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Bioscience entrance?

QuestionAnswer
Patient comes in complaining of headache. During the neurological exam, you shine the penlight into this patient’s eyes, and observe her pupil contract. Which cranial nerve is responsible for the afferent effect CN2 Optic
Patient comes in complaining of headache. During the neurological exam, you shine the penlight into this patient’s eyes, and observe her pupil contract. Which cranial nerve is responsible for the Efferent effect CN3 Oculomotor
Which cranial nerves are being tested during the “H”-test? Cn 3,4,6 Oculomotor, trochlear, Abducens
Using cotton to access the sensation on a patient’s face, which cranial nerve is being tested CN 5 Trigeminal
A patient cannot hear well in his left ear and cannot keep his balance when asked to walk a straight line. Which cranial nerve is most likely damaged? CN 8 Vestibulocochlear
Which Two cranial nerves are responsible for the gag reflex CN 9 & 10 Glossopharyngeal & vagus
When asked to shrug both shoulders, the patient is unable to shrug her right shoulder. Which cranial nerve is most likely damaged CN 11 Spinal accessory
When a male patient is asked to stick out his tongue, you observed that his tongue is deviated or pointed to the right which cranial nerve is damaged Right CN 12 Hypo glossal
Patient comes in complaining of numbness and tingling sensation of the palmer side of her first 3 digits and half of the 4th digit on the left hand. Which nerve is being affected? Medial nerve
Patient comes in complaining of numbness and tingling sensation of the palmer side of her first 3 digits and half of the 4th digit on the left hand. You suspect carpel tunnel syndrome. Which test should you perform initially to confirm your suspicion Tinel’s sign
Patient comes in complaining that he can not extend his wrist. Which nerve is most likely affected Radial nerve
When performing the anterior and posterior drawer test on the patient’s lower extremities. What is the examiner testing for Anterior and Posterior cruciate ligament, respectively
Patient complains of hearing a “pop” followed by pain around the right achilles tendon area, and inability to extend the right foot. What is the test to assess achilles tendon rupture Thompson test
A female complains of pain around the left posterior calf area, she also mentions that she just got off an international plane that flew for 14 hours. You are concerned about DVT. Which physical exam should you preform? Homan’s test
A. Patient complains of burning sensation around the 3rd intermetatarsal space of her left foot. The foot does not appear to be inflamed. What is your top differential diagnosis Morton’s neuroma
Bradycardia is defined as a pulse less than 60 BPM
Tachycardia is defined as a pulse greater than 100 BPM
Bradycardia can be both Physiological or pathological
During physical examination of the abdomen, what is the correct procedural sequence? Inspection, auscultation, palpoation, percussion
During inspection of the skin, pallor is commonly a sign of Anemia
What is the first location where jaundice appears in a patient Sublingual
In a patient with hypothyroidism you would expect their skin findings to be Dry and cold
During skin examination, decreased skin turgor is a common sign of Dehydration
What does Lichenification mean Thickening of the skin
An elderly patient came in for a massage. You observed that there are a number of brown raised greasy and velvety looking lesions on the patient’s trunk that have a “stuck on” appearance. What is your initial differential diagnosis? Seborrheic keratosis
What is the name of the precancerous lesion that commonly leads to squamous cell carcinoma Actinic keratosis
During your evaluation of a patient’s skin you observed lesions that yo believe is Kaposi’s sarcoma. What should you ask the patient Any history of sexually transmitted disease
When does Basal cell carcinoma metastasizes during the course of the condition? Later in the course of the condition
During physical examination, you observed a mixed black/brown/yellow colored lesion on the patient’s arm with irregular boarder. What is your top differential diagnosis Melanoma
What determines the metastatic potential of a malignant melanoma Depth
Clubbing of the fingers is usually associated with Chronic hypoxia, lung cancer, or hepatic cirrhosis
Barrel chest is commonly associated with Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
During physical examination, hyper resonance elicited during percussion indicates? COPD, emphysema, ipsilateral Pneumothorax
