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Patho Review 3

Pathology

Question	Answer
Acetylcholine, neurotransmitter in ___ ganglia, ___ ___ synapses, ___ junction	autonomic, postganglionic parasympathetic, neuromuscular
Neutrotransmission; acetylcholine into synapse, degraded by __, __ taken back into __ membrane (re-synthesis), acetylcholine receptors at presynaptic membrane provide __ __ __ to monitor amount of AcTH in synapse, __ into muscle=depolarization of __ __	acetylcholinestrase, choline, presynaptic, negative feedback loop, sodium, postsynaptic membrane
common inhibitory central nervous system (CNS) neurotransmitters- ___ and ___	gylcine, GABA
30% of synapses are inhibitory and ___ is the principal neurotransmitter in these synapses	GABA
barbiturates and benzodiazepines are thought to exert their depressive effects by increasing ___ activity	GABA
bipolar neurons - have one dendrite, one axon extending from cell body (found mainly in ___, cochlea, ___ structures)	retina, olfactory
unipolar neurons – have a single process protruding from cell body, splits to form dendrite and axon (found in ___ nerves)	somatosensory
neurons secrete one principal neurotransmitter, excitatory - ___ target neuron, inhibitory - ___ of target neuron	depolarizes, hyperpolarization
neuroglia or glial cells are protective and supportive structures of nervous tissue, neuroglia provides ___ and ___ protection to neurons; they are responsible for formation of ___ ___ and maintaining homeostasis inside neurons.	nutrition, immune, myelin sheath
4 types of neuroglia	oligodendrocytes, astrocytes, microglia, ependymal cells
oligodendrocytes form ___ in CNS and one cell may provide many segments of ___ ___	myelin, myelin sheaths
astrocytes have foot processes that contact brain capillaries and help maintain integrity of the ___ ___ ___	blood-brain barrier
microglia are derived from monocyte-macrophase cell type and provide ___ function within CNS	phagocytic
ependymal cells line ventricles and central canal of spinal cord, producing ___ and maintaining ___ ___ ___	CSF, CSF-brain barrier
tough, fibrous connective tissue layer containing many blood vessels and nerves, functions as protective layer, surrounding brain and spinal cord	dura mater
thin membrane containing many nerves and blood vessels, provides nourishment to underlying brain cells and spinal cord, attached directly to surface of brain and spinal cord	pia mater
frontal lobe involved in ___, decision making, problem solving, ___	movement, planning
___ ___-lies behind central sulcus and frontal lobe	parietal lobe
___ ___- lies below frontal and parietal lobes, separated by lateral sulcus	temporal lobe
___ ___-posterior portion of each hemisphere separated from cerebellum by tentorium cerebelli	occipital lobe
___ (island of Reil), found deep in lateral sulcus, separated from frontal, parietal, and temporal lobes by circular sulcus	insula
function of parietal lobe	sensation, perception, integrates sensory input (primarily with visual system), cognition
function of temporal lobe	auditory perception, memory, speech, emotional responses
function of occipital lobe	visual perception, color recognition
stages of sleep-stage ___; light sleep, drift in and out, can be awakened easily, eyes move slowly, muscle activity slows	1
stages of sleep-stage ___; eye movement stops, brain waves become slower with occasional bursts of rapid brain waves	2
stages of sleep-stage ___; extremely slow brain waves, delta waves, interspersed with smaller, faster waves	3
stages of sleep-stage ___; brain produces delta waves almost exclusively, referred to as deep sleep or delta sleep, very difficult to wake someone, no eye movement or muscle activity, children experience bedwetting, sleepwalking, night terrors	4
REM period of sleep, breathing becomes __, irregular, __, eyes jerk, limbs temporarily paralyzed, brain waves and heart rate increases, BP rises, males develop __, some loss of __ regulation, most dreams occur, if awoken person can remember dreams	rapid, shallow, erections, temperature
most people experience ___ to ___ intervals of REM sleep each night, lasting 5-30 minutes	three, five
REM interspersed at about ___ -minute intervals, lasting 5 to 30 minutes	90
