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blood & lymph test

blood and lymph

QuestionAnswer
calculation for blood volume 0.7 x weight (kg)
what is thrombocytopenia? low platelet count
what does Pernicious mean? deadly fatal
what is Pancytopenic? when all three major blood elements are reduced or absent
what is Myeloproliferative? excessive bone marrow production
what is Multiple Myeloma? immunodeficiency of the bone marrow
what is Lymphedema? lymph vessels are clogged
what is Lymphangitis? inflammation of the lymphatic vessels
what is Leucopenia? low WBC count
describe the disorder of Leukemia too many WBC's accumulating in bone marrow
what is Hemarthrosis? bleeding into the joints
what is Heterozygous? having two different genes
what is Homozygous? having two identical genes
what is Hemophilia? hereditary coagulation disorder caused by lack of factor VIII
what is Erythrocytosis? abnormal increase of circulating RBC's
What is Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation? widestream clotting AND bleeding (losing clotting factors during hemorrhage)
what is Aplasia? blood cell not developing normally
Rh factor also known as? Reese's Factor
The lymphatic system helps to mature what? Lymphocytes (WBC's)
Where does Lymph fluid exchange occur? capillary beds
Lymph vessels are connected directly to what? Circulatory System
How many Lymph nodes are in the body? 500-600
How much blood does the Spleen store? 500 ml's (1 pint)
Which organ produces RBC's before birth? Spleen
Describe the area of the Pulpa in the Spleen. area that surrounds the lymph follicle
Which gland in the body develops the immune system after birth? Thymus
What happens to the Thymus at puberty? Atrophies, replaced by fat
What WBC is the initial responder to any invasion? Neutrophil
What does the Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) measure? the average volume or size of a single RBC
What does the Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin (MCH) measure? the average amount of Hemoglobin within an RBC
What does the Peripheral Smear identify? examines size, shape, and structure of RBC's, WBC's, and platelets
Name one identifying factor of Pernicious Anemia. B12 deficiency
What does the Schilling's Test and Megaloblastic Anemia Profile indicate? measures the excretion and absorption of Vitamin B12
Gastric Analysis identifies presence of? Intrinsic Factor (absorption)
Describe a Lymphangiography Contrast medium injected into lymphatic vessels to identify blockage or metastasis
What is the most common site for bone marrow aspiration? Iliac Crest
What should you do before ANY contrast injection? assess kidney function and assess allergies
One important nursing intervention post bone marrow aspiration limit pt activity for 30 minutes
Long term iron deficiency leads to what? Iron Deficiency Anemia
Three clinical manifestations of Anemia Anorexia, Pallor, SOB
What is a Reticulocyte? Immature RBC
Age requirement for bone marrow transplant <50 years old with donor
Why would you avoid blood transplant in Anemic patient? to prevent iron overload and development of antibodies
How much blood loss can be tolerated? <500 ml's
Integumentary manifestation of hypovolemic anemia Pale, cool, moist skin
Name a volume expander Dextran
Two types of Crystalloids NS/LR
What is B12 essential for? blood formation, central nervous system, growth and maturation of body cells
Where does the body store B12 reserves? Liver
Etiology of Pernicious Anemia Autoimmune disorder, affects absorption of B12 via loss of intrinsic factor, long term pathophysiology seen in older adults, leads to many large immature RBC's
In which patients are Megaloblasts seen? Pernicious Anemia
Objective manifestations of Pernicious Anemia Erythematous (raw beef) Tongue, infection of teeth and gums, disorientation, partial/total paralysis
Medical management for Pernicious Anemia long term drug therapy (B12 replacement), folic acid and iron supplements, CBC Q3-6mos
Teaching for Anemia patients space out ADL's, frequent rest periods
What is oral leukoplakia? white patch on tongue
Four manifestations of Aplastic Anemia Repeated infections with high fever, Dyspnea, palpitations, bleeding tendencies
Diagnostic test for Aplastic Anemia Bone marrow biopsy "dry tap"
Etiology of Aplastic Anemia bone stops renewing RBC's and red marrow turns to fatty yellowish marrow
What are the two managements for Aplastic Anemia? Drug Therapy, Marrow Transplant
