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Patho Review 3


Acetylcholine, neurotransmitter in ___ ganglia, ___ ___ synapses, ___ junction autonomic, postganglionic parasympathetic, neuromuscular
Neutrotransmission; acetylcholine into synapse, degraded by __, __ taken back into __ membrane (re-synthesis), acetylcholine receptors at presynaptic membrane provide __ __ __ to monitor amount of AcTH in synapse, __ into muscle=depolarization of __ __ acetylcholinestrase, choline, presynaptic, negative feedback loop, sodium, postsynaptic membrane
common inhibitory central nervous system (CNS) neurotransmitters- ___ and ___ gylcine, GABA
30% of synapses are inhibitory and ___ is the principal neurotransmitter in these synapses GABA
barbiturates and benzodiazepines are thought to exert their depressive effects by increasing ___ activity GABA
bipolar neurons - have one dendrite, one axon extending from cell body (found mainly in ___, cochlea, ___ structures) retina, olfactory
unipolar neurons – have a single process protruding from cell body, splits to form dendrite and axon (found in ___ nerves) somatosensory
neurons secrete one principal neurotransmitter, excitatory - ___ target neuron, inhibitory - ___ of target neuron depolarizes, hyperpolarization
neuroglia or glial cells are protective and supportive structures of nervous tissue, neuroglia provides ___ and ___ protection to neurons; they are responsible for formation of ___ ___ and maintaining homeostasis inside neurons. nutrition, immune, myelin sheath
4 types of neuroglia oligodendrocytes, astrocytes, microglia, ependymal cells
oligodendrocytes form ___ in CNS and one cell may provide many segments of ___ ___ myelin, myelin sheaths
astrocytes have foot processes that contact brain capillaries and help maintain integrity of the ___ ___ ___ blood-brain barrier
microglia are derived from monocyte-macrophase cell type and provide ___ function within CNS phagocytic
ependymal cells line ventricles and central canal of spinal cord, producing ___ and maintaining ___ ___ ___ CSF, CSF-brain barrier
tough, fibrous connective tissue layer containing many blood vessels and nerves, functions as protective layer, surrounding brain and spinal cord dura mater
thin membrane containing many nerves and blood vessels, provides nourishment to underlying brain cells and spinal cord, attached directly to surface of brain and spinal cord pia mater
frontal lobe involved in ___, decision making, problem solving, ___ movement, planning
___ ___-lies behind central sulcus and frontal lobe parietal lobe
___ ___- lies below frontal and parietal lobes, separated by lateral sulcus temporal lobe
___ ___-posterior portion of each hemisphere separated from cerebellum by tentorium cerebelli occipital lobe
___ (island of Reil), found deep in lateral sulcus, separated from frontal, parietal, and temporal lobes by circular sulcus insula
function of parietal lobe sensation, perception, integrates sensory input (primarily with visual system), cognition
function of temporal lobe auditory perception, memory, speech, emotional responses
function of occipital lobe visual perception, color recognition
stages of sleep-stage ___; light sleep, drift in and out, can be awakened easily, eyes move slowly, muscle activity slows 1
stages of sleep-stage ___; eye movement stops, brain waves become slower with occasional bursts of rapid brain waves 2
stages of sleep-stage ___; extremely slow brain waves, delta waves, interspersed with smaller, faster waves 3
stages of sleep-stage ___; brain produces delta waves almost exclusively, referred to as deep sleep or delta sleep, very difficult to wake someone, no eye movement or muscle activity, children experience bedwetting, sleepwalking, night terrors 4
REM period of sleep, breathing becomes __, irregular, __, eyes jerk, limbs temporarily paralyzed, brain waves and heart rate increases, BP rises, males develop __, some loss of __ regulation, most dreams occur, if awoken person can remember dreams rapid, shallow, erections, temperature
most people experience ___ to ___ intervals of REM sleep each night, lasting 5-30 minutes three, five
REM interspersed at about ___ -minute intervals, lasting 5 to 30 minutes 90
