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Micro Bio Exam 2
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Chemical reactions occurring within an organism is called | metabolism |
| Biosynthesis/building of molecules with an organism is known as | anabolism. |
| Catabolism is energy | yielding. |
| Metabolic breakdown of molecules with an organism is called | catabolism. |
| Anabolism is energy | requiring. |
| Energy is released when a compound is | oxidized. |
| When a compound is reduced energy is | required. |
| Chemoautotroph aka lithotrophs are the name of bacteria that derive their energy from | reducing simple chemical compounds. |
| Three examples of simple chemical compounds that lithotrophs reduce are | H2S CH4 and NH4+. |
| Bacteria that use light to make their own energy are known as | photoautrophs. |
| Heterotrophs are | a type of bacteria that gets its energy from organic compounds. |
| Three types of organic compounds that heterotrophs can get their energy from are | carbohydrates lipids and proteins. |
| These are used to break down polymers | secrete enzymes. |
| Secrete enzymes break down polymers into what before transportation into cell | monomers. |
| Active transportation | A transportation that works against the concentration gradient and require energy as it moves ONLY from out to in. |
| Group translocation | Similar to active transport group translocation is a membrane protein function transport that requires energy to bring in molecules and then chemically modifies them so they are too big to leave the cell. |
| When cellulose is an insoluble (answer 1) secrete enzymes are added to cellulose to degrade it into (answer 2) that can be transported into the cell or degraded even more into (answer 3) which is transported in the cell | 1polymer 2cellobiose 3glucose |
| Three types of energy | 1ATP 2NADH or 3FADH2 |
| Name three types of glucose pathways | 1glycolysis 2pentose phosphate 3Entner Douderdoff |
| Lipids use this kind of pathway | beta oxidation |
| Amino acids (as monomers) and proteins (and polymers) use this pathway | proteolysis |
| This pathway is used most for eukaryote cells and numerous anaerobic and facultative anaerobic bacteria | glycolysis |
| Anaerobic bacteria can | survive without oxygen |
| What is the equation for glycolysis | glucose + 2 NAD+ + 2 Pi + 2ADP = 2 pyruvate+ 2ATP + 2 NADH |
| Glucose is a | six carbon sugar |
| Glycloysis transforms glucose into a | three carbon pyruvate |
| Which glucose pathway is the most energetically lucrative | glycolysis |
| What is the equation for Entner-Douderoff Pathway | 1 glucose + 2NADP+ + ADP + Pi= 2 pyrucate + 2NADPH + ATP |
| Aerobic bacteria need what to survive | oxygen |
| ED pathways are used for what kind of bacteria | aerobic. |
| An example of ED pathway is | Pseudomonas sp |
| Ribose is found where | DNA and RNA. |
| Pentose Phosphate Pathway generates these three things | Ribose NADPH and Erythrose 4-P |
| Krebs Cycle is also known as | Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle or Citric Acid Cycle |
| Krebs cycle produces | NADH FADH ATP and CO2 |
| T/F Krebs cycle is a closed cycle | False |
| What does a full Krebs cycle start and end with | 6 carbon and 4 carbon organic acid |
| Substrate Level Phosphorylation | Process of a three carbon substrare being broken down into energy and placed on 2 ADP molecules to make ATP. |
| This occurs once in Krebs Cycle and twice in Glycolysis | Substrate level phosphorylation. |
| Inorganic compounds are two or more | non carbon molecules |
| Respiration uses the | Electron transport chain. |
| Respiration usually uses this compound as its final electron acceptor | O2 |
| Anaerobic catabolism can use what three inorganic compounds as their final electron acceptor | NO3 SO4 and FE |
| Electron transport chain | the process where electrons are carried by NADH and FADH2 from glycolysis or the Krebs Cycle to the proton gradient membrane. |
| During ETC the electron is dumped which allows the protons to cross | proton gradient membrane |
| After the electron is dumped this returns for more electrons | NAD+ |
| Oxidative Phosphorylation is also called | chemiosmosis |
| If bacteria do not have ETC or choose not to use it they use | fermentation. |
| Catabolic reactions have two main purposes | break down polymers to building blocks and capture and store energy |
| Bacteria use energy to: | Motility Membrane transport and Biosynthesis |
| Not all bacteria has the ability to move aka as | motility. |
| Entry of (answer 1) into the cell drives the turbine controlled by the (answer 2) in a flagellar basal body for flaggelar motility | H+ Proton Motive Force |
| Anabolism is necessary for cell components to grow and is also known as | biosynthesis |
| This energy is used to accomplish active transportation | AT |
| Bacteria can make these metabolic components that eukaryotes can’t: | Amino Acids Carbohydrates and Vitamins |
| Biosynthetic Process goes from answer 1 (such as NH3 and answer 2) -> answer three (amino acid)-> answer 4 (answer 5) | Simple Compounds /Pyruvate/Monomers/Polymers/ Proteins |
| The biosynthesis of proteins from amino acids to proteins is called | transcription. |
| Anabolism | the biosynthesis of molecules within the cell |
| Usually hundred of monomer amino acids form | one polymer protein chain |
| This dictates the amino acid sequence | DNA |
| Bacterial DNA is : | double stranded Anti-Parallel one chromosome A/T G/C |
| Transcription | the process where DNA is transcribed into mRNA |
| In transcription DNA is which strand | the template strand. |
| mRNA becomes which strand | the coding strand. |
| Transcription is broken down into three steps : | Initiation Elongation and Termination |
| During transcription mRNA is made in what direction? | 5’ to 3’ |
| Requirements for Transcription Initiation are: | RNA polymerase Promoter and Sigma Factor |
| Promoters have two consensus sequences known as | -10 and -35 |
| TTGACA is the | -35 |
| -10 is what base sequence | TATAAT |
| TATAAT is known as what two things | -10 or Pribnow box |
| Weak promoters | promoters that are close to the base sequence but not exact so the RNA polymerase has a difficult time fitting on it and thus does not make as many copies. |
| Sigma factor | attaches to the RNA polymerase and guides it to the promoter then falls off. |
| RNA polymerase | is sucky at its job and needs sigma factor to help it find the promoter and then unwinds the two DNA strands to start copying the DNA into mRNA. |
| RNA polymerase + sigma factor = | RNA holoenzyme |
| Which promoter makes a lot of copies? | Strong |
| DNA is unwound in Transcription Initation when answer 1 binds to DNA using answer 2 | RNA holoenzyme / helicase activity |
| RNA polymerase synthesizes answer 1 which is made in what direction? | mRNA 5’ to 3’ |
| Two types of Transcription Termination are | Rho dependent and Rho-Independent (intrinsic) |
| This is the termination that uses the stem-loop made of answer 1 bonds (with answer 2 hydrogen bonds) followed by a stretch of A-U bonds (which have answer 3 hydrogen bonds) which causes answer 4 and transcript to fall off answer 5 | Rho independent/ C-G/ 3/2/RNA polymerase |
| In Rho dependent termination answer 1 unwinds RNA-DNA complex which causes answer 2 to dissociate | helicase activity/ RNA polymerase |
| During answer 1 RNA polymerase synthesis answer 2 from answer 3. | Transcription, mRNA, DNA |
| In answer 1 mRNA is answer 2 into answer 3 | Translation, read and translated, amino acids. |
| 1 codon = ___________ = ____________ | 3 bases, 1 amino acid |
| Ribosomes bind where and to what? | Bind to mRNA at the Shine-Dalgarno sequence |
| 1st AUG codon = ______________; every subsequent AUG = _____________________ | fMET, methionine |
| Initiation complex= __ + ____________+ _____+ _____- _____ | 30S +50S subunit +mRNA +fmet-tRNA |
| Translation Elongation has 3 binding sites in the ____________ for tRNA: ________ (exit site), P site (___________ or _________), and A site (___________ or _________ or _______) | Ribosome, E site, (peptidyle), donor site, Arrival site, acceptor site, or aminoacyl |
| This site contains tRNA with growing peptide chain: | P site |
| Transpeptidation is | the enzyme that moves the growing chain of polypeptides |
| Transpeptidation is catalyzed by | Peptidyl transferase |
| