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Nursing-Quiz 3

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Describe the relationship of the mediastinum (space that contains the heart, esophagus) to the diaphragm:   Superior  
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The umblical cord is located:   inferior to the diaphragm  
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Which of the following terms best describes when the blood vessels dilate and the person sweats in order to decrease the body temp?   Homoeostasis.  
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Which of the following is true of these terms: sternal, umblical, patellar and antecubital?   All can be viewed from the anterior body  
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The ionisation of salt (NaCl)   produces a cation (Na+) and a anion (CI+)  
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Which of the following is true iodine and radioactive iodine?   Both have the same atomic numbers  
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Which of the following is not true of of Na+:   it is measured by pH  
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Which of the following has donated an elctron?   Na+  
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Which of the following is least descriptive of the nucleus of the atom?   Home of the electrons  
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Which of the following is descriptive of the patient with a blood pH of 7.28   the patient is acidotic  
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The selectively permeable membrane:   determines which substances enter and leave the cell  
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A vaginal yeast infection (Candida Albicans) is most apt to develop:   as a consequence to antibiotic therapy  
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The plasmodium:   causes malaria  
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Spores:   make a bacterium heat-resistant and hard to kill  
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Osseous tissue:   contains hard mineral containing intercellular matrix; contains osteocytes; and is a type of connective tissue  
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The intrecellular matrix of the connective tissue:   can be hard, liquid or gel-like consistency  
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What increases body temperature?   Shivering  
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The stratum germinativum:   gives rise to epidermal cells  
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Function of stratum germinativum:   mitosis  
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Secretion of endocrine glands:   lowers body temperature  
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Cyanosis occurs when:   the blood in the cutaneous blood vessel is unoxygenated  
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Which word pertains to all the following: apocrine; sudoriferous; eccrine and sebaceous:   Excocrine glands  
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Shivering thermogenesis:   increase body temperature  
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The epiphyseal disc is:   composed of cartilage and is involved in the growth of long bones  
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To determine the approx length of the humerus, you would measure from the :   acromion to olecranon process  
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Identify the movement of the elbow that describes the angle at the humeroulnar joint:   flexion  
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What is foramen magnum?   It is a large hole through which the brain exits the cranium  
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What is carpel tunnel?   Most of the tendons of the muscles that supply the hand pass through a narrow tunnel created by transversly oriented carpel ligaments and the carpal (wrist bones)  
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How many muscles move the wrist, hand, and fingers?   20 muscles  
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When the electrical signal travels through the T tubule and stimulates the sacroplasmic reticulum (SER):   calcium is released, causing cross-bridge formation between actin and myosin  
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What does not happen within a neuro-muscular joint:   actin – myosin slide  
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When skeletal muscle is stimulated quickly and repeatedly:   the muscle tetanizes and the force of contraction increases  
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What must occur to achieve flexion:   the biceps branchii and brachialis contract  
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What is true about hamstrings?   Is the prime mover for flexion of the leg  
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Describe the masseter and the temporalis muscle?   Insert on the mandible; used for mastication; innervated by somatic motor neurons  
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The precentral gyrus is :   the primary motor cortex  
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The hypothalamus:   is part of the diencephalon; synthesises antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin; controls pituitary glands activity  
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Activation of the emetic center or CTZ:   induces vomiting  
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Depolarization and repolarisation:   are phases of the action potential  
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Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF):   circulates within the subarachnoid space  
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The postcentral gyrus:   is located in the parietal lobe  
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Describe the medulla oblongatta?   Is a brain stem structure; called the vital centre; sensitive to the effect of narcotics  
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The trigeminla nerve:   is CN V; has both sensory and motor fibers; effects chewing  
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Describe spinothalamic tract?   It carries sensory information regarding touch, pressure and pain  
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Describe the corticospinal tract?   Descending tract; major motor tract; pyramidal tract  
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What is the final step in the reflex arc?   Response of the effector organ(s)  
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Damage to phrenic nerves:   impairs breathing  
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CN IX, CN X and the baroreceptor reflex are concerned with the regulation of :   blood pressure  
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Which of the foll. cranial nerves is not classified as sensory: olfactory; CN II; vestibulocochlear: vagus   Vagus  
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Describe the sympathetic nervous system?   Includes the paravertebral ganglia; aka fight-or-flight response; uses craniosacral outflow  
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Describe the parasympathetic nervous system?   Mediates feed-and-breed activities  
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What is the role of monoamine oxidase (MAO)?   Destroys norepinephrine  
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Activation of beta2-adrenergic receptors?   Dilates the breathing passages  
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Activation of the muscarinic receptors?   Slows the heart rate  
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Blockade of the alpha1-adrenergic receptors is the basis for what group of drugs?   Antihypertensive drugs  
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Pupillary dilation, an increase in heart rate, and an inability to urinate are the effects of:   muscarinic blockade  
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A vagolytic drug excerts the same effect as:   an antimuscarinic agent  
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A drug or effect that is described as mydriatic?   Dilates the pupil  
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The organ of corti?   Is the receptor for hearing  
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Touch, pressure, pain and temperature are classified as:   general sensors  
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Cranial nerves III, IV, VI:   innervate the extrinsic eye muscles  
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Which of the following is NOT a sense: gustation; lacrimation; olfaction; proprioception   Lacrimation  
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Adrenal cortex secretes 3 steroids:   Glucocorticoids – Sugar / Mineralcorticoids – Salt / Sex hormones – Sex  
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Insulin:   lowers blood sugar and is secreted from the pancreas.  