What are the two drugs used for Aplastic Anemia? Steroids and Androgens
Three nursing interventions to prevent bleeding in Aplastic Anemia stop rectal procedures, shaving, and IM injections
Patient teaching for activity intolerance encourage pt's to engage in activities on a progressive basis
Causes of Iron Deficiency Anemia Chronic bleeding of GI tract, ulcers, alcohol abuse, diverticulosis, tumors, heavy menstruation, subtotal gastrectomy
What portion of the GI tract prevents nutrient absorbtion? lining of the small intestine
Common manifestation of Iron Deficiency Anemia Pallor, Glossitis, SOB, S&S typical to Angina
What is Glossitis? Inflammation and soreness of the tongue
What is Phagophagia? Desire to eat ice, clays, or starches
What is Stomatitis? Inflamed oral cavity
Another name for Iron Ferrous Sulfate
Which vitamin helps with absorbtion of iron? Vitamin C
Foods high in iron organ meats, leafy vegetables, raisins, egg yolk
What is the most common genetic disorder in U.S? Sickle Cell Anemia
What makes the RBC sickled? Hemoglobin S - a defective molecule (normal is Hemoglobin A)
What is the number one problem in Sickle Cell Anemia? PAIN
Precipitating factors in Sickle Cell Anemia Dehydration, Infection, Overexertion, weather changes
Why is the abdomen enlarged in sickle cell anemia patients? pooling of blood in liver, spleen, and other organs
Diagnostic test for Sickle Cell Anemia Hemoglobin Electrophoresis
Etiology of Polycythemia hyperplasia of bone marrow causing increase in erythrocytes, granulocytes, and platelets
What is the difference between primary and secondary Polycythemia? Secondary caused by hypoxia rather than defect in evolution of RBC's, physiologic response to hypoxia not pathologic
Multiorgan involvement predisposes the patient to what? infarctions of vital organs
Manifestations of Polycythemia Splenomegaly, Hepatomegaly, Venous distention, platelet dysfunction causing esophageal varices, epistaxis, GI bleeding, petechiae
Subjective assessment with Polycythemia Sensitivity to hot and cold, itchy skin, vertigo, tinnitus
Objective assessment with Polycythemia Dermatological changes, HTN
Medical management for Polycythemia removal of blood (500-2000 ml's) until levels normalize, drug therapy to decrease bone marrow response
What is phlebotomy? process of blood removal
Primary intervention for secondary Polycythemia maintain adequate oxygenation
Primary intervention for Polycythemia Vera ensure adequate hydration
What is the major complication of Polycythemia Vera THROMBOSIS
Jehovas Witnesses may receive what kind of blood? Autologous
Manifestations of Agranulocytosis ulcerations of the mucous membranes, flu-like symptoms, bronchial pneumonia & UTI in later stages
Diagnostic procedures for Agranulocytosis bone marrow biopsy, WBC differential, cultures
What are neutropenic precautions? preventing fresh fruit, plants, sick visitors and staff
Management for Agranulocytosis Medication, diet, and rest
Etiology of Leukemia increased WBC's invade organs, bones, and lymph nodes
ANYTHING THAT AFFECTS BONE MARROW AFFECTS WHAT? CNS
Causes for Leukemia exposure to radiation, genetics, viruses
What are the four classifications of Leukemia? ALL, AML, CLL, CML
Possible first sign of Leukemia enlarged lymph nodes, painless splenomegaly
Patient has been sick for a while but unaware Leukemia
What are diagnostic tests looking for in Leukemia? increased WBC's in blood, tissue, bones, and organs
Subjective complaints with Leukemia pain in bones and joints, bruising alot
Objective findings with Leukemia occult blood in stool, bleeding of mucous membranes, infection
Management of Leukemia killing excessive WBC's with chemotherapy
Chlorambucil, Hydroxyurea, Corticosteroids Drugs used for Leukemia
Where is bone marrow harvested from? Hip Bone
Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia survival rate 4-6 mos untreated, increased to 5 years with drug therapy, 50% of kids can be cured
Acute Myelogenous Leukemia survival rate remission with 75% of patients, 25% of patients experience 5 year remission
Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia survival rate early stage 10-12 years, late stage 18 months
Etiology of Multiple Myeloma tumor in middle of marrow moving outward, immunodeficiency disease
Indicator of Multiple Myeloma recurrent bacterial infections
What does CRAB stand for in Multiple Myeloma Calcium Levels, Renal Failure, Anemia, Bone Damage