PNS receives stimuli, CNS interprets, ___ ___ system initiates responses	peripheral nervous
autonomic nervous system, mostly motor nerves, controls functions of ___ ___ muscles, ___ muscles, and ___	involuntary smooth, cardiac, glands
describe Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)	most common scoring system used to describe LOC following traumatic brain injury, gauges severity of acute brain injury, used by trained staff at site of injury (car crash, sports injury, ED, ICU)
primary brain damage, damage complete at time of impact, may include	skull fracture, contusions/bruises, hematomas/blood clots, lacerations, nerve damage
secondary brain damage, which is damage that evolves over time after trauma, may include	edema, ICP, epilepsy, intracranial infection, fever, hematoma, low or high BP, low Na, anemia, too much or too little CO2, abnormal blood coagulation, cardiac changes, lung and nutritional changes
two types of hemorrhagic strokes are ___ or ___ hemorrhage	intracerebral, subarachnoid
___ stroke occurs when weakened blood vessel ruptures usually caused by one of two types of weakened blood vessels - ___ or ___ ___	hemorrhagic, aneurysms, arteriovenous malformations (AVMs)
diagnosis of cerebral aneurysm requires a ___ or ___ to confirm ___ ___	CT, MRI, subarachnoid hemorrhage
If CT scan or MRI is negative when trying to diagnose cerebral aneurysm, but suspicion is high, perform lumbar puncture for CSF analysis (blood in CSF is indicative of a ___ ___)	subarachnoid hemorrhage
brain abscess (bacterial)-localized collection of pus within brain parenchyma, pyogenic pathogens reach brain by penetrating ___, direct extension or ___ ___, or ___-___ ___ formed from distant infected site	wounds, retrograde thrombophlebitis, blood-borne dissemination
generalized seizures affect both cerebral hemispheres from beginning of seizure, produce loss of consciousness, either briefly or for a longer period of time, sub-categorized into several major types;___ ___ ___, ___, ___, ___	generalized tonic clonic, myoclonic; absence, atonic
phase of seizure, limb stiffening	tonic
phase of seizure with jerking limbs and face	clonic
generalized tonic clonic seizures AKA	grand mal seizures
most common, well-known type of generalized seizure, begins with tonic phase, followed by clonic phase	grand mal
___ seizures-rapid, brief muscle contractions, occur at same time on both sides of body, occasionally involves one arm or foot, sudden jerks, first aid usually not needed, however, after first time, receive thorough medical evaluation	myoclonic
spinal shock after trauma	complete loss of function below level of injury, can occur with incomplete injuries to spinal cord, causing injury to appear more severe, lasts from few hours to few weeks
symptoms of spinal shock include	flaccid paralysis of all skeletal muscles, loss of all spinal reflexes, loss of pain, proprioception, bowel & bladder dysfunction with paralytic ileus, loss of thermoregulation
excessive accumulation of endolymph in membranous labyrinth; ___ disease	Meniere's
Meniere disease-neural end organs of ___ degenerate	cochlea
5 causative agents of Meniere's disease	allergies, viral & bacterial infections (e.g. syphilis), head trauma, metabolic derangements, chronic stress
type of refractive error of eye, causes blurred vision, most common reason to see an eye professional	astigmatism
TRANSDUCTION-pain begins in periphery when free nerve ending ___ are stimulated	nociceptors
TRANSMISSION-stimulated ___ transmit impulses to CNS via specialized sensory fibers	nociceptors
PERCEPTION	awareness of interpretation of meaning of sensation, is influenced by attention, distraction, anxiety, fear, fatigue, previous experiences and expectations
___ - attempts to decrease perception of painful stimuli	MODULATION
explain acute pain	results from tissue injury and resolves when injury heals, usually less than 3 months
explain chronic pain	lasts more than several months beyond expected healing time (6+ months), not usually associated with S&S of sympathetic activity, body becomes “accustomed” to pain, nervous system desensitizes itself to noxious input, symptoms often psychological