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Glucagon   Secreted from the pancreas and passes through the liver to increas the blood sugar levels  
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Cortisol:   is secreted by the adrenal cortex in response to ACTH  
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Aldosterone is:   is a mineralcorticoid secreted by the adrenal cortex  
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The pancreas:   secretes both insulin and glucagon  
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As plasma levels of calcium decreases:   PTH is secreted , thereby stimulating osteoclastic activity  
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Hypocalcemic tetany is:   a consequence of a deficiency of PTH.  
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Hyperglycemia, polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia and ketoacidosis are characteristics of a deficiency of:   Insulin  
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Which of the following is NOT a steroid: Adrenal cortical hormones; ACTH, Estrogen; Androgens   ACTH  
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Is not a salt retaining hormone:   ADH (Antidiuretic hormone)  
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The neutrophil:   is a granulocytic phagocyte  
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Thrombin:   Activates fibrinogen  
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Erythropoietin:   is synthesised by the kidneys; stimulates bone marrow to make RBCs; is released by kindney in response to hypoxemia  
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What causes jaundice?   Hemolysis  
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Hyperbilubinemia:   can be caused by hemolysis; causes jaundice; can cause kernicterus  
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Which of the following is least related to heme: O2; Phagocytosis; RBC; Iron   Phagocytosis  
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Electrical conduction system:   in normal synus rhythm, the electrical signal arises from within the SA Node  
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Pacemaker cells fire a faster rate in the:   SA Node  
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The coronary arteries:   exit the aorta at the point immediately distal to the aortic semilunar valve  
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The chordae tendineae are necessary for the proper functioning of the:   Mitral valve  
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What happens during ventricular diastole?   Blood fills the ventricles  
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Increased return of blood to the heart stretches the heart muscles, thereby:   increasing stroke volume  
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Ventricular sytole refers to:   contraction of ventricular myocardium  
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The common carotid:   supplies oxygenated blood to the brain  
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Umblical vein delivers oxygenated blood to the fetus: true or false   True  
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The portal vein; hepatic vein; and celiac trunk are most associated with the:   liver  
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The supoerior mesenteric vein and the splenic vein:   merge to form the portal vein  
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Both the branchiocephalic artery and the left common carotid artery:   arise from the arch of the aorta  
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The ability of the arterioles to contract and relax allows them to:   function as resistance vessels  
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What are the consequences of sympathetic nerve stimulation:   increased cardiac output; peripheral vasoconstriction; elevation of blood pressure  
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A sudden decrease in BP in most likely to cause:   reflex tachycardia  
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What happens when an increase in systemic vascular resistance happens:   increase in BP  
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In which blood vessel is the blood flow the slowest:   capillaries  
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What lowers plasma oncotic pressure?   Hypoalbuminemia  
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The skeletal muscle pump:   enhances venous return of blood to the right heart  
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What causes edema (swelling)?   Accumulation of albumin in the interstitium (tissue space)  
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The spleen:   removes worn out RBCs and phalets from the circulation  
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The pharyngeal tonsils are called:   adenoids  
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The right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct deliver:   lymph to the subclavian arteries  
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The term MALT (mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue):   refers to lymphoid tissue in the mucosal membrane of many organs  
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Pharnyx forms part of both the:   digestive and respiratory system  
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Inhalation and exhilation are referred to as:   Ventilation  
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The diameter of the bronchioles determines the:   air flow to the alveoli  
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The esophagus:   is a hollow tube that carries food from the pharynx to the stomach  
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Which of the following is NOT descrptive of bile: aids in fat digestion; is an emulsifying agent; is classified as a lipase; stored in the gall bladder   is classified as a lipase  
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What is emulsification?   A large fat globule that is mechanically broken into smaller fat globules  
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The pancreas:   secretes the most potent digestive enzymes  
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The duodenum is most concerned with:   digestion and absorption  
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What is trypsinogen?   They are inactive proteases  
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Gastrin, cholecystokinin (CCK) and the secretin are :   gastrointestinal hormones  
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The filtration of 180 L/day of water:   occurs across the glomerular membrane  
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Which part of the nephron receives the golmerular ultrafiltrate first:   Bowman’s capsule  
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The active pumping of Na+ from the proximal convoluted tubule into the pertubular capilaries:   is responsible for the passive reabsorption of water  
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A drug that blocks the renal reabsorption of Na+ causes:   diuresis (increased or excessive production of urine).  
