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micro lab exam 2
labs 9-13
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| def of antigen; what is it usially made of | a substance, usually a foreign protein that stimulates our immunity; a protein |
| def antibody | a protein structure you make to help eliminate the antigen |
| antibody titre: this determines what; how is this done; what is the endpoint; what is the endpoint dilution called; how is the titre writtten | the levels of antibody in the serum; by adding a constant amount of antigen and looking at the endpoint; the last tube that showed a positive reaction; the titre of antibodies; as a whole # (ex 640 is titre of dilution 1:640) |
| antibody titre: what pipette is used; what is process; how do youread the titre; what are the small particles; what is negative reaction | 5 mL serp;pgic pipette; 0.5 ml is transferred from tube one to tube two, two to 3 and so on and this is how the antiserum is diluted out; gently tap the bottom of each tube if there are small particles that means it is a + result; agglutination; turbidity |
| controls: why are they used ; how do they pinpoint errors; | to increase the reliability of your results; by using positive and negative response controls |
| epitope: aka; def; what binds to this | antigenic determinant; the portin of an antigen that the immune system responds too; the antibody |
| def of sereoconversion | Seroconversion is the development of detectable specific antibodies to microorganisms in the blood serum as a result of infection or immunization. Serology (the testing for antibodies) is used to determine antibody positivity. ... |
| antibodies: how many polypeptide chains are there; what connects the chains; what are the 2 arms that bind the antigen termed; what is the rest of the molecule called; what does Fc portion bind to; | 4; disulfide bond; the antigen bindinf fragments (Fabs); crystallized fragment (Fc); various cells in immune system itself (diagram pg 461)a |
| def of agglutination; what does antibody-antigen linkage produce; def of particulate; can it be seen with the naked eye | a visable mass of bacteria/ RBcs and antibodies bound to eachoutehr; a large cluster of cells cross linked; the antigens are large in size; yes |
| antibody titre: antibody levels in the blood reflects past what; def of serum; does serum contain Abs | exposure to an antigenic determinant; the liquid portion of a blood sample from which RBCs, WBCs and paltelets have been removed; ys |
| Abs titre: lack of antibody titre could mean what; presence of abs from pt means __ has occured; | no exposure to agent tested or exposed recently to agent and insufficient time has occured to produce antibodies; seroconversion; |
| antiserum contains what | antibodies |
| titre: def of acute serum titre; def of convalescent serum titre; | collected during early onset of CMs; collected weeks after exposurel |
| hepatitis titre: aka; what results mean nothing more needs to be done; when does pt have seroconverted | anti-HBs; is adequate anti-Hbs are present; if they developed antibodies |
| slide agglutination technique: what is done; what side is control; | a drop of proteus antiserum is placed on the left side of a slide and the physiologic saline is placed on right side of slide then culture is placed on right and left side and the side is rocked back and forth ; right side; |
| parcipitation reaction: def; what is produced during many infections; what diffuse towards eachother; what cross links to form a lattice; def of lattice; what can this test identify; | serological reactions involviing small soluble atnigens and antibodies produced against them ; precipitatiing antibodies; antigen and specific antibodies for that antigen; antigens and antibodies; a visible precipitation reaction; antigen or antibody |
| precipitate reaction: when the lattice is very large what can be observed; def of zone of equivalence; | visible particles; the concentration of the antigens and antibodies are equivalent and a lattice is formed and the particles can be seen; |
| fluid precipitation: how is it done; when can the zone of equilenance be reached; | antigens are suspended in fluid and combined with antibodies suspended in fluid, they are not mixed and are allowed to diffuse towards eachother; if the antigen is capable of binding with the antibody; |
| gel precipitation: what medium is used; what is done to the agar; what is placed inthe 3 outside holes; what is placed in the middle hole; what happens; | a semisolid medium agarose plate; ; 4 holes are bored into it; antigen; unknown antibody; the antibodies and antigens diffuse towards eachotehr producing a band of parcipitate |