___ pathways come down from brain and ___ pathways go up to brain	motor, senory
___ nerves enter into dorsal roots of "H”, while ___ neurons exit ventral roots of "H." ___ often connect these two types of neurons.	sensory, motor, interneurons
connection of sensory neurons, via interneurons, to motor neurons - this is known as a	reflex
___ ___ glaucoma has an insidious onset, no symptoms in early stages	open-angle, intraocular pressure consistently elevated, over a period of months/years, gradual loss of vision in periphery-tunnel vision
closed-angle glaucoma is AKA	narrow-angle glaucoma
___ ___ glaucoma is caused by abnormality of angle between pupil and lateral cornea	narrow-angle
narrow-angle glaucoma-angle narrow, blocks outflow of ___ ___ when pupil dilated, less common than open-angle	aqueous humor
narrow-angle glaucoma is more prevalent in ___, ___, ___	elderly, hyperopes, Asians
narrow-angle glaucoma has rapid onset and treated as an emergency, forward displacement of iris toward corner with dilatation narrows or closes chamber angle, obstructing outflow of ___ ___	aqueous humor
___ seizures produce an abrupt loss of muscle tone	atonic
3 names for atonic seizures	drop attacks, astatic, akinetic seizures
atonic seizures produce head drops, loss of posture, sudden collapse, tend to be resistant to ___ ___	drug therapy
absence seizures are AKA	petit mal seizures
___ seizures are lapses of awareness, with staring, begin/end abruptly, last only a few seconds	absence
no warnings and no after-effects in ___ seizures	abence
absence seizures are more common in ___ than in ___, frequently so brief they escape detection, even if experiencing 50 to 100 attacks daily	children, adults
___ ___ - clusters of quick, sudden movements, start between 3 months and two years	infantile spasms
___ seizures; electrical disturbance limited to specific area of one cerebral hemisphere	partial
___ seizures are most common type of seizure experienced by people with epilepsy	partial
___ ___ is a life-threatening condition in which brain is in a state of persistent seizure	status epilepticus
pathophysiologic changes associated with Alzheimer disease include ___ ___ tangles and extracellular ___ (senile) plaques	intracellular neurofibrillary, amyloid
diagnosis of Alzheimer’s: CBC, chemistry panel, Vitamin ___ levels, ___ serology, ___ function, Lyme serology , heavy metal assays, ___ rate	B12 levels, syphilis, thyroid, sedimentation
Parkinson's results from degeneration of pigmented dopaminergic neurons found in ___ ___ and to neurons elsewhere in brain. Eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions known as ___ ___ may be found in surviving neurons.	substantia nigra, Lewy bodies
TRAP (Parkinson's)	Tremor at rest Rigidity Akinesia Postural istability
water-soluble hormones (some are protein-bound) cannot pass plasma membrane, they must....	bind to receptors on target cell's membrane
Lipid-soluble hormones require ___ ___ (globulin) to convey through circulation, these are made by the liver. At target cell, hormone detaches from protein, diffuses through biophosphate lipid layer of cell membrane to activate	transport proteins
The PNS includes ___ PAIRS of spinal nerves and ___ PAIRS of cranial nerves.	31, 12
The epidural space lies between the ___ ___ and the dura mater.	arachnoid mater
CSF circulates in the ___ space.	subarachnoid
The sympathetic nerves originate in the spinal cord segments ___ to ___.	T1-L2
There are two sets of basal ganglia, one in each ___ ___.	cerebral hemisphere
The primary motor cortex is located in the ___ lobe.	frontal
Glutamate functions as an ___ neurotransmitter in the CNS.	excitatory
___ cells form myelin in CNS, ___ cells form myelin in PNS	oligodendroglial, Schwann
primary meaning of clearing amine neurotransmitters from synapse is by active ___ into ___ neurons	reuptake, presynaptic
The ____ acts as a processor and relay center for both afferent and efferent signals between cerebral cortex and brainstem.	thalamus
metabotropic/ionotropic receptor: 5-HT(3)	ionotropic
metabotropic/ionotropic receptor: a-, B-adrenergic	metabotropic
metabotropic/ionotropic receptor: 5-HT(1), 5-HT(2)	metabotropic
metabotropic/ionotropic receptor: GABA(a)	ionotropic
metabotropic/ionotropic receptor: nicotinic acetylcholine	ionotropic
metabotropic/ionotropic receptor:muscarinic acetylcholine	metabotropic
inhibitory/excitatory: Na+ channel opening	excitatory
inhibitory/excitatory: K+ channel opening	inhibitory
inhibitory/excitatory: Ca++ channel opening	excitatory
inhibitory/excitatory: Cl- channel opening	inhibitory
transmit axial motor control: ___ tract	extrapyramidal
cells that produce CSF: ___ cells	ependymal
transmits fine-motor control ___ tract	corticospinal
transmits fine touch, proprioception: ___ column, ___ ___ tract	dorsal, medial lemniscal
transmits pain, itch, temp: ___ tract	anterolateral (spinothalamic)
relay center of the brain: ___	thalamus
help maintain blood brain barrier: ___	astrocytes
macrophages of brain	microglia
structures that plan motor programs: ___ ___	basal ganglia
neurons principally communicate through ___ ___	chemical synapses
NTM class of amines includes ___, ___, and ___. Does not include ___.	serotonin, norepinephrine, dopamine; ACh
GABA is always an ___ neurotransmitter.	inhibitory
inhibitory NTMs produce inhibitory postsynaptic potentials by opening ___ or ___ channels	chloride, potassium
touch receptors and proprioceptors on the left side of the body travel up the ___ spinal cord in the ___ column	ipsilateral; dorsal
primary somatosensory and primary cortices are ___ organized	somatotopically
motor neurons from the corticospinal tract decussate at the ___ ___	medullary pyramids
principle role of cerebellum in motor activity is to improve match between	intended and actual movement
deep tendon reflexes are tests of the ___ ___ reflex	monosynaptic stretch
action potentials are usually generated at initial segment of a neuron because threshold is ___ due to increased density of fast ___ channels.	low; Na+
N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor is a ___ ion channel that binds to NTM ___ , but will not open unless membrane is partially depolarized since in polarized state a ___ ion normally blocks the channel.	Ca, glutamate; Mg
glial cells perform many supportive functions in nervous system, but they do not have voltage gated ion channels and therefore cannot generate ____ ____.	action potentials
six general classes of NTMs:	ACh, amine, amino acid, neuropeptide, nucleotide, gases
Sx suggestive of TIA are expected to resolve within ___ hours after onset	24
polar primary injury in traumatic brain injury results n damage to opposite sides of brain due to ___ ___ movement within rigid skull.	acceleration-deceleration
Damage to the Broca are of the brain, most commonly ass’d with a left-sided stroke, will result in a pt’s having difficulty with ___.	speech
although rarely diagnosis in the pediatric population, arteriovenous malformations are vascular abnormalities believed to have a ___ cause.	congenital
an etiologic difference between meningitis and encephalitis is that meningitis is usually due to a ___ infection, while encephalitis is typically due to a ___ infection.	bacterial, viral
Many of brain’s intracellular enzyme systems are affected by ___ which accumulates excessively following acute injury and is significant to brain cell damage.	calcium
The damage produced by the infusion of inflammatory cells and development of oxygen free radicals into area previously ischemic is called ______ _____.	reperfusion injury
___ edema develops when cell membrane pumps are unable to prevent an increase in cellular volume, and ___ edema occurs with changes within blood vessels.	cytotoxic; vasogenic
critical event in determining whether injured neuronal cell will die is ___ calcium overload.	intracellular
hyperventilation to reduce PaCO2 is likely to produce ___ ___.	cerebral vasoconstriction
brain’s normal response to increase in metabolism or decrease in arterial perfusion pressure is to ___.	vasodilate
decrease in size of cerebral ventricles on CT scan is indicative of ___-___ ___.	ICP
earliest indicator of compromised neurologic functioning is usually a change in ___ ___ ___.	LOC
Glasgow Coma Scale has three measure of coma that include eye-opening, ___, and ___ response.	verbal, motor
What response would indicate the worst neurologic status	assumes decorticate posture
characteristics of epidural hematoma include ____ ___ immediately after injury followed by rapid decline in ____.	lucid interval; LOC
the pt most at risk for CNS infection following trauma is one with a ___ ____ ___ after falling of a ladder.	basal skull fracture
the most common stroke	thrombosis
pts who experience TIAs are increased risk for ____ stroke	thrombotic
what is a significant risk factor for the development of embolic stroke	atrial fib
typical manifestations of a stroke on the right side of the brain include	loss of vision in the left visual field
subarachnoid hemorrhage is most commonly a consequence of	cerebral aneurysm rupture
a pt with a headache, stiff neck, fever and elevated CSF WBCs count most likely has	meningitis
Clinical manifestations of a seizure are not dependent on their ___	age
seizures are classified as general when they involve both ___ of brain	hemispheres
status epileptics is of greatest concern in pt with tonic-clonic seizures because ___ ceases until end of clonic phase.	respiration
patient w/dementia and brain atrophy on CT scan or MRI, likely to have ___ ___ ___.	Alzheimer type dementia
Alzheimer disease is ass’d w/ a deficiency of brain ___	ACh
Parkinson’s disease is ass’d with a deficiency of basal ganglia ___	dopamine
3 medications appropriate to manage Sx of Parkinson’s disease	dopamine precursor (L-dopa), ACh antagonist, MAOI inhibitors
Type of medication not used to treat Parkinson’s: ___ ___ ___	dopamine receptor antagonist
clinical manifestations of cerebellar disorders include ____, ___ ___, and ___.	ataxia, intention tremor, clumsiness
patient who experiences lower extremity weakness but has normal or increased deep tendon reflexes is likely to have ___ ___.	MS
a congenital anomaly of the spinal cord in which the spinal nerves and meninges protrude from the back is termed	myelomeningocele
major risk factors for development of alzheimer disease are age and ___ ___.	family Hx
cerebral palsy is primarily a disorder of ___ function	motor
ALS affects upper and lower ____ neurons, and is a ___ degenerative disease.	motor, progressive
both MS and Guillain-Barre syndrome are demyelinating disease that differ in that Guillain-Barre syndrome only involves lower ___ neurons	motor
Bell palsy is mostly due to ___ infection	viral
Myasthenia Gravis, “grave weakness”, worsens with activity due to insufficient activity of ___ in myoneural synapse.	ACh
Intention tremor - indicative of dysfunction of ___, tremor at rest is indicative of ____ ____ ____.	cerebullum; Parkinson's disease syndrome
Autonomic dysreflexia is a complication of spinal cord injury that occurs when ___ is inappropriately activated below level of injury, resulting in dangerously elevated ___ ___.	SNS; blood pressure
In normal pressure hydrocephalus, ___ of CSF increases w/o change in ICP because there is a ___ in brain parenchyma.	volume; decrease
Demyelination of nerve axons in MS is due to inappropriate activation of ___ system.	immune
EAR – movement of round window causes movement of ___	perilymph
SNS stimulates pupil ___	dilation
Pathological lesion of external and middle ear cause what disorder: ___ ___ ___	conductive hearing disorders
Middle ear bone ossification is an example of a ___ ___	conductive abnormality
Otitis media occurs in children with ___ ___ dysfunction	eustachian tube
Irregular curvature of cornea or lens: ___	astigmatism
Patients at high risk for vascular retinopathy have what disease: ___ ___	diabetes mellitus
Symptom of closed angle glaucoma, not seen in open angle glaucoma: ___ ___	eye pain
Patient with malfunction of olfactory function without underlying cause should be evaluated for ___ ___	brain tumor
Most ototoxic drugs affect cochlea ___ ___	hair cells
Name 2 diseases associated with retinopathy	HTN, DM
Patients over 50, type of retinopathy most often seen: ___	spontaneous
Most common cause of decreased vision in children: ___	amblyopia
Elongated eyeball, image focused in front of retina, nearsighted: ___	myopia
Shorter eye resulting in image focusing behind retina, farsighted: ___	hyperopia
Eye’s loss of ability to accommodate: ___	presbyopia
How to treat cataracts, surgically remove __	lens
Irreversible loss of vision in elderly: age-related ___ ___	macular degeneration
free nerve endings for pain: ___	nociceptors
transmit fast pain sensation	mylienated a delta fibers
pain due to nerve damage	neuropathic
glutamate is implicated in which, acute or chronic pain	chromic