An obese patient came to the office for a physical exam. You observed that his face is round, there is fat pad on his upper back and there are many red/purplish striations on his abdomen. What is your top differential diagnosis? Cushing disease
True of false? Lipoma is a malignant fatty tumor found in the subcutaneous tissue that should be removed immediately due to high chance of metastasis? FALSE
During auscultation of the femoral artery you heard bruit. What does it mean? PARTIAL OCCLUSION OF THE FEMORAL ARTERY
During physical examination of the abdomen, you saw a mass located at the right lower quadrant and the mass becomes larger when you ask the patient to cough. What is your top differential diagnosis? Hernia
When assessing for cardiac valve abnormalities with a stethoscope, which is the correct location on the patient for auscultating the aortic valve? Right 2nd intercostal space
When assessing for cardiac valve abnormalities with a stethoscope, which is the correct location on the patient for auscultating pulmonic valve? Left 2nd intercostal space
When assessing for cardiac valve abnormalities with a stethoscope, which is the correct location on the patient for auscultating tricuspid valve? Left lower sternal boarder
When assessing for cardiac valve abnormalities with a stethoscope, which is the correct location on the patient for auscultating mitral valve? Left 5th intercostal space, mid axillary line
True or false When feeling for the apical pulse on a patient, your hand is placed on the patient’s right 5th intercostal space, mid axillary line. False
When someone describes that a thrill was felt when placing the ball of the hand on the patient’s chest, they are describing a feeling of Abnormal vibration
When there is stenosis of the tricuspid valve, you would expect which chamber of the heart to be enlarged Right Atrium
When there is stenosis of the bicuspid valve, you would expect which chamber of the heart to be enlarged Left Atrium
When there is stenosis of the pulmonary valve, you would expect which chamber of the heart to be enlarged Right ventricle
When there is stenosis of the aortic valve you would expect which chamber of the heart to be enlarged Left Ventricle
Patient with Mitral regurgitation, during systole the blood is flowing from Left ventricle to the left atrium
Patients with tricuspid regurgitation, during systole the blood is flowing from Right ventricle to the right atrium
Patient with ventricular septal defect, during systole the blood is flowing from Left ventricle to the Right ventricle
Episodic muscular ischemia induced by activity and relieved by rest is Intermittent claudication
Acute arterial occlusion presents with Sudden onset of pain due to thrombus or embolus
A female patient came into your office complaining that she sometimes observes her hands become white, then blue, and later red, this is know as Raynaud’s phenomenon
What condition is mostly associated with smoking Thromboangitis obliterans (buerger disease)
When examining the upper extremities, what is the location of axillary lymph Inside the arm pits
True or False: When examining the patients limbs, you observed that there is a shinny appearance and a loss or decrease of hair on the patient’s bilateral extremities. This is indicative of venous insufficiency FALSE
Where are Popliteal pulses are assessed Behind the knees
Where are Dorsalis pedis pulses assessed On top of the foot
Where are Femoral pulses assessed In the groin
Facultative aerobes can grow in In the presence of O2 or in the absence of O2
Obligated anaerobes can grow in The absence of O2
HIV mostly affect which cells in the body CD4 t-cells
Which type of hepatitis is transmitted by fecal-oral route Hep A or Hep E
What is the role of reverse transcriptase in AIDS virus Make DNA from RNA
The organism, borrelia is responsible for Lyme disease
Which virus affects both the testicles and the parotid gland Mumps virus
What is an isotope Two or more forms of the same element but with different neutron number
True or False: Anabolism is a synthesis reaction TRUE
T or F: Catabolism is a decomposition reaction True
T o F: Formation of a peptide bond between two amino acids is a hydrolysis reaction False
T or F: Oxidation reaction is when a molecule loose an electron True
T or F: reduction is when a molecule looses an electron False
Glycogen is mostly found in the Liver
T or F: Gluconeogenesis is the process of forming glycogen False
Which lipoprotein is considered as “good” lipoprotein? HDL
Bilirubin is formed from the breakdown of Red Blood Cells
T or F: Unsaturated fatty acids are organic molecules that contain only single bonds FALSE
What are some ketones Acetone, Beta-hydroxybuterate, Acetoacetic acid
T or F: RNA is a double stranded nucleic acid responsible for protein production FALSE: RNA is a single stranded nucleic acid. DNA is a double stranded
Function of rRNA Forms ribosomes
Function of tRNA Binds to amino acid during translation
Function of mRNA Directs synthesis of polypeptide chain
Describe transcription DNA copied to RNA
Describe translation RNA copied to protein
What are the fat soluble vitamins Vitamin A, D, E, K
A patient complains of night blindness which of the following vitamin is most likely be deficient in this patient? VIT. A
What vitamin plays a significant role in clotting cascade Vit. K
What vitimin plays a significant role in blood calcium level Vit. C
Deficiency of which vitamin will lead to megaloblastic anemia Vit. B12
The process by which food is broken down mechanically and chemically in the gastrointestinal tract and converted into absorbable forms is known as Digestion
When asking the patient to smell vanilla versus chocolate, you are accessing what nerve CN1
When brushing a cotton swab on the patients face to access for sensation you are accessing what nerve CN5
When asking the patient to show her teeth or smile, you are accessing what nerve CN7
Performing the Rinne’s and Weber’s test on a patient with a tuning fork you are accessing what nerve CN8
When asking the patient to shrug his shoulders you are accessing what nerve CN11
When asking the patient to stick out her tongue you are accessing what nerve CN 12
Which cranial nerve is responsible for the motor to parotid gland CN9
Which cranial nerve is responsible for the motor to stomach CN10
Damage to which part of the nervous system will lead to bitemporal hemianopia Optic chiasm
Spinal accessory nerve is responsible for the motor of which muscles Trapezius and stenocleidomastoid
Codman’s drop arm tests for Rotator cuff
Empty can test: tests for Supraspinatus
Yergason’s test tests for Bicipital tendon injury
Speeds test tests for Bicipital tendon injury
Shoulde apprehenson test. Tests for Dislocation
Anterior slide test. Tests for Labrum tears
Cozen’s test. Tests for Tennis elbow (laterial epicondolitis)
Glofers elbow = Medial epicondolitis
Valgus and varges stress test = Ligament sprain
Intermittent tingling and parathesis of the fourth and fifth digits with pain in the elbow raidating to teh ulna aspect of the forearm and hand Ulna nerve impingment (entrapment)
Phalen’s test = Carpal tunnel syndrome.
Tinel’s sign tests for Carpal tunnel syndrome
Presence of ape and deformity indicates Carpal tunnel entrapment
Presence of claw hand deformity indicates Ulnar nerve entrapment
Froment’s sign = Ulnar nerve entrapment
Presence of wrist drop deformity indicates Radial nerve entrapment
Finkelstein’s test = De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis
Trendelenburg’s test = For stability of the hip joint and assesses the hip ABDUCTORS stabilizing the pelvis
Patrick Faber= Machanical hip joint dysfunction, iliopsoas spasm, or sacroiliac problem
Ober’s test. Assesses TFL/ITB (iliotibial band)
Thomas test Assesses iliopsoas and rectus femoris
Genu recurvatum = Knee in hyperextended position
Genu valgum = Knocked knees
Genu varus Bowl legged
Tibial torsion Tibia rotated in relation to femur, can cause toeing in or toeing out
Anterior draw test For anterior cruciate ligament stability
Posaterior draw test For posterior cruciate ligament sability
Balgus stress test For collateral ligament stability
Varus stress test For collateral ligament stability
McMurray’s test For medial meniscus
Nobles test For ITB syndrome
Clarke’s test For chondromalacia patellae
Thompson test Achilles rupture
Anterior draw test (ankle) Talofibular ligament
Posterior draw test (ankle) for talofibular ligament
Homan’s test DVT (deep vein thrombosis)
Hallux valgus Lateral deviation of the great toe
Morton’s toe Aka mortons foot. Second toe is longer then the great toe
Pes planus Flat feet
Pes cavus “Hollow foot” or “rigid foot” accentuated longitudinal arch, both medial and lateral longitudinal arches are accentuated.
Results in the formation of claw toes, metatarsal heads and deformed toes are often sore, toes do not touch the ground in active or passive movement. Pes cavus. Hollow foot, rigid foot
Foraminal compression test For cervical radiculopathy (causes pain)
Cervical distraction test For cervical radiculopathy (decreases pain)
What test would you use for the compression of the vertebral artery Vertebral artery test
Which three tests could you use for thoracic outlet syndrome Adson’s test. Wright test (hyperabduction test). Costoclavicular syndrome test.