Main complaint in pt's with Multiple Myeloma BONE PAIN with movement
Primary marker for Multiple Myeloma Bence Jones protein (immunoglobulin) found in blood or urine
Antineoplastic drugs interfere with cell creation
Preparation for bone marrow transplant 4-10 days extreme chemotherapy, marrow transfusion takes 30 days to take hold and function (high risk for infection during this period)
What does the fibrinolytic system do? ensure clotting does not become uncontrolled, dissolves the clot to reestablish perfusion
What are the four steps of coagulation homeostasis? Vessel Spasm, Platelet Plug, Clotting Cascade, Fibrinolysis
How long do the vessel spasm effects last 30 minutes
What converts Prothrombin to Thrombin? Thromboplastin
What is the action of Thrombin? degrades fibrinogen into fibrin
What is the action of Tissue Plasminogen Activator? converts plasminogen into plasmin
What is the action of Plasmin? dissolves fibrin, thereby dissolving the clot
What is Thrombocytopenia? platelets reduced
What fraction of platelets is circulating vs stored? 1/3 stored in spleen, 2/3 circulating
Manifestations of Thrombocytopenia petechiae, bruising, significant/spontaneous bleeding based on severity
Name four causes for Thrombocytopenia recent viral infection, medications, alcohol, history of bleeding tendencies
Objective signs of Thrombocytopenia bleeding gums, epistaxis, tarry dark foul smelling stool, GI bleeding
Medical treatment for Thrombocytopenia CORTISONE, platelet transfusion, plasmapheresis, splenectomy
Nursing interventions for Thrombocytopenia prevent infection, gentle handling, stool softeners and high fiber diet, soft toothbrush, gentle nose blowing
What is the difference in Hemophilia A and Hemophilia B? Hemophilia A most common type (Factor VIII absent), Hemophilia B (Factor IX absent)
Christmas disease also known as? Hemophilia B
Manifestations of Hemophilia large ecchymosis into tissues, muscle deformities, immobile joints, hemarthrosis, excessive bleeding
Medical management for Hemophilia transfusion of missing factors (VIII & IX)
Why should a Hemophiliac avoid obesity? weight puts extra pressure on joints with potential for bleeding
Etiology of DIC over stimulation of clotting and anti-clotting processes, unnecessary clotting in capillaries and lack of clotting where needed
Manifestations for DIC bleeding noted in 3 unrelated sites, diaphoresis with cold and mottled digits
What is hemoptysis? Blood in cough
Objective signs for DIC pulmonary embolism, pulmonary edema, confusion, seizures, hypotension, decreased or absent peripheral pulses
What does a positive D-dimer reveal? elevated levels of fibrin breakdown products
Why is medical management for DIC always treating underlying cause? because DIC is always secondary
What is indicated for volume replacement in DIC? Crystalloids, Transfusions, Vitamin K, Heparin, Aminocaproic Acid, Anti-thrombin III
Why is blood pressure not taken in DIC patients? to minimize subcutaneous bleeding
Six medications that have a thrombocytopenic effect Asprin, Digitalis, Furosemide, NSAIDS, Oral Hypoglycemics, Penicillins
What is the cause of Thrombocytopenia? usually idiopathic
What is Von Willibrand's Disease? abnormally slow coagulation of blood and spontaneous episodes of bleeding
What is the medication becoming the treatment of choice for mild Hemophilia? Desmopressin
Calculation for MAP diastolic x 2 + systolic divided by 3 = MAP
Minimum MAP to maintain perfusion >60 MAP
Lymphangitis is caused by what? acute streptococcal or staphylococcal infection
What is myalgia? muscle pain
Manifestations of Lymphangitis fine red streaks in groin or axilla, not localized, chills fever and local pain
What is Lymphadenopathy? swollen lymph nodes
Management for Lymphadenopathy antimicrobial drugs for infection and hot packs for comfort
Diagnostic test to differentiate lymphedema from venous disorders Lymphangiography
Manifestations for Malignant Lymphoma Pruritus, anemia, weight loss, susceptibility to infection, pleural effusion, bone fractures, paralysis
What does Coombs' test reveal? positive result for antiglobulin (autoimmune response)
Lab results for Malignant Lymphoma increased RBC's, bone scan revealing fractures lesions and tumor infiltration, increased calcium
What percentage of water and protein are in the blood? 90% water, 10% protein
What does monoclonal mean? single cell
