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Microbiology lecture
final
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| How can immune complexes cause tissue damage? | complexes of IgG and bacterial toxins deposited in skin, joints and kidneys complexes cause disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) Macrophages respond intensely to endotoxin complement activation (ALL OF THE ABOVE) |
| The first type of antibodies to respond to H1NI infection is | IgM. |
| Where do immune response to polio infection occur?? | Lymph nodes. |
| The direct/immediate action of interferon on cells is to | Stimulate synthesis of inactive "suicide enzymes" |
| Antibodies are not involved in the following pathways of complement activation? | Lectin Pathway Alternative pathway |
| Vaccine is to induce | Active but artificially acquired immunity |
| The antibodies produced by a patient after H1N1 infection are | Polyclonal |
| Activation of complement leads to major protective outcomes EXCEPT | Hypersensitivities and DIC |
| Which of the following statements is false? | In response to antigens, B cells normally do not communicate with Th. |
| TLRs and NOD proteins have the following in common | They recognize bacterial cell wall components |
| Complement is involved in | Types II and III hypersensitivities |
| For a pregnant woman who has been vaccinated against a disease, | Her fetus receives IgG |
| Treatment of tetnus with anti-tetanospasmin serum is an example of | Artificial and passive immunization |
| Among numerous cytokine classes, which one, during immune response, directs immature leukocytes to correct maturation pathway? | Colony stimulating factors |
| Norma flora protects through the following except | Phagocytosis |
| A pathogen that can avoid the complement component C3b would directly protect itself from | Opsonization |
| What is the appropriate response when antigen is presented by MHC class II molecules? | An effector CD4 cell should activate the presenting cell |
| What are plasma cells | The B cells that produce antibodies |
| When a person receives antibodies and thus immunity, which is wrong? | The immunity occurs after vaccination |
| Which term describes the knockout of specific heavy chain genes? | Class switch |
| In HIV testing, why is the Western blot test used to confirm ELISA results? | Because of potential false positive results from ELISA |
| What would be a primary advantage of using an attenuated vaccine rather than an inactivated vaccine? | Single dose usually sufficient to induce long-lasting immunity |
| Toll-like receptors are triggered by all the following compounds EXCEPT | Antibodies |
| 24) Why is infection with opportunistic agents a particular health problem to individuals with AIDS? | Because HIV impairs CD4 |
| There are 3 pathways of complement activation EXCEPT | Programmed cell death |
| Which of the following statements about phagocytosis is false? | Macrophages die after phagocytizing bacteria but neutrophils regenerate their lysosomes and survive. |
| About active immunity; which is wrong?? | It can occur naturally as result of breast feeding |
| Which of the following statements about inflammation is false? | Apoptosis cause inflammation |
| Among numerous cytokine classes, which one plays a role in chemotaxis? | Chemokines |
| Which of the following are examples of antigen-presenting cell (APC)? | Macrophages dendritic cells B cell |
| which markers are found on all nucleated cells? | MHC class I |
| A person who has been vaccinated against smallpox should have primarily which of these types of antibodies 2 years later | IgG |
| In Type II hypersensitivities, IgG is responsible for hemolytic disease of the newborn, but IgM is for transfusion reactions. Part of reasons is | Because IgG can move across placenta |
| The variable regions of antibodies are located in the | Fab region Both light and heavy chains |
| If you receive a flu shot, your immunity involves the following except | Passive immunity |
| Lysozyme in your tear does which of the following? | hydrolyzes peptidoglycan |
| which of the following statements about antibodies is false? | If IgE had longer half-life, it would protect newborn infant |
| Upon exposure to antigen, some B cells undergo changes enhancing immune response including the following except | Tumorigenesis |
| Type I Hypersensitivities include the following except | Tc |
| If a mother who has been vaccinated against anthrax breast-feeds her baby in the first 6 months, | Her baby receives both IgA and IgG |
| What is the key factor that makes AIDS immune-deficient? | HIV impairs TH cells |
| First line of defense in the innate immune response include the following EXCEPT | Antibodies |
| In 1979, WHO declared that Small pox has been globally eradicated as a disease. Which of the measures you think are most effective and valid? | Humans, a only reservoir for smallpox viruses, were vaccinated against small pox infections |
| Why do Rh-negative but not Rh-positive mothers sometimes have babies with hemolytic diseases of the newborn? | Because anti-Rh antibodies can be induced in Rh-negative mothers |
| Antibody active in allergic reaction is | IgE |
| If you use immunological testing of antigens or antibodies to test HIV, you will choose the following except | Southern and Northern blotting |
| When a patient’s tuberculin skin test is positive, you expect | The individual has been infected by Mycobacterium tuberculosis that sensitized T cells |
| A one-year old had pneumonia. LPS was detected in the bloodstream. IgM titer did not increase. He was most likely infected by | Klebsiella pneumoniae |
| A patient infected by a gram-negative bacterial species displayed the IgM and IgG responses. The B cells are likely to be activated by | T-dependent and independent antigens |
| Polysaccharide vaccines | Elicite only IgM Provide no memory Are T-independent (ALL of the above) |
| Lysozyme is associated with phage | Virus release, phage penetration, lysis of bacterial host |
| Malaria is caused by | Plasmodium sp: P. vivax, P. falciparum, P. malatiae, P. ovale |
| Viral capsids are composed of | proteins |
| How are the bacterial transformants with the TetR and AmpS phenotypes selected? | Replica plating |
| Slow infections include | HIV and prion infections |
| Acute infections | Generally lead to long-lasting immunity; are a result of productive infection. |
| Replication cycles of HIV and phage lambda, albeit different, have one thing similar | the host cells can carry provirus |
| What is function of a cloning vector? | To carry cloned DNA, enabling it to replicate in cells |
| The Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used to genetically engineer which of the following cell types? | Plants |
| In Ames test, you mixed Salmonella mutants auxotrophic for histidine and a food additive. On the minimal media plates, the mutants grew with the additive but not without. What you would conclude? | The additive is mutagenic |
| In 1982, Dr. Stanley Prusiner treated the infectious agents with UV, Nucleases, Proteases, Formalin and heat to inactivate most viruses. After the treatment, the infected brain extract was still infectious. What would you expect the agents to be? | Mutated proteins |
| A culture of a bacterial species that has light repair is irradiated with ultraviolet (UV) light. The UV light can induce | Formation of covalent bonds between thymine moleculse on the same strand of DNA |
| DNA damage repair mechanism that occurs during DNA synthesis are | Mismatch repair; proofreading by DNA polymerase |
| You are trying to isolate a mutant of the wild type E. coli that requires histidine for growth. This can be done by using | Replica plating; penicillin enrichment |
| In DNA sequencing reaction, the dATP was left out of the tube to which ddATP was added. What would be the result of this error? | Synthesis would always stop at the Synthesis would terminate randomly, regardless of the nucleotide incorporated. |
| The “breath test” for Helicobacter pylori infection assays for the presence of which of the following? | Urease |
| For treatment of pneumonia, penicillin is not recommended for which of following? | Mycoplasma pneumomiae |
| The addition of deoxyribonuclease to a mixture of bacterial donor and recipient cells will prevent gene transfer via | DNA transformation |
| A culture of E. coli is irradiated with ultraviolet (UV) light. The highest frequency of mutations would be obtained if, after irradiation, the cells with the photoreactivation system were immediately | Placed in the dark |
| A bacterial sex pilus is essential for | Chromosome transfer by conjugation; Plasmid transfer by conjugation |
| Which of following describes the purpose of using lacZ gene in a cloning vector? | Means of distinguishing cells that take up recombinant molecules |
| Which of following is unique to Southern blot but not colony blot ? | Agarose gel electrophoresis |
| The “O” of E.coli O157:H7 refers to the | Serotype |
| You were testing a sample suspicious of the following bacteria. Your biochemical data show that the bacterium is aerobic and oxidase-positive but fermentation-negative. Which is likely? | Pseudomonas |
| Pregnant women in US should be mostly cautious about | Toxoplasma gondii |
| Which of the molecular methods of assessing similarity gives the crudest approximation of relatedness? | DNA base composition |
| The polymerase chain reaction uses Taq polymerase rather than DNA polymerase from E. coli, because Taq polymerase | Is heat-stable |
| Why the transducing T4 phage fails to lyse the bacterial cells they invade | The T4 are defective |
| Which of the following genera preys on other bacteria? | Bdellovibrio |
| All of the following genera are obligate intracellular parasites EXCEPT | E. coli |
| Temperate phages often | change properties of their hosts; integrate their DNA into the host DNA |
| How bacterial cells are hijacked by phage? | making early viral proteins that often are associated with replication of viral nucleic acid; producing nucleases to destroy hostDNA no host DNA transcribed phage DNA is transcribed; preexisting bacterial enzymes for phage transcription and translation |
| Which is wrong regarding prophage? | Prophage and lysogen may be the same. |
| The induction of a temperate phage by ultraviolet light results from | cleavage of a repressor. |
| Which is wrong about phage and human viruses? | Phage is usually enveloped by animal cell membrane |
| These groups of eukaryotes can have both single-celled and multicellular | Algae; fungi |
| H1N1 stands for | Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase |
| Phage have | only one kind of nucleic acid; a protective protein coat |
| For prevention of infections with H3N2, vaccine can be 80% to 90% effective. New vaccines are required every year because of | Antigenic drift; antigenic shift; failure of the immunity to recognize the new flu viruses. |
| Integration of viral nucleic acid leads to changes in properties of the host | Bacteriophages and animal viruses. |
| Lysogenic conversion and virus-cancer transformation are analogous since | Provirus confer phenotypes to the host. |
| When patients survive acute infections such as measles, what would the patients benefit from the infections? | Antibody development to prevent the same infections. |
| The polymerase chain reaction generates a fragment of a distinct size even when an intact chromosome is used as template. What determines the boundaries of the amplified fragment? | The primers. |
| Which are the bacteria in soil that cause severe infectious diseases in humans and animals? | Bacillus and Clostridum |
| What is the molecular method especially useful for identification when bacteria are difficult to cultivate? | PCR |
| Penicillin enrichment of mutants works on the principle that | Penicillin kills growing bacterial cells |
| Among the sexually transmitted viruses, which one is an RNA virus? | HIV |
| Which causes diphtheria? | Corynebacterium |
| Which of the following is NOT a eukaryotic parasite? | Salmonella |
Created by:
hmarcks426
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