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Nursing-Quiz 3

Describe the relationship of the mediastinum (space that contains the heart, esophagus) to the diaphragm: Superior
The umblical cord is located: inferior to the diaphragm
Which of the following terms best describes when the blood vessels dilate and the person sweats in order to decrease the body temp? Homoeostasis.
Which of the following is true of these terms: sternal, umblical, patellar and antecubital? All can be viewed from the anterior body
The ionisation of salt (NaCl) produces a cation (Na+) and a anion (CI+)
Which of the following is true iodine and radioactive iodine? Both have the same atomic numbers
Which of the following is not true of of Na+: it is measured by pH
Which of the following has donated an elctron? Na+
Which of the following is least descriptive of the nucleus of the atom? Home of the electrons
Which of the following is descriptive of the patient with a blood pH of 7.28 the patient is acidotic
The selectively permeable membrane: determines which substances enter and leave the cell
A vaginal yeast infection (Candida Albicans) is most apt to develop: as a consequence to antibiotic therapy
The plasmodium: causes malaria
Spores: make a bacterium heat-resistant and hard to kill
Osseous tissue: contains hard mineral containing intercellular matrix; contains osteocytes; and is a type of connective tissue
The intrecellular matrix of the connective tissue: can be hard, liquid or gel-like consistency
What increases body temperature? Shivering
The stratum germinativum: gives rise to epidermal cells
Function of stratum germinativum: mitosis
Secretion of endocrine glands: lowers body temperature
Cyanosis occurs when: the blood in the cutaneous blood vessel is unoxygenated
Which word pertains to all the following: apocrine; sudoriferous; eccrine and sebaceous: Excocrine glands
Shivering thermogenesis: increase body temperature
The epiphyseal disc is: composed of cartilage and is involved in the growth of long bones
To determine the approx length of the humerus, you would measure from the : acromion to olecranon process
Identify the movement of the elbow that describes the angle at the humeroulnar joint: flexion
What is foramen magnum? It is a large hole through which the brain exits the cranium
What is carpel tunnel? Most of the tendons of the muscles that supply the hand pass through a narrow tunnel created by transversly oriented carpel ligaments and the carpal (wrist bones)
How many muscles move the wrist, hand, and fingers? 20 muscles
When the electrical signal travels through the T tubule and stimulates the sacroplasmic reticulum (SER): calcium is released, causing cross-bridge formation between actin and myosin
What does not happen within a neuro-muscular joint: actin – myosin slide
When skeletal muscle is stimulated quickly and repeatedly: the muscle tetanizes and the force of contraction increases
What must occur to achieve flexion: the biceps branchii and brachialis contract
What is true about hamstrings? Is the prime mover for flexion of the leg
Describe the masseter and the temporalis muscle? Insert on the mandible; used for mastication; innervated by somatic motor neurons
The precentral gyrus is : the primary motor cortex
The hypothalamus: is part of the diencephalon; synthesises antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin; controls pituitary glands activity
Activation of the emetic center or CTZ: induces vomiting
Depolarization and repolarisation: are phases of the action potential
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF): circulates within the subarachnoid space
The postcentral gyrus: is located in the parietal lobe
Describe the medulla oblongatta? Is a brain stem structure; called the vital centre; sensitive to the effect of narcotics
The trigeminla nerve: is CN V; has both sensory and motor fibers; effects chewing
Describe spinothalamic tract? It carries sensory information regarding touch, pressure and pain
Describe the corticospinal tract? Descending tract; major motor tract; pyramidal tract
What is the final step in the reflex arc? Response of the effector organ(s)
Damage to phrenic nerves: impairs breathing
CN IX, CN X and the baroreceptor reflex are concerned with the regulation of : blood pressure
Which of the foll. cranial nerves is not classified as sensory: olfactory; CN II; vestibulocochlear: vagus Vagus
Describe the sympathetic nervous system? Includes the paravertebral ganglia; aka fight-or-flight response; uses craniosacral outflow
Describe the parasympathetic nervous system? Mediates feed-and-breed activities
What is the role of monoamine oxidase (MAO)? Destroys norepinephrine
Activation of beta2-adrenergic receptors? Dilates the breathing passages
Activation of the muscarinic receptors? Slows the heart rate
Blockade of the alpha1-adrenergic receptors is the basis for what group of drugs? Antihypertensive drugs
Pupillary dilation, an increase in heart rate, and an inability to urinate are the effects of: muscarinic blockade
A vagolytic drug excerts the same effect as: an antimuscarinic agent
A drug or effect that is described as mydriatic? Dilates the pupil
The organ of corti? Is the receptor for hearing
Touch, pressure, pain and temperature are classified as: general sensors
Cranial nerves III, IV, VI: innervate the extrinsic eye muscles
Which of the following is NOT a sense: gustation; lacrimation; olfaction; proprioception Lacrimation
Adrenal cortex secretes 3 steroids: Glucocorticoids – Sugar / Mineralcorticoids – Salt / Sex hormones – Sex
Insulin: lowers blood sugar and is secreted from the pancreas.