cytoxan, oncovin, prednisone, adriamycin, bleomycin, methotrexate chemotherapy agents
What is Rituxan? monoclonal antibody therapy to eliminate malignant cells and induce remission
What are autologous grafts? transplants taken directly from the recipient
What are allogenic grafts? transplants from donor tissue
What are Tumor Necrosis Factor and Interferon used for? Immune system stimulator in bone marrow transplants
Traditional regimen for Hodgkin's disease MOPP
What does MOPP stand for? Mustargen, Oncovin, Matulane, Prednisone
What does ABVD stand for? Adriamycin, Blenoxane, Velban, DTIC-DOME
What is Neupogen used for? stimulates proliferation and differentiation of neutrophils
Three nursing interventions for Hodgkins soothing baths, control fever and perspiration, meticulous skin care
How many stages exist for Hodgkins Lymphoma? 4
What is differentiated in the staging of Hodgkins Lymphoma? Stage I: single lymph node, Stage II: two lymph nodes on same side of diaphragm, Stage III: abnormal lymph nodes on both sides of diaphragm, may involve spleen, Stage IV: disseminated involvement of one or more tissues with identifiable organ sites
What does attenuated mean? weakening the degree of virulence of a disease organism
What is an Antigen? substance recognized by body as foreign that can trigger an immune response
What is cellular immunity dominated by? T cells
What is Humoral immunity dominated by? B cells
What is innate immunity? body's first line of defense, protects the body against the external environment
What is Lymphokine? chemical factor released by T cells to engage macrophages and prepare them for attack
What is plasmapheresis? removal of plasma that contains contaminants
Innate Immunity also know as non-specific immunity, external
Which immunity is the body's last line of defense? Humoral Immunity
What are CD4 cells? T-helper cells that assist B cells to secrete appropriate antibody
What is Lupus? occurs when body produces antibodies against its own cells, attacks RBC's WBC's and organs
What is Raynauds Syndrome? blue extremity tips, cold hands, bad circulation, cool and clammy
What is the most common complication of Lupus? Anemia
What is the Rheumatoid Factor test used for? to rule out Rheumatoid Arthritis
What is citrate used for? anticoagulant, may cause hypocalcemia
What does a cell count <200 indicate? host has AIDS
What do CD4+Lymphocytes help with? recognize and defend against foreign invaders
What is ELISA used for? to detect certain bacterial antigens and antibodies
What is Kaposi's Sarcoma? a rare cancer of the skin, blue red or purple raised lesions
What is Pneumocystis Carinii Pneumonia? unusual pulmonary disease caused by a fungus
What is a retrovirus? virus that carries it's genetic material in RNA and replicates by converting RNA into DNA
What is seroconversion? development of detectable level of HIV antibodies in the blood
What is IV Retrovir used for? to prevent transmission of AIDS
What is the gold standard for HIV? Western Blot (analyzes small amounts of antibodies)
Most common HIV? HIV1 (HIV2 is less virulent)
What types of manifestations occur with HIV patients? flu-like symptoms
When does Seroconversion take place? 5 days to three months aafter exposure
Another name for CD4 T-helper cell
Another name for CD8 T-suppressor cell
What is a normal CD4 level? 600-1200
What are the differences in A1, A2, and A3 A1: CD4 >500, A2: CD4 @ 200-499, A3: CD4 <200
After exposure, how long does it take to detect HIV antibodies? 1-12 weeks
Manifestations of HIV non-productive cough, progressive SOB, pneumonia, vesicular eruptions, shingles, rash
GI Manifestations of HIV watery diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, gastritis, esophagitis
What are the diagnostic tests for HIV? ELISA, Enzyme Immunoassay, Viral Load, CD4 count, CBC
What is IGG used for? to boost immunity
What does the Titer check? levels of immunity
What are thimerisol, neomycin, gelatin, and egg protein? preservatives that most vaccines carry
Signs of allergic reaction after immunization swelling of eyes face or nares, fever over 103F, dyspnea, Hives, convulsions
medications to prevent transplantation reactions Imuran, cyclosporine, mycophenolate
medications to prevent acute organ rejection basiliximab, daclizumab, sirolimus
Prevention of ALLOGENIC liver transplant Tacrolimus
What side effect is the classic sign of steroid use? Moon Face
Created by: raoullopez
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