gate control theory is involved in __ modulation	pain
location of pain nerve cell bodies	dorsal route
transmit slow pain sensation	unmylienated c fibers
two endogenous opioids modulate pain	endorphins, enkephalins
visceral structure pain is often felt in the same	dermatome
neuropathic pain is thought to result from altered central processing of	neuropathic input
name 3 chemical mediators of pain	histamine, prostaglandins, lactate
nociceptors are found everywhere in the body except	brain
opiod drugs interfere with pain perception in ___, NSADI’s and local anesthetics affects nociceptors __	brain peripherally
chronic pain is more psychological than physiologic, T/F?	true
nociception, 4 processes	stimulus transduction, signal transmission, pain perception, pain modulation
name the disorder: excessive dopamine receptor activity	schizophrenia
dysthymia is also called	minor depression
1+ episode of mania, major depression	bipolar I
no mania, 1+ hypomania, major depression	biploar II
name the disorder: deficit of glutamate activity at NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptors	schizophrenia
absence of pleasure or interest	anhedonia
schizophrenia is normally diagnosed at what stage of life	young adulthood
3 causes of schizophrenia	genetics, traumatic childhood, viral infection in 2nd trimester
3 positive schizophrenia symptoms	hallucinations, delusions, disorganized thinking
3 negative symptoms of schizophrenia	social isolation, repetitive behavior, flat affect
abnormalities of emotion are called	affective disorders
major depression is associated with abnormal regulation of what three neurotranmitters	dopamine, serotonin, norepinephrine
mania: excess of what ntm	norepinephrine
3 drug classes used to manage depression	SSRI (Zoloft), MAOI (Nardil), norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (tricyclic antidepressants) (Tofranil)
mania, name 4 characteristics	increased sex drive, grandiosity, increased appetite, poor impulse control
how does Lithium treat mania	inhibits norepinephrine and serotonin activity
tardive dyskinesia and Parkinson's disease are classified as ___ disorders	movement
causes of both tardive dyskinesia and Parkinson's disease are related to what neurotransmitter	dopamine
tardive dyskinesia and Parkinson's disease may be congenital (although this is exceedingly rare in the case of tardive dyskinesia), or the result of	side-effects from a medication
tardive dyskinesia patients have great difficulty ___, whereas those with Parkinson's disease have a great deal of difficulty __	staying still, moving at all
symptoms of psychosis include thought and mood disorders, substance abuse, dementia, Alzheimer’s, but not __ disorders	anxiety
anxiety is a non-psychotic mental disorder, true or false?	true
PET scans of schizophrenic patients reveal diminished glucose metabolism in what area of the brain	frontal cortex
panic disorder is characterized with what two types of anxiety	anticipatory and avoidance
Sx of generalized anxiety disorder that is significant and pervasive	chronic worry
co morbid conditions ass’d w/ OCD	depression, anorexia, Tourette’s
agoraphobia	rare presentation of generalized anxiety disorder
severe anorexia r/t hypokalemia results in death by	cardiac arrhythmias
what characteristic distinctly separates panic disorder vs all anxiety disorders	physiological instability
general anxiety disorder has a ____ onset and lasts ____	gradual, years
(2) Types of drugs to Tx anxiety disorders	benzos, antidepressants
4 common psychotic illnesses’	schizophrenia, major depression, delusional disorder, bipolar
nonpsychotic mental illnesses (7)	panic, generalized anxiety, OCD, borderline personality, antisocial personality, anorexia, bulimia
instability in mood, behavior, relationships, impulse aggression, derealization, self-harm, suicidal ideation, manipulation are characteristics of	borderline personality disorder
no guilt, no morals, no ethical values are characteristics of what disorder	antisocial disorder
first occurrence of panic disorder usually occurs in what stage of life	young adulthood
Dx of general anxiety disorder include	dysphoria, uncontrollable worry, impaired concentration, NOT HYPOACTIVITY
is a genetic predisposition common to all anxiety disorders	yes!!!