Glucagon Secreted from the pancreas and passes through the liver to increas the blood sugar levels
Cortisol: is secreted by the adrenal cortex in response to ACTH
Aldosterone is: is a mineralcorticoid secreted by the adrenal cortex
The pancreas: secretes both insulin and glucagon
As plasma levels of calcium decreases: PTH is secreted , thereby stimulating osteoclastic activity
Hypocalcemic tetany is: a consequence of a deficiency of PTH.
Hyperglycemia, polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia and ketoacidosis are characteristics of a deficiency of: Insulin
Which of the following is NOT a steroid: Adrenal cortical hormones; ACTH, Estrogen; Androgens ACTH
Is not a salt retaining hormone: ADH (Antidiuretic hormone)
The neutrophil: is a granulocytic phagocyte
Thrombin: Activates fibrinogen
Erythropoietin: is synthesised by the kidneys; stimulates bone marrow to make RBCs; is released by kindney in response to hypoxemia
What causes jaundice? Hemolysis
Hyperbilubinemia: can be caused by hemolysis; causes jaundice; can cause kernicterus
Which of the following is least related to heme: O2; Phagocytosis; RBC; Iron Phagocytosis
Electrical conduction system: in normal synus rhythm, the electrical signal arises from within the SA Node
Pacemaker cells fire a faster rate in the: SA Node
The coronary arteries: exit the aorta at the point immediately distal to the aortic semilunar valve
The chordae tendineae are necessary for the proper functioning of the: Mitral valve
What happens during ventricular diastole? Blood fills the ventricles
Increased return of blood to the heart stretches the heart muscles, thereby: increasing stroke volume
Ventricular sytole refers to: contraction of ventricular myocardium
The common carotid: supplies oxygenated blood to the brain
Umblical vein delivers oxygenated blood to the fetus: true or false True
The portal vein; hepatic vein; and celiac trunk are most associated with the: liver
The supoerior mesenteric vein and the splenic vein: merge to form the portal vein
Both the branchiocephalic artery and the left common carotid artery: arise from the arch of the aorta
The ability of the arterioles to contract and relax allows them to: function as resistance vessels
What are the consequences of sympathetic nerve stimulation: increased cardiac output; peripheral vasoconstriction; elevation of blood pressure
A sudden decrease in BP in most likely to cause: reflex tachycardia
What happens when an increase in systemic vascular resistance happens: increase in BP
In which blood vessel is the blood flow the slowest: capillaries
What lowers plasma oncotic pressure? Hypoalbuminemia
The skeletal muscle pump: enhances venous return of blood to the right heart
What causes edema (swelling)? Accumulation of albumin in the interstitium (tissue space)
The spleen: removes worn out RBCs and phalets from the circulation
The pharyngeal tonsils are called: adenoids
The right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct deliver: lymph to the subclavian arteries
The term MALT (mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue): refers to lymphoid tissue in the mucosal membrane of many organs
Pharnyx forms part of both the: digestive and respiratory system
Inhalation and exhilation are referred to as: Ventilation
The diameter of the bronchioles determines the: air flow to the alveoli
The esophagus: is a hollow tube that carries food from the pharynx to the stomach
Which of the following is NOT descrptive of bile: aids in fat digestion; is an emulsifying agent; is classified as a lipase; stored in the gall bladder is classified as a lipase
What is emulsification? A large fat globule that is mechanically broken into smaller fat globules
The pancreas: secretes the most potent digestive enzymes
The duodenum is most concerned with: digestion and absorption
What is trypsinogen? They are inactive proteases
Gastrin, cholecystokinin (CCK) and the secretin are : gastrointestinal hormones
The filtration of 180 L/day of water: occurs across the glomerular membrane
Which part of the nephron receives the golmerular ultrafiltrate first: Bowman’s capsule
The active pumping of Na+ from the proximal convoluted tubule into the pertubular capilaries: is responsible for the passive reabsorption of water
A drug that blocks the renal reabsorption of Na+ causes: diuresis (increased or excessive production of urine).
