliac lesion  
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Fabere Patric (lumbar)d   Sacroiliac lesion  
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S-I gapping tests   For sacroiliac lesions  
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Cheyne stokes breathing   Periods of deep breathing alternating with periods of apnea  
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Ataxic breathing (Biot’s breathing)   Breathing of unpredictable irregularity  
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Bisferieas pulse   A pulse with a double systolic peak. Caused by aortic regurgitation, combined aortic stenosis and regurgitation and from hypertrophic cardiomyopathy  
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Pulse alteruans   Pulse alternates in amplitude but not rhythm. Usually due to left ventricular failure  
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Bigeminal pulse   An extra pulse caused by a premature contraction.  
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Paradoxical pulse.   A pulse that is suppressed at the close of each full inspiration. Found in pericardial tamponade, constrictive pericarditis, and obstructive lung disease.  
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Benign. Do not invade surrounding tissues, appears as small (6mm) dwell circumscribed lesion with a well defined border and single shade of pigment.   Nevus  
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Benign, yellowish to brown raised lesions that feel greasy and velvety. Found usually on the trunk in older people.   Seborrheic keratosis  
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Precancerous condition, leads to SCC, found on sun exposed areas, appears as superficial, flattened papules covered by a dry scale   Actinic keratosis  
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Malignant, quicker growing than BCC. Lesions appear as hard, firm lump that may appear as a wart. Lesion eventually ulcerates and invades the underlying tissue. Lesions do not heal completely. They form a crust which falls off and then re crusts   Squamous cell carcinoma  
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Malignant, slow growing. Seldom metastasizes. Initially a nodule that depresses in center with telangiectatic vessels often visible.   Basal cell carcinoma  
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Malignant. Appears as macule, papules, plaques, or nodules almost anywhere on the body. Lesions may appear as oval pinkish red plaques that lengthen along the skin lines and as red nodules   Kaposi’s sarcoma  
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Highly malignant many derived from benign nevus. Use ABCDE to identify   Malignant melanoma. (Asymmetry. Border. Color. Diameter. Elevation.  
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Breath sounds crackles. Soft high pitched, and very brief sounds   Fine rales  
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Breath sounds crackles. Louder then fine crackles, lower in pitch, and longer   Course crackles.  
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What can cause crackles (rales)   Pneumonia, fibrosis, congestive heart failure, bronchitis, and bronchiectasis.  
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An acute bacterial infection (usually streptococcal). Usually found in an arm or leg. Associated symptoms. Red streaks on the skin, fever, and enlarged tender lymph nodes. Spreads up lymph channels   Acute lymphangitis  
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An acute bacterial infection of the skin and subcutaneous tissues occurring on the arms lags and elsewhere. Associated symptoms include diffuse swelling, redness, tenderness, enlarged lymph nodes, and fever. No palpable cord.   Acute cellulitis  
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A subcutaneous inflammatory lesion associated with a variety of systemic conditions (pregnancy, sarcoidosis, TB and streptococcal infections. Lesions found on the anterior surfaces of both lower legs. Associated symptoms include raised, red tender swellin   Erythema nodosum  
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What are 2 conditions that mimic superficial thrombophlebitis   Acute cellulitis and erythema nodosum  
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Where would you find the epitrochlear lymph nodes   The groove between the biceps and the triceps muscles 3cm above the elbow.  
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Patient will have intermittent claudication progressing to pain at rest. Decreased/absent pulses. Pale color with elevation, dusky red on dependency. Skin: shiny thing loss of hair over foot and toes and nails become thickened and ridged. Ulcers and gangr   Chronic ARTERIAL INSUFFICIENCY  
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No poin or aching pain on dependency. Normal pulses. Moderate to marked edema. Normal or cyanotic color on dependency. Petechiae and then brown pigmentation. Temp normal. Brown pigmentation around medial ankles. Gangrene does not develop.   Chronic VENOUS INSUFFICIENCY.  
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