PNS receives stimuli, CNS interprets, ___ ___ system initiates responses peripheral nervous
autonomic nervous system, mostly motor nerves, controls functions of ___ ___ muscles, ___ muscles, and ___ involuntary smooth, cardiac, glands
describe Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) most common scoring system used to describe LOC following traumatic brain injury, gauges severity of acute brain injury, used by trained staff at site of injury (car crash, sports injury, ED, ICU)
primary brain damage, damage complete at time of impact, may include skull fracture, contusions/bruises, hematomas/blood clots, lacerations, nerve damage
secondary brain damage, which is damage that evolves over time after trauma, may include edema, ICP, epilepsy, intracranial infection, fever, hematoma, low or high BP, low Na, anemia, too much or too little CO2, abnormal blood coagulation, cardiac changes, lung and nutritional changes
two types of hemorrhagic strokes are ___ or ___ hemorrhage intracerebral, subarachnoid
___ stroke occurs when weakened blood vessel ruptures usually caused by one of two types of weakened blood vessels - ___ or ___ ___ hemorrhagic, aneurysms, arteriovenous malformations (AVMs)
diagnosis of cerebral aneurysm requires a ___ or ___ to confirm ___ ___ CT, MRI, subarachnoid hemorrhage
If CT scan or MRI is negative when trying to diagnose cerebral aneurysm, but suspicion is high, perform lumbar puncture for CSF analysis (blood in CSF is indicative of a ___ ___) subarachnoid hemorrhage
brain abscess (bacterial)-localized collection of pus within brain parenchyma, pyogenic pathogens reach brain by penetrating ___, direct extension or ___ ___, or ___-___ ___ formed from distant infected site wounds, retrograde thrombophlebitis, blood-borne dissemination
generalized seizures affect both cerebral hemispheres from beginning of seizure, produce loss of consciousness, either briefly or for a longer period of time, sub-categorized into several major types;___ ___ ___, ___, ___, ___ generalized tonic clonic, myoclonic; absence, atonic
phase of seizure, limb stiffening tonic
phase of seizure with jerking limbs and face clonic
generalized tonic clonic seizures AKA grand mal seizures
most common, well-known type of generalized seizure, begins with tonic phase, followed by clonic phase grand mal
___ seizures-rapid, brief muscle contractions, occur at same time on both sides of body, occasionally involves one arm or foot, sudden jerks, first aid usually not needed, however, after first time, receive thorough medical evaluation myoclonic
spinal shock after trauma complete loss of function below level of injury, can occur with incomplete injuries to spinal cord, causing injury to appear more severe, lasts from few hours to few weeks
symptoms of spinal shock include flaccid paralysis of all skeletal muscles, loss of all spinal reflexes, loss of pain, proprioception, bowel & bladder dysfunction with paralytic ileus, loss of thermoregulation
excessive accumulation of endolymph in membranous labyrinth; ___ disease Meniere's
Meniere disease-neural end organs of ___ degenerate cochlea
5 causative agents of Meniere's disease allergies, viral & bacterial infections (e.g. syphilis), head trauma, metabolic derangements, chronic stress
type of refractive error of eye, causes blurred vision, most common reason to see an eye professional astigmatism
TRANSDUCTION-pain begins in periphery when free nerve ending ___ are stimulated nociceptors
TRANSMISSION-stimulated ___ transmit impulses to CNS via specialized sensory fibers nociceptors
PERCEPTION awareness of interpretation of meaning of sensation, is influenced by attention, distraction, anxiety, fear, fatigue, previous experiences and expectations
___ - attempts to decrease perception of painful stimuli MODULATION
explain acute pain results from tissue injury and resolves when injury heals, usually less than 3 months
explain chronic pain lasts more than several months beyond expected healing time (6+ months), not usually associated with S&S of sympathetic activity, body becomes “accustomed” to pain, nervous system desensitizes itself to noxious input, symptoms often psychological
___ pathways come down from brain and ___ pathways go up to brain motor, senory
___ nerves enter into dorsal roots of "H”, while ___ neurons exit ventral roots of "H." ___ often connect these two types of neurons. sensory, motor, interneurons
connection of sensory neurons, via interneurons, to motor neurons - this is known as a reflex
___ ___ glaucoma has an insidious onset, no symptoms in early stages open-angle, intraocular pressure consistently elevated, over a period of months/years, gradual loss of vision in periphery-tunnel vision
closed-angle glaucoma is AKA narrow-angle glaucoma
___ ___ glaucoma is caused by abnormality of angle between pupil and lateral cornea narrow-angle
narrow-angle glaucoma-angle narrow, blocks outflow of ___ ___ when pupil dilated, less common than open-angle aqueous humor
narrow-angle glaucoma is more prevalent in ___, ___, ___ elderly, hyperopes, Asians
narrow-angle glaucoma has rapid onset and treated as an emergency, forward displacement of iris toward corner with dilatation narrows or closes chamber angle, obstructing outflow of ___ ___ aqueous humor
___ seizures produce an abrupt loss of muscle tone atonic
3 names for atonic seizures drop attacks, astatic, akinetic seizures
atonic seizures produce head drops, loss of posture, sudden collapse, tend to be resistant to ___ ___ drug therapy
absence seizures are AKA petit mal seizures
___ seizures are lapses of awareness, with staring, begin/end abruptly, last only a few seconds absence
no warnings and no after-effects in ___ seizures abence
absence seizures are more common in ___ than in ___, frequently so brief they escape detection, even if experiencing 50 to 100 attacks daily children, adults
___ ___ - clusters of quick, sudden movements, start between 3 months and two years infantile spasms
___ seizures; electrical disturbance limited to specific area of one cerebral hemisphere partial
___ seizures are most common type of seizure experienced by people with epilepsy partial
___ ___ is a life-threatening condition in which brain is in a state of persistent seizure status epilepticus
pathophysiologic changes associated with Alzheimer disease include ___ ___ tangles and extracellular ___ (senile) plaques intracellular neurofibrillary, amyloid
diagnosis of Alzheimer’s: CBC, chemistry panel, Vitamin ___ levels, ___ serology, ___ function, Lyme serology , heavy metal assays, ___ rate B12 levels, syphilis, thyroid, sedimentation
Parkinson's results from degeneration of pigmented dopaminergic neurons found in ___ ___ and to neurons elsewhere in brain. Eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions known as ___ ___ may be found in surviving neurons. substantia nigra, Lewy bodies
TRAP (Parkinson's) Tremor at rest Rigidity Akinesia Postural istability
water-soluble hormones (some are protein-bound) cannot pass plasma membrane, they must.... bind to receptors on target cell's membrane
Lipid-soluble hormones require ___ ___ (globulin) to convey through circulation, these are made by the liver. At target cell, hormone detaches from protein, diffuses through biophosphate lipid layer of cell membrane to activate transport proteins
The PNS includes ___ PAIRS of spinal nerves and ___ PAIRS of cranial nerves. 31, 12
The epidural space lies between the ___ ___ and the dura mater. arachnoid mater
CSF circulates in the ___ space. subarachnoid
The sympathetic nerves originate in the spinal cord segments ___ to ___. T1-L2
There are two sets of basal ganglia, one in each ___ ___. cerebral hemisphere
The primary motor cortex is located in the ___ lobe. frontal
Glutamate functions as an ___ neurotransmitter in the CNS. excitatory
___ cells form myelin in CNS, ___ cells form myelin in PNS oligodendroglial, Schwann
primary meaning of clearing amine neurotransmitters from synapse is by active ___ into ___ neurons reuptake, presynaptic
The ____ acts as a processor and relay center for both afferent and efferent signals between cerebral cortex and brainstem. thalamus
metabotropic/ionotropic receptor: 5-HT(3) ionotropic
metabotropic/ionotropic receptor: a-, B-adrenergic metabotropic
metabotropic/ionotropic receptor: 5-HT(1), 5-HT(2) metabotropic
metabotropic/ionotropic receptor: GABA(a) ionotropic
metabotropic/ionotropic receptor: nicotinic acetylcholine ionotropic
metabotropic/ionotropic receptor:muscarinic acetylcholine metabotropic