A drug that blocks the effects of aldosterone: may cause an increase in plasma K+
Oliguria: develops in response to hypotension
Hyperkalemia: refers to an elevated serum potassium level
What is the role of albumin in water balance? Maintains plasma oncotic pressure (in a blood vessel's plasma (blood/liquid) that usually tends to pull water into the circulatory system)
A patient with a history of heart failure is admitted to the hospital in pulmonary edema (swelling). Over a 4 day period his breathing improved and he experienced a loss of 8 lb. Why is this so? Diuresis (increased or excessive production of urine)
Imparied respiratory gas exchange and hypoventilation are most apt to cause: respiratory acidosis
Kussmaul respirations (is a deep and labored breathing pattern)are the compensatory mechanism for : metabolic acidosis
What happens when fatty acids are broken down rapidly and incompletely: ketoacids are produces casusing metabolic acidosis
Hypocalcemia (low calcium levels in the blood serum) is most apt to: cause tetany (a condition marked by intermittent muscular spasms, caused by malfunction of the parathyroid glands and a consequent deficiency of calcium.)
An anxiety induced hyperventilation: causes alkalosis
Tenting ( skin abnormality indicative of dehydration; the skin maintains a triangular or tentlike appearance when gently pinched) is: due to volume depletion in the interstitial space
In the male the gonadotropins: are aimed at the testis; includes LH and FSH; stimulate sperm development and the secretion of androgen
In the male the luteinizing hormone: is also called ICSH and stimulates the interstitial cells to secrete testosterone
Estrogen and progesterone: are secreted by the ovaries
The luteal phase of the ovarian cycle: is responsible for the uterine secretory phase
Menstruation occurs in response to: diminished plasma levels of estrogen and progesterone
The graafian follicle: is an ovarian structure
Trophoblasstic cells: assist with implantation
The morula: refers to the pre-embryonic cluster of cells
What is a placenta? Site at which the baby-to-be breathes, is vascular, replaces grandular secretion of the corpus luteum
The chorion is an extraembryonic membrane that: develops finger like projections that penetrate the uterine wall forming the placenta
The myometrium: is responsive to oxytocin and oxytocic drugs
Which of the following happens first: zygote formation; fertilization; ovulation; early blastocyst Ovulation
Prolactin and oxytocin: target the mammary glands
Colostrum (is the first milk your breasts produce during pregnancy) is: secreted by the mammary glands.
Bacteria are traditionally divided into the two groups namely: Gram-positive and gram-negative, based on their Gram stain retention
What is dandruff? The dead sloughed cells( stratum corneum) are called Dander. When Dander is clumped with oil secretion of the skull it is known as Dandruff.
Largest portion of the skin is... Dermis
Alopecia Hair loss
Description of nail They are thin plates of stratified squamous epithelial cells that contain a very hard form of keratin.
What is pustule? When blocked sebum become infected with staphylococci it is called a pimple or pustule
2 types of sweat glands are: Eccrine and appocrine.
Created by: Abraham321