Straight leg raise For lumbar radiculopathy
Valsalva’s maneuver For umbar radiculopathy by raisin intrathecal pressure
Heel walk For lumbar radiculopathy, indicates injury to L5 nerve root
Toe walk For lumbar radiculopathy, indicates injury to S1 nerve root
Double straight leg raise For sacroiliac lesion
Fabere Patric (lumbar)d Sacroiliac lesion
S-I gapping tests For sacroiliac lesions
Cheyne stokes breathing Periods of deep breathing alternating with periods of apnea
Ataxic breathing (Biot’s breathing) Breathing of unpredictable irregularity
Bisferieas pulse A pulse with a double systolic peak. Caused by aortic regurgitation, combined aortic stenosis and regurgitation and from hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Pulse alteruans Pulse alternates in amplitude but not rhythm. Usually due to left ventricular failure
Bigeminal pulse An extra pulse caused by a premature contraction.
Paradoxical pulse. A pulse that is suppressed at the close of each full inspiration. Found in pericardial tamponade, constrictive pericarditis, and obstructive lung disease.
Benign. Do not invade surrounding tissues, appears as small (6mm) dwell circumscribed lesion with a well defined border and single shade of pigment. Nevus
Benign, yellowish to brown raised lesions that feel greasy and velvety. Found usually on the trunk in older people. Seborrheic keratosis
Precancerous condition, leads to SCC, found on sun exposed areas, appears as superficial, flattened papules covered by a dry scale Actinic keratosis
Malignant, quicker growing than BCC. Lesions appear as hard, firm lump that may appear as a wart. Lesion eventually ulcerates and invades the underlying tissue. Lesions do not heal completely. They form a crust which falls off and then re crusts Squamous cell carcinoma
Malignant, slow growing. Seldom metastasizes. Initially a nodule that depresses in center with telangiectatic vessels often visible. Basal cell carcinoma
Malignant. Appears as macule, papules, plaques, or nodules almost anywhere on the body. Lesions may appear as oval pinkish red plaques that lengthen along the skin lines and as red nodules Kaposi’s sarcoma
Highly malignant many derived from benign nevus. Use ABCDE to identify Malignant melanoma. (Asymmetry. Border. Color. Diameter. Elevation.
Breath sounds crackles. Soft high pitched, and very brief sounds Fine rales
Breath sounds crackles. Louder then fine crackles, lower in pitch, and longer Course crackles.
What can cause crackles (rales) Pneumonia, fibrosis, congestive heart failure, bronchitis, and bronchiectasis.
An acute bacterial infection (usually streptococcal). Usually found in an arm or leg. Associated symptoms. Red streaks on the skin, fever, and enlarged tender lymph nodes. Spreads up lymph channels Acute lymphangitis
An acute bacterial infection of the skin and subcutaneous tissues occurring on the arms lags and elsewhere. Associated symptoms include diffuse swelling, redness, tenderness, enlarged lymph nodes, and fever. No palpable cord. Acute cellulitis
A subcutaneous inflammatory lesion associated with a variety of systemic conditions (pregnancy, sarcoidosis, TB and streptococcal infections. Lesions found on the anterior surfaces of both lower legs. Associated symptoms include raised, red tender swellin Erythema nodosum
What are 2 conditions that mimic superficial thrombophlebitis Acute cellulitis and erythema nodosum
Where would you find the epitrochlear lymph nodes The groove between the biceps and the triceps muscles 3cm above the elbow.
Patient will have intermittent claudication progressing to pain at rest. Decreased/absent pulses. Pale color with elevation, dusky red on dependency. Skin: shiny thing loss of hair over foot and toes and nails become thickened and ridged. Ulcers and gangr Chronic ARTERIAL INSUFFICIENCY
No poin or aching pain on dependency. Normal pulses. Moderate to marked edema. Normal or cyanotic color on dependency. Petechiae and then brown pigmentation. Temp normal. Brown pigmentation around medial ankles. Gangrene does not develop. Chronic VENOUS INSUFFICIENCY.
Created by: Jkellycal