inhibitory/excitatory: Na+ channel opening excitatory
inhibitory/excitatory: K+ channel opening inhibitory
inhibitory/excitatory: Ca++ channel opening excitatory
inhibitory/excitatory: Cl- channel opening inhibitory
transmit axial motor control: ___ tract extrapyramidal
cells that produce CSF: ___ cells ependymal
transmits fine-motor control ___ tract corticospinal
transmits fine touch, proprioception: ___ column, ___ ___ tract dorsal, medial lemniscal
transmits pain, itch, temp: ___ tract anterolateral (spinothalamic)
relay center of the brain: ___ thalamus
help maintain blood brain barrier: ___ astrocytes
macrophages of brain microglia
structures that plan motor programs: ___ ___ basal ganglia
neurons principally communicate through ___ ___ chemical synapses
NTM class of amines includes ___, ___, and ___. Does not include ___. serotonin, norepinephrine, dopamine; ACh
GABA is always an ___ neurotransmitter. inhibitory
inhibitory NTMs produce inhibitory postsynaptic potentials by opening ___ or ___ channels chloride, potassium
touch receptors and proprioceptors on the left side of the body travel up the ___ spinal cord in the ___ column ipsilateral; dorsal
primary somatosensory and primary cortices are ___ organized somatotopically
motor neurons from the corticospinal tract decussate at the ___ ___ medullary pyramids
principle role of cerebellum in motor activity is to improve match between intended and actual movement
deep tendon reflexes are tests of the ___ ___ reflex monosynaptic stretch
action potentials are usually generated at initial segment of a neuron because threshold is ___ due to increased density of fast ___ channels. low; Na+
N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor is a ___ ion channel that binds to NTM ___ , but will not open unless membrane is partially depolarized since in polarized state a ___ ion normally blocks the channel. Ca, glutamate; Mg
glial cells perform many supportive functions in nervous system, but they do not have voltage gated ion channels and therefore cannot generate ____ ____. action potentials
six general classes of NTMs: ACh, amine, amino acid, neuropeptide, nucleotide, gases
Sx suggestive of TIA are expected to resolve within ___ hours after onset 24
polar primary injury in traumatic brain injury results n damage to opposite sides of brain due to ___ ___ movement within rigid skull. acceleration-deceleration
Damage to the Broca are of the brain, most commonly ass’d with a left-sided stroke, will result in a pt’s having difficulty with ___. speech
although rarely diagnosis in the pediatric population, arteriovenous malformations are vascular abnormalities believed to have a ___ cause. congenital
an etiologic difference between meningitis and encephalitis is that meningitis is usually due to a ___ infection, while encephalitis is typically due to a ___ infection. bacterial, viral
Many of brain’s intracellular enzyme systems are affected by ___ which accumulates excessively following acute injury and is significant to brain cell damage. calcium
The damage produced by the infusion of inflammatory cells and development of oxygen free radicals into area previously ischemic is called ______ _____. reperfusion injury
___ edema develops when cell membrane pumps are unable to prevent an increase in cellular volume, and ___ edema occurs with changes within blood vessels. cytotoxic; vasogenic
critical event in determining whether injured neuronal cell will die is ___ calcium overload. intracellular
hyperventilation to reduce PaCO2 is likely to produce ___ ___. cerebral vasoconstriction
brain’s normal response to increase in metabolism or decrease in arterial perfusion pressure is to ___. vasodilate
decrease in size of cerebral ventricles on CT scan is indicative of ___-___ ___. ICP
earliest indicator of compromised neurologic functioning is usually a change in ___ ___ ___. LOC
Glasgow Coma Scale has three measure of coma that include eye-opening, ___, and ___ response. verbal, motor
What response would indicate the worst neurologic status assumes decorticate posture
characteristics of epidural hematoma include ____ ___ immediately after injury followed by rapid decline in ____. lucid interval; LOC
the pt most at risk for CNS infection following trauma is one with a ___ ____ ___ after falling of a ladder. basal skull fracture
the most common stroke thrombosis
pts who experience TIAs are increased risk for ____ stroke thrombotic
what is a significant risk factor for the development of embolic stroke atrial fib
typical manifestations of a stroke on the right side of the brain include loss of vision in the left visual field
subarachnoid hemorrhage is most commonly a consequence of cerebral aneurysm rupture
a pt with a headache, stiff neck, fever and elevated CSF WBCs count most likely has meningitis
Clinical manifestations of a seizure are not dependent on their ___ age
seizures are classified as general when they involve both ___ of brain hemispheres
status epileptics is of greatest concern in pt with tonic-clonic seizures because ___ ceases until end of clonic phase. respiration
patient w/dementia and brain atrophy on CT scan or MRI, likely to have ___ ___ ___. Alzheimer type dementia
Alzheimer disease is ass’d w/ a deficiency of brain ___ ACh
Parkinson’s disease is ass’d with a deficiency of basal ganglia ___ dopamine
3 medications appropriate to manage Sx of Parkinson’s disease dopamine precursor (L-dopa), ACh antagonist, MAOI inhibitors
Type of medication not used to treat Parkinson’s: ___ ___ ___ dopamine receptor antagonist
clinical manifestations of cerebellar disorders include ____, ___ ___, and ___. ataxia, intention tremor, clumsiness
patient who experiences lower extremity weakness but has normal or increased deep tendon reflexes is likely to have ___ ___. MS
a congenital anomaly of the spinal cord in which the spinal nerves and meninges protrude from the back is termed myelomeningocele
major risk factors for development of alzheimer disease are age and ___ ___. family Hx
cerebral palsy is primarily a disorder of ___ function motor
ALS affects upper and lower ____ neurons, and is a ___ degenerative disease. motor, progressive
both MS and Guillain-Barre syndrome are demyelinating disease that differ in that Guillain-Barre syndrome only involves lower ___ neurons motor
Bell palsy is mostly due to ___ infection viral
Myasthenia Gravis, “grave weakness”, worsens with activity due to insufficient activity of ___ in myoneural synapse. ACh
Intention tremor - indicative of dysfunction of ___, tremor at rest is indicative of ____ ____ ____. cerebullum; Parkinson's disease syndrome
Autonomic dysreflexia is a complication of spinal cord injury that occurs when ___ is inappropriately activated below level of injury, resulting in dangerously elevated ___ ___. SNS; blood pressure
In normal pressure hydrocephalus, ___ of CSF increases w/o change in ICP because there is a ___ in brain parenchyma. volume; decrease
Demyelination of nerve axons in MS is due to inappropriate activation of ___ system. immune
EAR – movement of round window causes movement of ___ perilymph
SNS stimulates pupil ___ dilation
Pathological lesion of external and middle ear cause what disorder: ___ ___ ___ conductive hearing disorders
Middle ear bone ossification is an example of a ___ ___ conductive abnormality
Otitis media occurs in children with ___ ___ dysfunction eustachian tube
Irregular curvature of cornea or lens: ___ astigmatism
Patients at high risk for vascular retinopathy have what disease: ___ ___ diabetes mellitus
Symptom of closed angle glaucoma, not seen in open angle glaucoma: ___ ___ eye pain
Patient with malfunction of olfactory function without underlying cause should be evaluated for ___ ___ brain tumor
Most ototoxic drugs affect cochlea ___ ___ hair cells
Name 2 diseases associated with retinopathy HTN, DM
Patients over 50, type of retinopathy most often seen: ___ spontaneous
Most common cause of decreased vision in children: ___ amblyopia
Elongated eyeball, image focused in front of retina, nearsighted: ___ myopia
Shorter eye resulting in image focusing behind retina, farsighted: ___ hyperopia
Eye’s loss of ability to accommodate: ___ presbyopia
How to treat cataracts, surgically remove __ lens
Irreversible loss of vision in elderly: age-related ___ ___ macular degeneration
free nerve endings for pain: ___ nociceptors
transmit fast pain sensation mylienated a delta fibers
pain due to nerve damage neuropathic
glutamate is implicated in which, acute or chronic pain chromic