| gel precipitation: what is purpose of this test; when do the antibodies and antigens stop diffusing towards eachother; what forms when the zone is reache;d why does the media have to be semisolid; | allows for determination of an unknown antibody; when a zone of equilalence is reached; an opaque band of precipitate forms between the well; it allows for diffusion; |
| latex agglutination test: what is coated with a known antigen; what is mixed with known antigen latex suspension; what does it mean if agglutination is positive; | latex beads; patient serum and controls; patient has produced antibodies against antigenic determinant of the antigen |
| ELISA: aka;purpose; what diseases are screened; what hormone test uses this; | enzyme linked immunosorbent assay; used to detect the presence and amount of either antigen or antibody in a sample; HIV, rubellal; pregnancy test; |
| ELISA: why used; what does the direct one detect; what does the indirect one test; | to detect antigen in a sample of antibody in a sample; the presence of antigens in a saomple; the presence of antibodies in a sample; |
| ELISA: why are the wells washed after each step; why are tests run in triplets; | to remove unbound/ nonreactive antibodies; for accuracy; |
| what is an example of a commercial agglutination test | monospot test |
| infectious mononucleosis: etiologic agent;what is burkitts lymphoma; why is at risk for this lymphoma; | epstein baarvirus; a b-cell malignancy that develops in jaw and swells in cheeks; african children 4-8 yo b/c of weakened immune systems |
| infectious mononucleosis: how is it spread; pathogenesis; incubation; s/s; does immunity develop; recently infected can shed virus for how long; | kissing, oral contact, saliva and blood transfustions; the virus infects human B lymphocytes and enters through the oropharynx and invades; 30-60days; sore throat, HA, fatigue, general malaise; yes; 18mo |
| def of antitoxin | antibody w/ ability to neutralize specific toxin |
| def of adjuvant | any compound that enhances immunogenicity and prolongs antigen retention at the injection site; |
| def of monoclonal antibodies | pure antibodies |
| natural killer cells: are they nonspecific or specific; what do they do; | nonspecific; surkey cells looking for ones missing MHC 1 receptor; |
| Dx hepatitis B: why is an acute sample take; why is a convalescent sample taken; | acute is done early in disease and should have titre of 40; thisis done later in disease, titre is 160 to show that disease is in process |
| disinfection: def; examples; | the destruction or removal of vegetative pathogens but not bacterial endospores on inanimate objects; boiling water, pasteurizaion, UV light, liquid chemicals; |
| sterlization; def; examples; | the complete removal or destruction of all viable microbes, used on inanimate objects; incineration, dry ovan, steam autoclave, xrays, chem gases, chem liquids; |
| antisepsis: def; examples; | chemicals applied to body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegatiative pathogens; chem liquids; |
| decontamination: def; example; | the machanical removal of most microbes; air and liquids |
| gram positive bacteria: examples; what of the two are spore formers; what layer is thick; what links peptidoglycan molecules; does it have surface proteins; | bacillus sp. and staphylococcus aureus; bacillus; peptidoglycan layer of cell wall; teichoic acid; yes; |
| gram negative bacteria: examples; are any spore formers; what one is a strick aerobe; what layer is thin; what else does it have that is part of cells wall; name the layers f=of outer membrane; | E. Coli, pseudomonas sp.; no; pseudomonas sp; peptidoglycan layer; outer membrane; external layer and inner layer |
| what is the most common agent used to kill microbes inthe lab | autoclave |
| the effects of heat: what is the moist heat needed to kill bacterial endospores; how does moist heat kill microbes; what type of microbes are most resistant to heat; | 120 C; by altering the 3D form of proteins and this destroys the activity of enzymes and the componets of structural proteins; spore formers |
| effects of heat: if there is clear tube with no growth in the tube what can be determined; | the microbe were destroyed by heat; |
| bacterial endospores: is it a reporductive structure; what two genera can form endospores; what is it highly resistant to; when environment is favorable, what does spore germinate into; | no; bacillus sp. and clostridium sp,; heat, chemicals and changes in pH; a single vegatative cell; |
| UV light:is it invisable to our eyes; how is it abosrbed; how many reactions does each cell of skin experience every second; | yes; by a double bond in pyrimidine bases and opening the bond allows it to react with neighboring molecules50-100; |
| UV light: when are cells unable to repair the damage; what wavelengths can cause most damge; | when the duration of exposure to UV light is sufficient they can't keep up with the rate of DNA modification; short (germicide); |
| UV light: short wavelengths are used how; why is DNA unable to replicate during binary fission; | to prevent microbial growth on work surfaces in ittus culture hoods; b/c the light alters the bases; |
| def antiseptic | used when destroying microbes on tissue; |
| def of static | if a substance inhiits growth of a microbe |
| what virus is very resistant to substances | Hep A |
| chemical antimicrobials: def cidex; def of betadine; def lysol; | an aldehyde/alkalating agent; iodine compound and a halagon; alphenol comound; |
| antimicrobial agents in food: how is this test done; how is zone measured; | NA plate is inoculates with bacteria and discs soaked in food is placed on the plate and zone of inhibition is measured; in mm; |
| zone of inhibition: what to measure if there is no zone; if the bacteria grows to the disc what does this mean; if there is any inhibition beyond the disc diameter what does this mean; the bigger the zone means what | measure the size of disc; the bacteria are resistant to the chemicals; the the organism is susceptible; the more inhibitory the substance |
| egg whites; what enzyme do they contain; lysozymes are effective against what; | lysozymes; gram + bacteria |
| kirby bauer susceptibility test: this test determines what; what are the results used for;the density of inoculum must be standard to what; | the susceptibility of bacteria to antimicrobial agents; to determine the correct antimicrobial agent to be prescribed to pt;mcfarland standard; |
| kirby bauer susceptibility test: waht agar is used; MH agar is how thick; mh agar has what pH; what grows on it; how long incubated; what is measured; how is agar inoculated | mueller hinton;4 mm; neutral; all but fastidious bacteria; 18-24 hr; zone of inhibition; lawn tech |
| kirby bauer susceptibility test: def susceptible; def intermediate; resistant | the organism is killed or inhibited by the antimicrobial concentration; organism may not be killed or inhibited by antimicrobial concentration; organism not kiled |
| microbial control methods: ex of physical agents; ex of chemcial agents; ex of mechanical agents | heat (dry, moist), or radiation; gases, liquids; filtration (air or liquids) |
| variables: what is an expiramental varaible; what is control variable; | the thing that changes (types of disinfectants); the control stays the same (microbe used) |
| def of penicillinase | an enzyme produced by penicillin resistant strains of bacteria to inactivate penicillin into a harmless chemical |
| def of mic value ; what does MIC use | this provides the minimum dilution of an abx that would be effective in trating a specific bacterial infection; a dilution tray containging supported medium |
| what are the 4 things that need to be standard in the kirby bauer test; | mueller hinton agar; standard abx discs, standard inculim, incubate for 18-24 hours at 37 degrees C |
| respiratory pathogens: streptococcus sp.: where do they grow best; what are O2 requirements; what are CO2 requirements; how do we get the atmospheric requirements; | blood agar; reduced; increased; using a candle jar and CO2 incubator; |
| respiratory pathogens: streptococcus sp.: what is the shape of the genus; what is gram stain; | cocci; gram +; |
| def virulence factors | are either structures or products that enhance pathogenicity |
| respiratory pathogens: streptococcus sp.: what is the most common hemolytic type; | alpha hemolytic; |
| name some indigineous flora in the respiratory tract | strep. sp, staph. sp., neisseria sp., corynebacterium sp., several strict anaerobes., candida albicans |
| respiratory pathogens: streptococcus sp.: what are the 3 hemolytic patterns that they can have; | beta, gamma, alpha; |
| streptococcus sp.: beta hemolysis- def; what are the enzymes; what will the bacterial colonies look like on the blood agar; | the bacteria's hemolytic enzymes lyses the blood cells in the agar plate; streptolysin O and S; clear around them; |
| streptococcus sp.: alpha hemolysis- def; what will the colonies look like; | means that the bacterial enzymes only partially break down the blood cells; green to brown discoloration of the agar around the bacterial colonies; |
| streptococcus sp.: gamma hemolysis- def; whhat will colonies look like | essentially no hemolysis at all, the bacterial do not produce enzymes that affect the RBCs; no change in color; |
| streptococcus sp.: beta hemolysis- if the organism shows beta hemolytic pattern what is next test done; what does positve strep quick test mean; what is done if strep quick is negative; | strep quick test; the organism is S. pyogenes; set up bacitracin disc; |
| streptococcus sp.: beta hemolysis- what organism is it if bacitracin disc is sensitive; what is it if it is resistant; | S. pyogenes; S. Agalactiae |
| what is group A strep; what is group B strep | S. pyogenes, S. agalactiae |
| streptococcus sp.: alpha hemolysis- if organism shows this what test is done next; what organism is it if it is sensitive to optochin discs; what is it if it is resistant to disc | optochin disc; S. pneumoniae; s. viridans |
| streptococcus pyogenes: what group of strep; what type of infection; what is sequelae if not treated; what do colonies look like; what hemolytic pattern; gram stain; shape; Dx | A; painful and self limiting; rheumatic fever, glomerlonephritis, scarlet fever; small/med white entire margin; beta; +; streptococci; quick strep pos, and bacitracin sensitive |
| streptococcus pyogenes: tx; what is tx for those allergic to penicillin; | penicillin for 10d; erythromycin; |
| streptococcus pyogenes: sequelae-scarlet fever- what is tx; what is rash due to; exotoxin damages what | abx; a particular strain of the bacterium that produces an erythrogenic exotoxin; capillaries; |
| streptococcus pyogenes: sequelae- what two infections will abx not work on; what is damages in glomerulonephritis; whatis damaged in rheumatic fever | glmerulonephritis and rheumatic fever; damage to nephrons; damage to joints, heart and other tissues |
| streptococcus pyogenes: sequelae- scarlet fever- who gets it; when is onset; what has rash; what s/s on tongue; when does rash fade; sx; | children; < 12 hr; cheeks/ neck and thorax; strawberry red/white coating; about 6 day; S. pyogenes from oropharynx |
| LRT organisms: what are pathogens from | URT and inhaled from outside of body |
| LRT pathogens: streptococcus pneumoniae- most common cause of what; potential cause of what; colonie appearance; what is hemolytic pattern; gram stain; shape; does it have a capsule; what disc is it sensitive to; | bacterial pna; meningitis; medium, mucoid, white, entire margin; alpha; + , diplococci; yes; optochin; |
| LRT pathogens: streptococcus pneumoniae- tx; what is tx if there is a resistant strain; what does gram stain look like in sputum | penicillin; fluoroquinolones and vancomycin; vaccine; gram+ diplococci with neutrophils |
| LRT pathogens: klebsiella pneumoniae- what tyep of pna; conoly charecteristics; gram stain; does it have a capsule; shape | bacterial; medium/ large mucoid entire margin, off white to beige colonies; negative; yes; baiclli |
| bacitracin disc: a zone of inhibition means what; | the test is positive and organism is susceptable and the organism is S. pyogenes; |
| optichin disc: what does a zone of nihibition more than 18 mm mean; | test is positive and organism is S. pneumoniae |
| throat culture: any of the normal flora is considered ____ pathogens; | opportunistic; |
| capsule stain: is this a virulence factor; ex of resp. tract organisms that have these; | yes; S. pneumoniae and klebsiella sp. |
| acid fast stain: used for what disease and what organism; M. tuberculosis has what in its cell walls; this prevents what; what would false gram stain be; | TB and mucobacterium tuberculosis; lipids; decolorizing when using acid alcohol; gram - (it is not this) |
| corynebacterium diphtheriae: agent of what disease; divide so fast that bacilli look like what; | diphtheria; chinese like letters; |
| maemophilus influenzae- causes what disease in young children; is it fastidieous; it can couase secondary what; | meningitis; yes; pna |
| what role does ___ play in protecting the respiratory tract against pathogens . . . ciliated epithelium, normal flora; alveolar macrophages; secretory IgA | moves mucus with trapped organism and debris out of the respiratory tract; colonizes areas of body to prevent or decrease access ot the area by a pathogen; phagocytizes debris and organsims that reach alveoli; found in body secretions binds to microbes |
| neisseria sp.: doe isolation of it from pharynx mean that a person has gonorrheal pharyngitis; what is gram stain; what type of pathogen; how is it fastidious | it could be or it could be just normal flora; neg diplococci; intracellular; tempt and humiditty sensitive |
| what agent causes pneumococcal pna; what is from reaction; what is virulence factors | streptococcus pna; gram + diplococi; capsule, streptokinase, hemolysin; |
| klebsiella pna: how does one get it; cause; transmission; tx | when host defenses are impaired (malnutrition ect); klensiella pna; inhaled droplets; amikacin/ cephalosporins; |
| primary atypical pna: cause; transmission; can it be gram stained; aka; why can't it be gram stained; tx | mycoplasma pna; inhalation of contaminated droplets; no; walking pna; b/c bacteria lacks cell wall; tetracycline or erythromycin |
