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Pharm 2 final review
Comprehensive final review
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What two main pharmacological classes do drugs for asthma fall? | bronchodilators and anti-inflammatory |
| What is an advantage to administering a drug for asthma by the inhalation route? | requires little hand-lung coordination |
| Which type of inhalation delivery system delivers "dry, micronized powder directly to the lungs"? | dry-powder inhaler |
| Glucocorticoids work to help patients with asthma by: | decreasing inflammation |
| Drugs for asthma can be given by which routes? | oral, inhalation, or parenteral (SQ or IV) |
| What is the drug category of choice for a patient having a severe asthma attack? | beta 2 agonist like albuterol |
| Name 2 types of receptors that histamine works on: | histamine 1 and histamine 2 |
| The principle use of H1 blockers are __________? | mild allergic reactions |
| Which are more sedating 1st or 2nd generation antihistamines? | 1st generation |
| What is an antitussive? | a drug that suppresses cough |
| What drug classifications are used to treat heart failure? | loop diuretics, digoxin, & ACE inhibitors |
| What drug category is now considered the "cornerstone" of heart failure therapy because it both improves functional status and prolongs life? | ACE inhibitors |
| This drug category used to be considered an absolute contraindication for patients with heart failure, but now there are 3 drugs in this category approved for treatment of heart failure. | beta blockers |
| What electrolyte is critical to keep in a normal range for patients taking digoxin? | potassium (K+) |
| Digoxin is an positive inotropic agent. What does positive inotropic mean? | increases heart contractility |
| The vasodilation that occurs with organic nitrates; involves the conversion of nitrate. What is the name of its active form? | nitric oxide |
| In what formulation is Nitroglycerin available? | sublingual tablets, sustained-release oral capsules, transdermal delivery systems, or Intravenous solutions. |
| What drug classifications are used to treat patients with angina? | beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, and organic nitrates |
| What drugs represents the newest class of antianginal agents to be approved? | ranolazine |
| What drug should the nurse give a patient who is having an angina attack to quickly relieve the pain? | nitroglycerin |
| In reviewing the history of a patient newly admitted to the cardiac unit, the nurse knows that the patient would have a contraindication to antilipemic therapy if which condition is present? | liver disease |
| What drug classifications is the first line of therapy for patients with high lipid levels due to ability to decrease mortality? | HMG-Co A (statins) |
| HMG-Co A (Statins) are given to patients without high cholesterol to prevent coronary heart disease in high risk populations. T or F? | True |
| Which cholesterol medication has the side effect of facial flushing that limits therapy in many individuals? | nicotininc acid (Niacin) |
| What is an antidote to heparin overdose? | protamine sulfate |
| Which laboratory tests are used to monitor the effects of drug therapy with warfarin (Coumadin)? | PT, INR |
| Name a drug that is considered an antiplatelet agent? | aspirin |
| Which drug therapy is used to prevent deep vein thrombosis in postoperative patients? | enoxaprin (Lovenox) |
| What is the major side effect of all anticoagulant agents? | bleeding |
| What dietary teaching is of critical importance for patient taking warfarin (Coumadin)? | balance intake of foods with vitamin K |
| The nurse is performing a physical assessment on a patient with tuberculosis who takes rifampin (Rifadin). What would be an expected finding? | red-orange tinged urine |
| A patient is beginning therapy for active tuberculosis (TB). The patient asks, "Why do I have to take so many drugs?" What is the nurse's best response? | "Multiple agents prevent the emergence of resistant organisms." |
| The nurse is caring for a patient with HIV/AIDS who has taken protease inhibitors for 18 months. The patient has been diagnosed with active tuberculosis. The nurse would not expect the addition of which drug to the patient's medication regimen? | rifampin (Rifadin) |
| An adult has active tuberculosis, as diagnosed by sputum examination and culture. In evaluating the patient's response to therapy, the nurse would expect to see which finding? | improved X-ray report within 3 months |
| The nurse describes a typical treatment course of therapy to a patient newly diagnosed with active tuberculosis. Which description is the most accurate? | "The entire course should take 6 months; the first 2 months with four drugs, and the last 4 months with two drugs." |
| A 65 year old patient being followed for latent TB has been on INH therapy for 2 months. While reviewing the laboratory test results, the nurse notes that the liver function test results have become grossly abnormal. The nurse should instruct the pt to: | stop the medication immediately, and expect other drugs to be prescribed |
| The nurse is caring for a patient taking INH for latent tuberculosis. What clinical manifestation would most concern the nurse related to INH therapy? | numbness in fingers and difficulty buttoning shirts |
| The nurse is providing care to a patient with tuberculosis who is taking ethambutol (Myambutol). Which statement by the patient indicates a correct understanding of the effects of ethambutol? | "I will need to have my eyes checked periodically while I am taking this drug." |