3 Cluster A personality disorders include	paranoid, schizoids, schizotypal
development of borderline personality disorder is often proceeded by	abuse
antisocial personality disorder often appears appealing to other T/F	true
found at center of osteons, blood vessels and nerves located here	Haversian canals
law of bone stresses, determines deposition, resorption	Wolff’s
stage of fracture, callous replaced by cancellous/trabecular bone is	ossification
2 classes of movable joints	diarthrodial and synovial
structures btw tibia and femur that increase weight bearing capacity	meniscus
contractile proteins in striated muscle	actin and myosin
ion required for muscle contraction	calcium
muscle contraction, no mvmt occurs	isometric
group of skeletal muscles innervated by one motor neuron	motor unit
energy storage source for muscle contraction	creatine phosphate
protein found in tendons and ligaments	elastin
immediate source of energy for muscle contraction	adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
3 hormones influencing bone growth	GH, thyroid hormone, sex hormones
2 primary minerals found in bone	calcium and phosphate
calcium released faster than removed causes ____ contraction	sustained
motor units have ____ receptors for Ach	nicotinic
O2 is necessary for ATP production (contract/relax) and removal of	lactic acid
sarcolemma/increased conduction velocity, result of increased ____	temp
shortening contraction resulting in mvmt is called	consentric contraction
lengthening contraction is called	eccentric contraction
myosin head binding with actin bead forms	cross bridge
T/F- all forms of muscular dystrophy are cause by genetics	T
T/F- crushing injury producing multiple bone fragments is a comminuted fracture	T
T/F- partial separation of articulating bone surfaces within a joint is called a dislocation	F (subluxation)
T/F- scoliosis can be detected by uneven alignment of shoulders or hips	T
T/F- soft tissue injuries heal quicker than fractures	F
T/F- osteomyelitis most often due to infection by Staph A	T
T/F- subluxation and dislocation result from damage to supportive soft tissue	T
T/F- mult fragments of bone is a compound fracture	F (comminuted)
T/F- hyperkalemia and pathologic fractures can result from bone demineralization in multiple myeloma (cancer of plasma cells, in bone marrow)	T (Kahlers disease)
Duchenne muscular dystrophy affects only infants and children of which sex	male
myasthenic crisis is an acute exacerbation of	myasthenia gravis
cholinergic crisis is usually a result of too much	anticholinesterase
when contractile tissues are ____ ____ it causes pain	actively contracted
if a muscle strain results in the tearing of a significant amount of muscle, but a portion is still attached, it is a grade ____ strain	2
injury to the anterior or posterior cruciate ligaments results in altered function of the	knee
a deficiency of Vitamin D produces ____ in children and _____ in adults	Ricketts and osteomalacia
lligament injuries are classified by	extent of tear
compartment syndrome is due to increased pressure between muscle’s ____ ____	fascial planes
a disease in older adults in which osteoclastic activity is followed by an exaggerated response by osteoblasts, resulting in enlargement of bone	Paget’s disease
most common malignant bone tumor	Ewing sarcoma
primary Sx of multiple myeloma is ___ pain	bone
nerves in ___ are more sensitive to pain than anywhere else in body	bones
major difference in injury between ligament and tendon, stretching of injured ___ will cause pain	ligament
all muscular dystrophies have two things in common: progressive ___ and ___ of muscles	weakness, degeneration
progressive autoimmune disease affecting voluntary muscle function: ___ ___	myasthenia gravis
fibromyalgia syndrome characterized by (3) chronic ___ ___, ___ and ___	muscle pain, stiffness, fatigue
complication, fracture hasn’t healed in four to six month	nonunion
healing of fractures involves ___ formation and consolidation	callus
T/F tumors originating in bone are less common than metastases from other sites	T
T/F infectious arthritis typically involves mult joints at the same time	F
T/F ankylosing spondylitis causes vertebral fussion	T
T/F vascular scar tissue formed in RA, can erode joint tissues, cause contractures is called pannus	T
T/F deer tick Spirochete causes Lyme disease	T
T/F scleroderma manifestations all due to increased density of epidermal layer	F (can be systemic)
T/F arthritis results in more disabilities than any other musculo/skeletal disease in US	T
T/F polymyositis and dermatomyositis are due to infections of muscle tissue	F (they are idiopathic inflammatory myopathy)
T/F infection of a prosthetic joint requires removal	T
CREST is a syndrome ass’d with scleroderma which stands for	calsinosis, Raynaud phenom., esophageal hardening, sclerodactyly, talangiectasis
causative organism of acute rheumatic fever: ___ ___ and ___ ___ ___	B hemolytic, group A strep
cause of fibro myalgia syndrome	unknown
often found in systemic lupus erythematosus progressing to renal failure	glomerulonephritis
infectious arthritis causative organism: ___ ___	Staph Au
ankylosing spondylitis primarily affects vertebra and ___ joints	sacroiliac
Lyme disease initial Sx similar to ___	flu
arthritis manifestation in patients with IBD, referred to as enteropathic arthritis, ___ ___ and ___ ___	Ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease
what disease causes osteophyte spurs: ___	osteoarthritis
untreated septic/infectious arthritis may result in ___ of joint	ankylosis
RA can affect joints and ___ tissues	cardiac
Sx of SLE worsens with UV light: ___ ___ rash	butterfly facial
adult that had acute rheumatic fever as a child may need what surgery performed: ___ ___ replacement	mitral valve
scleroderma is a multi-system ___ disease	inflammatory
ankylosing spondylitis can be genetic, can decrease respiratory depth and is ___ mediated.	immune
neuropathic osteoarthopathy may develop secondary to ___ ___	DM
Reactive arthritis AKA: ___ ___	Reiter Syndrome
Reiter syndrome may follow a/an ___ in men	STI
sebaceous glands stimulated by ___ hormones	androgenic
piloerection is stimulated by which nervous system	SNS
primary regulator of skin blood flow: ___ ___	body temperature
which nervous system stimulates sweating	SNS
flat, non-palpable spot, up to 1cm: ___	macule
palpable circumscribed bump less than 0.5cm: ___	papule
raised, palpable bump, 0.5-2cm: ___	nodule
elevated, pink edematous lesion: ___	wheal
small blister up to 0.5cm: ___	vesicle
elevated lesion containing purulent exudate: ___	pustule
lichenification is identified as epidural ___, and ___ patches	thickening, rough
T/F primary lesions retain original appearance, are unaffected by trauma or time	true
T/F HPV can invade deep into body tissues	false
T/F leprosy is highly infectious	false, not highly infectious
T/F allergic contact dermatitis is a delayed acquired hypersensitivity reaction	true
___ ___ presents as dandruff, cannot be cured but can be controlled	seborrheic dermatitis
both topical and systemic ___ may be used for sunburns, depending on severity	corticosteroids
dark-skinned people, petechiae may only be visible on the ___ ___, or ___	oral mucosa, conjunctiva
shingles caused by herpes ___, cold sores caused by herpes ___	varicella, simplex
ringworm is caused by a ___	fungus
impetigo caused by what organism: ___	staph
atopic dermatitis (eczema), cause: ___ reaction	allergic
scabies, r/t dirty people, true or false?	false
atopic dermatitis lesions, found in children, ___ areas	flexor (knee, elbow)
worst Px skin cancer, Dx of ___	melanoma
vitiligo best describes ___ patch of skin	depigmented
insulin injections, lipodystrophies, appear as smooth, large ___	depressions
excessive hair growth is called ___	Hirsuitism
spoon nails, deficiency of what: ___	iron
immunization not available for roseola, true or false?	true
pemphigus are NOT highly ___	contagious
major burn, covers ___ % of adult body	25
burn shock, massive ___ leakage and volume deficit	capillary
zone of burn injury, recovers within a week	hyperemia
___ degree burns can result in dehydration in children or elders	1st
3 symptoms of CO2 poisoning	headache, nausea, seizures
most common source of bacteria causing burn-wound infection	patients own body
severe burns, focused nutritional support is on consumption of	protein
greatest risk for infection following grafting burn wounds is the ___ day after surgery	3rd
pulse oximetry is inaccurate when a person is suffering from ___ poisoning	CO2
management of pain during burn wound treatment, use of ___	benzodiadepines
hyper-metabolism following a burn, due to release or large amounts of ___	catecholamine
sweat glands become ___ after a burn wound heals	hypersecretory
removal of necrotic burn tissue is called	debriement
4th degree burns are often caused by	electricity
edema resulting in airway obstruction not usually identified until 2-4 hours after a burn, true or false?	true
CO2 poisoning, preferentially binds to ___	hemoglobin
ARF may occur in burns where damaged muscle releases ___ into bloodstream, producing ___	myoglobin, rhabdomyolysis
burned skin is called	eschar

Created by: BrandiLynn

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