gate control theory is involved in __ modulation pain
location of pain nerve cell bodies dorsal route
transmit slow pain sensation unmylienated c fibers
two endogenous opioids modulate pain endorphins, enkephalins
visceral structure pain is often felt in the same dermatome
neuropathic pain is thought to result from altered central processing of neuropathic input
name 3 chemical mediators of pain histamine, prostaglandins, lactate
nociceptors are found everywhere in the body except brain
opiod drugs interfere with pain perception in ___, NSADI’s and local anesthetics affects nociceptors __ brain peripherally
chronic pain is more psychological than physiologic, T/F? true
nociception, 4 processes stimulus transduction, signal transmission, pain perception, pain modulation
name the disorder: excessive dopamine receptor activity schizophrenia
dysthymia is also called minor depression
1+ episode of mania, major depression bipolar I
no mania, 1+ hypomania, major depression biploar II
name the disorder: deficit of glutamate activity at NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptors schizophrenia
absence of pleasure or interest anhedonia
schizophrenia is normally diagnosed at what stage of life young adulthood
3 causes of schizophrenia genetics, traumatic childhood, viral infection in 2nd trimester
3 positive schizophrenia symptoms hallucinations, delusions, disorganized thinking
3 negative symptoms of schizophrenia social isolation, repetitive behavior, flat affect
abnormalities of emotion are called affective disorders
major depression is associated with abnormal regulation of what three neurotranmitters dopamine, serotonin, norepinephrine
mania: excess of what ntm norepinephrine
3 drug classes used to manage depression SSRI (Zoloft), MAOI (Nardil), norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (tricyclic antidepressants) (Tofranil)
mania, name 4 characteristics increased sex drive, grandiosity, increased appetite, poor impulse control
how does Lithium treat mania inhibits norepinephrine and serotonin activity
tardive dyskinesia and Parkinson's disease are classified as ___ disorders movement
causes of both tardive dyskinesia and Parkinson's disease are related to what neurotransmitter dopamine
tardive dyskinesia and Parkinson's disease may be congenital (although this is exceedingly rare in the case of tardive dyskinesia), or the result of side-effects from a medication
tardive dyskinesia patients have great difficulty ___, whereas those with Parkinson's disease have a great deal of difficulty __ staying still, moving at all
symptoms of psychosis include thought and mood disorders, substance abuse, dementia, Alzheimer’s, but not __ disorders anxiety
anxiety is a non-psychotic mental disorder, true or false? true
PET scans of schizophrenic patients reveal diminished glucose metabolism in what area of the brain frontal cortex
panic disorder is characterized with what two types of anxiety anticipatory and avoidance
Sx of generalized anxiety disorder that is significant and pervasive chronic worry
co morbid conditions ass’d w/ OCD depression, anorexia, Tourette’s
agoraphobia rare presentation of generalized anxiety disorder
severe anorexia r/t hypokalemia results in death by cardiac arrhythmias
what characteristic distinctly separates panic disorder vs all anxiety disorders physiological instability
general anxiety disorder has a ____ onset and lasts ____ gradual, years
(2) Types of drugs to Tx anxiety disorders benzos, antidepressants
4 common psychotic illnesses’ schizophrenia, major depression, delusional disorder, bipolar
nonpsychotic mental illnesses (7) panic, generalized anxiety, OCD, borderline personality, antisocial personality, anorexia, bulimia
instability in mood, behavior, relationships, impulse aggression, derealization, self-harm, suicidal ideation, manipulation are characteristics of borderline personality disorder
no guilt, no morals, no ethical values are characteristics of what disorder antisocial disorder
first occurrence of panic disorder usually occurs in what stage of life young adulthood
Dx of general anxiety disorder include dysphoria, uncontrollable worry, impaired concentration, NOT HYPOACTIVITY
is a genetic predisposition common to all anxiety disorders yes!!!