| psittacosis: cause; transmission; what type of parasite is it; | chamydia psittaci; dust, parrot like bird feces; obligate intracellular parasite; tetracycline |
| enteric bacteria: def; ex; where are the located; are they usually pathogenic or non pathogenic | gram negative rod bacteria that are facultative anaerobes; E. coli, Proteus sp, salmonella and shigella sp, klebsiella pna, enterobacter sp, serratia sp, ; part of the normal intestinal flora or involved in GI diease; non pathogenic |
| enteric bacteria: biochemical properties;what media is used; | some can ferment lactose, produce hydrogen sulfide, hydrolize urea, liquefy geletin, decarboxylate amino acids; selective and differential; |
| enteric bacteria: what should pH be; what does the medium inhibit; what does it select for; contains what indicators; changes color in presence of what; when organisms ferment what is produced; acculumation of acids does what; what are the 2 agars used | 7; gram + bacteria and fastiduous gram neg; enterics; pH; in presence of lactose fermentation; carbohydrate acid; lowers the pH of the medium and change the color of the pH stain ; MAC and HE |
| enteric bacteria: MAC agar: what is the pH indicator stain; what will color be of lactose fermenters; what is color of non lactose fermenters; why is crystal violet and bile added | lactose and neutral red; pink; colorless to beige; inhibits gram pos. bacteria and fastidious gram neg; |
| enteric bacteria: HE agar- aka; what is the pH indicator stain; what is color of lactose fermenters; what is color of non lactose fermenters; why is bile and bromythmol blue added; what would prove H2S production | hektoen enteric agar; yellow organge colony; colorless; inhibits fast. Gram neg bacteria and gram pos; black colonies |
| enteric bacteria: SS agar: aka; what should the color of them be; are all other organisms inhbited; why is reagents added; what will colonies look like if they produce h2s; | salmonella-shigella agar; lactose, neutral red dye, bile, reagents; samonella and shigella sp.; no; colorless; for the most part; to detect h2s; black; |
| enteric bacteria: SS agar: what produces H2S salmonella or shigella; what species will be black; what species will be beige; lactose fermenters have what color | salmonella; salmonella; shigella; pink |
| bile on an agar plate inhibits growth of what | gram pos and fastidious gram neg bacteria; |
| enteric bacteria: what agar contains the largest amount of bile; what one contains the least amount of bile | ss; mac; |
| enteric bacteria:media- what are the 2 dyes in mac; what is the inhibitory agent of these media; | neutral red and crystal violet; bile; |
| feces cultures use what type of media | selective and differential mac HE and SS |
| bacteriodes sp. and clostridium sp are common bacteria in the l intestines but why are they not enterics; | although bacteriodes is gram -, it is strictly and anaerobe and clstridium is gram positive and is an anaerobe spore former |
| def of coliform; why are these counts used to test purity of water | a gram neg nonspore forming bacillus, some are lactose fermenters that are found in human feces; prescence of this indicates fecal contamination |
| why are abx not used in tx of salmonella | b/c they can increase the carrier rate where the individual can continue to shed the organism in their feces |
| S. auerus: what does colony look like; what is hemolytoc pattern; is it coagulas pos. or neg; is it catalase pos or neg; mannitol fermentation pos or neg; where is this a common pathogen; gram stain | golden tan color, medium size, entire, raised; beta; positve; positve; positve; positive; wound; gram positve staphylococci; |
| S. epidermidis: colony description; coagulase pos or neg; catalase pos or neg; mannitol fermentation pos or neg; gram stain; what is hemolytic pattern; where is it normal flora; is it often a pathogen; | off white, small med size,raised, entire margins; neg; pos; neg; gram pos staphylococci; gamma; skin; rarely as subacute endocarditis |
| catalase test: used to identify what two species; strep is pos or neg; staph is pos or neg | strep and staph; neg; pos |
| what 2 tests are used to differentiate staph species from eachother | coagulase and mannitol |
| clostridium sp: what diseases; gram stain; does it have spores; oxygen requirements; where is it found; is it a wound pathogen | botulism, tetanus, food poisening, gas gangrene; gram + streptobaccilli; yes; strict anaerobe; soil; yes |
| how can anaerobes be cultured | with thiocollate broth and anaerobic chamber |
| thioglycollate broth: what does sodium thoglycollate do; why is resazurin added to medium; what oxygen requirements does micrococuss sp have; C. sporogenes have; E. coli have; | it reduces oxygen in the medium; turns red in presence of O2; aerobe; anaerobe; facultative aneaerobe |