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A drug that blocks the effects of aldosterone:   may cause an increase in plasma K+  
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Oliguria:   develops in response to hypotension  
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Hyperkalemia:   refers to an elevated serum potassium level  
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What is the role of albumin in water balance?   Maintains plasma oncotic pressure (in a blood vessel's plasma (blood/liquid) that usually tends to pull water into the circulatory system)  
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A patient with a history of heart failure is admitted to the hospital in pulmonary edema (swelling). Over a 4 day period his breathing improved and he experienced a loss of 8 lb. Why is this so?   Diuresis (increased or excessive production of urine)  
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Imparied respiratory gas exchange and hypoventilation are most apt to cause:   respiratory acidosis  
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Kussmaul respirations (is a deep and labored breathing pattern)are the compensatory mechanism for :   metabolic acidosis  
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What happens when fatty acids are broken down rapidly and incompletely:   ketoacids are produces casusing metabolic acidosis  
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Hypocalcemia (low calcium levels in the blood serum) is most apt to:   cause tetany (a condition marked by intermittent muscular spasms, caused by malfunction of the parathyroid glands and a consequent deficiency of calcium.)  
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An anxiety induced hyperventilation:   causes alkalosis  
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Tenting ( skin abnormality indicative of dehydration; the skin maintains a triangular or tentlike appearance when gently pinched) is:   due to volume depletion in the interstitial space  
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In the male the gonadotropins:   are aimed at the testis; includes LH and FSH; stimulate sperm development and the secretion of androgen  
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In the male the luteinizing hormone:   is also called ICSH and stimulates the interstitial cells to secrete testosterone  
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Estrogen and progesterone:   are secreted by the ovaries  
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The luteal phase of the ovarian cycle:   is responsible for the uterine secretory phase  
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Menstruation occurs in response to:   diminished plasma levels of estrogen and progesterone  
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The graafian follicle:   is an ovarian structure  
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Trophoblasstic cells:   assist with implantation  
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The morula:   refers to the pre-embryonic cluster of cells  
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What is a placenta?   Site at which the baby-to-be breathes, is vascular, replaces grandular secretion of the corpus luteum  
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The chorion is an extraembryonic membrane that:   develops finger like projections that penetrate the uterine wall forming the placenta  
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The myometrium:   is responsive to oxytocin and oxytocic drugs  
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Which of the following happens first: zygote formation; fertilization; ovulation; early blastocyst   Ovulation  
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Prolactin and oxytocin:   target the mammary glands  
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Colostrum (is the first milk your breasts produce during pregnancy) is:   secreted by the mammary glands.  
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Bacteria are traditionally divided into the two groups namely:   Gram-positive and gram-negative, based on their Gram stain retention  
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What is dandruff?   The dead sloughed cells( stratum corneum) are called Dander. When Dander is clumped with oil secretion of the skull it is known as Dandruff.  
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Largest portion of the skin is...   Dermis  
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Alopecia   Hair loss  
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Description of nail   They are thin plates of stratified squamous epithelial cells that contain a very hard form of keratin.  
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What is pustule?   When blocked sebum become infected with staphylococci it is called a pimple or pustule  
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2 types of sweat glands are:   Eccrine and appocrine.  
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