| A patient is taking pyrazinamide (PZA) as a component of a multidrug regimen for tuberculosis. Which co-morbid condition in the patient's health history would most concern the nurse? | cirrhosis |
| When assessing a patient for adverse reactions to the combination of isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin), the nurse would monitor which laboratory results? | liver function tests (LFTs) |
| Adrenergic Receptors Alpha 1 | BLOOD VESSELS (Vasoconstricts), eyes, male sex organs, prostatic capsule, and bladder |
| Adrenergic Receptors Alpha 2 | Located in nerve terminals & not on organs. Regulates transmitter release (inhibits). |
| Adrenergic Receptors Beta 1 | HEART & KIDNEY, Heart: Inc. HR, Inc. force of contraction, Inc. velocity of impulse through AV node. Kidney: Inc. renin release, angiotensin release, and vasoconstriction. |
| Adrenergic Receptors Beta 2 | LUNGS: Bronchodilate, Inc. HR, uterus relaxation, blood vessels, vasodilation, promote glycogenolysis in the liver. |
| Dopamine | Dilates renal blood flow and increase perfusion. |
| Bethanechol (Urecholine) | Parasympathetics/Muscarinics Use: Nonobstructive urine retention Avoid in pts w asthma (constricts breathing). Avoid in pts w SBO (bowel perforation). |
| Atropine (Atropair) | Anticholinergic/Muscarinic antagonist Think fight or flight: Inc. HR, dilate pupils (mydriasis), IBS. Antidote: physostigmine (cholinesterase inhibitor). |
| Cholinergic Crisis | Can't see, Can't pee, Can't spit, and Can't shit. |
| Epinephrine | Adrenergic agonist/Catecholamine Activates alpha 1, alpha 2, beta 1, & beta 2. Use: Cardiac arrest, anaphylaxis, bronchodilation, vasoconstriction. SE: Hyperglycemia (beta 2), hypertensive crisis, extravasation |
| prazosin (Minipress) | Adrenergic antagonist (alpha selective)/Anti-adrenergic Edcaution: Take at bed time SE: Orthostatic hypotension Use: Dec. BP, BPH |
| propanolol (Inderal) | Adrenergic antagonist (beta non-selective). Blocks beta 1 & 2. Avoid in pts w asthma. SE: AV heart block, Hypoglycemia, rebound cardiac excitation. Use: HTN, MI, Angina, dysrhythmias |
| Propanolol (Inderal) is contraindicated for a client who have? | Asthma |
| What statement is true about antidepressants and suicide risk? | Suicide risk is greatest for younger patients (under age 25) taking antidepressants. |
| The most common adverse effects of tricyclic antidepressants include: | orthostatic hypotension, sedation and anticholinergic side effects |
| Patients who are taking MAOI for depression will experience ________ _______ when they eat tyramine rich foods. | hypertensive crisis |
| Bupriopion, an atypical antidepressant is used not only for depression but is also effective as______________. | an aid to quit smoking. |
| The antidote for benzodiazepine overdose is ____________________. | flumazenil |
| Barbituates have a better safety profile than benzodiazepines. True or False | False |
| Which of the following drug categories has the highest potential for abuse? | barbituates |
| What classes of drugs are used most for anxiety disorders? | benzodiazepines and SSRI |
| What signs and symptoms are part of serotonin syndrome? | fever and sweats, altered mental status, and tremors |
| What drug classes/ drugs are used for treatment of insomnia? | benzodiazepines, benzodiazipine-like drugs, and ramelteon (Rozerem) |
| What is calcium carbonate? | calcium supplement |
| What is calcitrol? | vitamin D therapy |
| What is alendronate (Fosamax)? | biphosphonate |
| What is evista (Raloxifene)? | SERM (selective estrogen receptor modulator) |
| What is methotrexate (Rheumatrex)? | DMARD (disease modifying antirheumatic drug) |
| What does allopurinol (Zyloprim) do? | decreases uric acid levels |
| What is colchicine? | anti-inflammatory gout agent |
| What gout medication is used for an acute attack and may cause gastric upset? | colchicine |
| Drugs used to be reserved for advanced rheumatoid arthritis, but are now being used within 3 months of rheumatoid arthritis diagnosis because they can delay joint degeneration. | disease modifying drugs (DMARDs) |
| Methotrexate can be used to treat rheumatoid arthritis. What other condition is it used for? | Cancer |
| Based on the client's prolonged use of topical glucocorticoid therapy, the nurse assesses the client for what adverse effect? | atrophy of the dermis |
| Nursing implications of the new biologic agents for the management of psoriasis include: | monitor for clinical manifestations of infection |
| The drug used to treat male-pattern baldness is which of the following? | minoxidil (Rogaine) |
| What drug classifications are used to treat glaucoma? | beta-adrenergic blockers like timolol (Timoptic), prostaglandin analogs like latanoprost (Xalatan), and direct acting cholinergic agonist like pilocarpine. |
| What are drugs that dilate pupils called? | mydriatics |
| Patients with glaucoma should not be given which classification of drugs as they may increase intraocular pressure? | anticholinergics |
| The nurse is working with a patient that will be starting isotretinoin (Accutane) for treatment of severe disfiguring acne. What lab result is critical for the nurse to obtain prior to the patient starting this therapy? | negative pregnancy tests |
| High dose amoxicillin is the drug of choice for patients with acute otitis media that need antibiotic therapy. What is beneficial about this drug therapy? | efficacy, narrow spectrum antibiotic, and low cost |
| What is an appropriate strategy to prevent acute otitis media in children? | eliminate exposure to tobacco smoke |
| What drug classification is used for treatment of acne | tar therapy |
Created by:
tbrobinson24
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