| anaerobe chamber: what is it used for; what reacts with o2; what happens with hydrogen gas pack is activated by water; what is added; what are colors for indicator | to grow strict anaeobic microbes; the hydrogen gas pack; pallasoim catalyst to use up the oxygen and produce water;anaerobic indicator; blue if aerobic and white if anaerobic |
| what is the most common cause of cystitis | E. coli |
| E coli: is it enteric; oxygen requirements; | yes; facultative anaerobe |
| urine culture: colony count is the # of colonies times ___; this = what; what number indicates a UTI | 1000; the # of organisms per mL in the patient; > 100,000 organisms / mL |
| gonorrhea: etiologic agent; when are CMs; trasmission; cms in males; CMs in FM; complications in wm; | neisseria gonorhoeae; 1-3 days; close intimate contact; urethritis, frequent urination, sterility; in cervix only, rectal pain and all s/s of males; arthritis, sterility, PID |
| gonorrhea: newborn s.s; tx | eye infection; silver nitrate/ erythromycin eye drops |
| gonorrhea: reservior; tx; gram stain; what medium does it grow in; dx for males; dx for females; | humans; cephalsporins only; fastidious gram neg diplococci; thayer martin medium; gram stained urethral discharged specimen; vaginal culture and grma stain; |
| thayer martin medium: is it selective; is it differential; what is added; what type of agar; why are abx added | yes; yes; aBX; chocolate; they inhibit other organisms |
| syphilis: reservoir; transmission; how long is incubation; dx | humans; close intimate contact, organism penetration through mucous, wounds; 2-6 weeks; ID spirochetes from chancre useing flourescence microscopy and aB testing; |
| syphilis: primary: s/s; how not does it last; | painless chancre sore near oral or genital region; 4-6 weeks |
| syphilis: secondary- where is organism in body; s/s; what percent is cured; what % is latent; what % get it again; | blood, lymph, tissues; rash, allopecia and lesions in mouth; 25%; 25%; 50% |
| syphilis: tertiary- s/s; where is it localized; | lesions; CV system, joints, CNS |
| syphilis: congenital: disease crosses placenta when; s/s; | after the 3rd or 4th month; anemic, nasal discharge, rash, saddle back nose, lesions later, still born |
| chlamydia sp: def C. psittaci; def C. pneumoniae; def. C. trachomatic; | birds and numan zoonotic infection; human to human transmission; human to human transmission |
| C trachomatic: neonate s.s; s/s as STD; | corneal scarring, tranmitted during vag delivery; cervix infected; pelvic inflammatory Dx and infertility |
| staph. sp are tolerant to what; | salt |
| catalase test: what is done; what happens when oxygen gass is released; positve means what is produced | slide used and divided hydrogen peroxide is dropped on each half and then organism dropped;bubbles occur and organism is positive; the enzyme catalase |
| coagulase test: differentiates between what; when the enzyme procoagulase is mixed with plasma what is it convereted to; coagulase does what to the plasma; what will be seen on the slide; | the 2 speceis of staph; coagulase; clots it; clumps if positive; |
| mannitol fermentation: mannital salt medium is selective yes or no; differential yes or no; what % of salt does it have; when mannitol is fermental what happens; | yes; yes; 7%; color changes from red to yellow b/c or the acid production; |
| what sp produces the most potent exotoxin known to humans; | constridium botulinums |
| are clostridia gram + or neg | + |
| spore stain: what two species form thick walled endospores; are spores resiliant to staining; what is applied to assist in stain penetration; what will take up primary stain; waht is primary stain; what is decolorized with secondary stain; whatis secondar | clostridium and bacillus; yes; heat; spores and vegatatvie cells; malachite green; vegatative cells; safranin |
| anaerobic jar: how is oxygen eliminated; | by chem reaction |
| what are the common sites cultured for gonorrhea | vagina, urethra, rectum and oral cavity |
| lactobacillus sp: where is this normal flora; what does it produce that protects the vagin from pathogens and prevent the overgrowth od candida albicans; | vagina; acids; |
| def keratitis | inflam of cornea of the eye |
| def salpingitis | inflam of fallopian tubes |
| def pelvic inflammatory disease | infla of femal genital tract accompanied by fever and lower ab pain |
| def gonococcal pharyngitis | trhaot infection caused by gonorrea |
| def gonococcal proctitis | inflam of rectum or anus caused by gonnorrea |
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jmkettel
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