3 Cluster A personality disorders include paranoid, schizoids, schizotypal
development of borderline personality disorder is often proceeded by abuse
antisocial personality disorder often appears appealing to other T/F true
found at center of osteons, blood vessels and nerves located here Haversian canals
law of bone stresses, determines deposition, resorption Wolff’s
stage of fracture, callous replaced by cancellous/trabecular bone is ossification
2 classes of movable joints diarthrodial and synovial
structures btw tibia and femur that increase weight bearing capacity meniscus
contractile proteins in striated muscle actin and myosin
ion required for muscle contraction calcium
muscle contraction, no mvmt occurs isometric
group of skeletal muscles innervated by one motor neuron motor unit
energy storage source for muscle contraction creatine phosphate
protein found in tendons and ligaments elastin
immediate source of energy for muscle contraction adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
3 hormones influencing bone growth GH, thyroid hormone, sex hormones
2 primary minerals found in bone calcium and phosphate
calcium released faster than removed causes ____ contraction sustained
motor units have ____ receptors for Ach nicotinic
O2 is necessary for ATP production (contract/relax) and removal of lactic acid
sarcolemma/increased conduction velocity, result of increased ____ temp
shortening contraction resulting in mvmt is called consentric contraction
lengthening contraction is called eccentric contraction
myosin head binding with actin bead forms cross bridge
T/F- all forms of muscular dystrophy are cause by genetics T
T/F- crushing injury producing multiple bone fragments is a comminuted fracture T
T/F- partial separation of articulating bone surfaces within a joint is called a dislocation F (subluxation)
T/F- scoliosis can be detected by uneven alignment of shoulders or hips T
T/F- soft tissue injuries heal quicker than fractures F
T/F- osteomyelitis most often due to infection by Staph A T
T/F- subluxation and dislocation result from damage to supportive soft tissue T
T/F- mult fragments of bone is a compound fracture F (comminuted)
T/F- hyperkalemia and pathologic fractures can result from bone demineralization in multiple myeloma (cancer of plasma cells, in bone marrow) T (Kahlers disease)
Duchenne muscular dystrophy affects only infants and children of which sex male
myasthenic crisis is an acute exacerbation of myasthenia gravis
cholinergic crisis is usually a result of too much anticholinesterase
when contractile tissues are ____ ____ it causes pain actively contracted
if a muscle strain results in the tearing of a significant amount of muscle, but a portion is still attached, it is a grade ____ strain 2
injury to the anterior or posterior cruciate ligaments results in altered function of the knee
a deficiency of Vitamin D produces ____ in children and _____ in adults Ricketts and osteomalacia
lligament injuries are classified by extent of tear
compartment syndrome is due to increased pressure between muscle’s ____ ____ fascial planes
a disease in older adults in which osteoclastic activity is followed by an exaggerated response by osteoblasts, resulting in enlargement of bone Paget’s disease
most common malignant bone tumor Ewing sarcoma
primary Sx of multiple myeloma is ___ pain bone
nerves in ___ are more sensitive to pain than anywhere else in body bones
major difference in injury between ligament and tendon, stretching of injured ___ will cause pain ligament
all muscular dystrophies have two things in common: progressive ___ and ___ of muscles weakness, degeneration
progressive autoimmune disease affecting voluntary muscle function: ___ ___ myasthenia gravis
fibromyalgia syndrome characterized by (3) chronic ___ ___, ___ and ___ muscle pain, stiffness, fatigue
complication, fracture hasn’t healed in four to six month nonunion
healing of fractures involves ___ formation and consolidation callus
T/F tumors originating in bone are less common than metastases from other sites T
T/F infectious arthritis typically involves mult joints at the same time F
T/F ankylosing spondylitis causes vertebral fussion T
T/F vascular scar tissue formed in RA, can erode joint tissues, cause contractures is called pannus T
T/F deer tick Spirochete causes Lyme disease T
T/F scleroderma manifestations all due to increased density of epidermal layer F (can be systemic)
T/F arthritis results in more disabilities than any other musculo/skeletal disease in US T
T/F polymyositis and dermatomyositis are due to infections of muscle tissue F (they are idiopathic inflammatory myopathy)
T/F infection of a prosthetic joint requires removal T
CREST is a syndrome ass’d with scleroderma which stands for calsinosis, Raynaud phenom., esophageal hardening, sclerodactyly, talangiectasis
causative organism of acute rheumatic fever: ___ ___ and ___ ___ ___ B hemolytic, group A strep
cause of fibro myalgia syndrome unknown
often found in systemic lupus erythematosus progressing to renal failure glomerulonephritis
infectious arthritis causative organism: ___ ___ Staph Au
ankylosing spondylitis primarily affects vertebra and ___ joints sacroiliac
Lyme disease initial Sx similar to ___ flu
arthritis manifestation in patients with IBD, referred to as enteropathic arthritis, ___ ___ and ___ ___ Ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease
what disease causes osteophyte spurs: ___ osteoarthritis
untreated septic/infectious arthritis may result in ___ of joint ankylosis
RA can affect joints and ___ tissues cardiac
Sx of SLE worsens with UV light: ___ ___ rash butterfly facial
adult that had acute rheumatic fever as a child may need what surgery performed: ___ ___ replacement mitral valve
scleroderma is a multi-system ___ disease inflammatory
ankylosing spondylitis can be genetic, can decrease respiratory depth and is ___ mediated. immune
neuropathic osteoarthopathy may develop secondary to ___ ___ DM
Reactive arthritis AKA: ___ ___ Reiter Syndrome
Reiter syndrome may follow a/an ___ in men STI
sebaceous glands stimulated by ___ hormones androgenic
piloerection is stimulated by which nervous system SNS
primary regulator of skin blood flow: ___ ___ body temperature
which nervous system stimulates sweating SNS
flat, non-palpable spot, up to 1cm: ___ macule
palpable circumscribed bump less than 0.5cm: ___ papule
raised, palpable bump, 0.5-2cm: ___ nodule
elevated, pink edematous lesion: ___ wheal
small blister up to 0.5cm: ___ vesicle
elevated lesion containing purulent exudate: ___ pustule
lichenification is identified as epidural ___, and ___ patches thickening, rough
T/F primary lesions retain original appearance, are unaffected by trauma or time true
T/F HPV can invade deep into body tissues false
T/F leprosy is highly infectious false, not highly infectious
T/F allergic contact dermatitis is a delayed acquired hypersensitivity reaction true
___ ___ presents as dandruff, cannot be cured but can be controlled seborrheic dermatitis
both topical and systemic ___ may be used for sunburns, depending on severity corticosteroids
dark-skinned people, petechiae may only be visible on the ___ ___, or ___ oral mucosa, conjunctiva
shingles caused by herpes ___, cold sores caused by herpes ___ varicella, simplex
ringworm is caused by a ___ fungus
impetigo caused by what organism: ___ staph
atopic dermatitis (eczema), cause: ___ reaction allergic
scabies, r/t dirty people, true or false? false
atopic dermatitis lesions, found in children, ___ areas flexor (knee, elbow)
worst Px skin cancer, Dx of ___ melanoma
vitiligo best describes ___ patch of skin depigmented
insulin injections, lipodystrophies, appear as smooth, large ___ depressions
excessive hair growth is called ___ Hirsuitism
spoon nails, deficiency of what: ___ iron
immunization not available for roseola, true or false? true
pemphigus are NOT highly ___ contagious
major burn, covers ___ % of adult body 25
burn shock, massive ___ leakage and volume deficit capillary
zone of burn injury, recovers within a week hyperemia
___ degree burns can result in dehydration in children or elders 1st
3 symptoms of CO2 poisoning headache, nausea, seizures
most common source of bacteria causing burn-wound infection patients own body
severe burns, focused nutritional support is on consumption of protein
greatest risk for infection following grafting burn wounds is the ___ day after surgery 3rd
pulse oximetry is inaccurate when a person is suffering from ___ poisoning CO2
management of pain during burn wound treatment, use of ___ benzodiadepines
hyper-metabolism following a burn, due to release or large amounts of ___ catecholamine
sweat glands become ___ after a burn wound heals hypersecretory
removal of necrotic burn tissue is called debriement
4th degree burns are often caused by electricity
edema resulting in airway obstruction not usually identified until 2-4 hours after a burn, true or false? true
CO2 poisoning, preferentially binds to ___ hemoglobin
ARF may occur in burns where damaged muscle releases ___ into bloodstream, producing ___ myoglobin, rhabdomyolysis
burned skin is called eschar
Created by: BrandiLynn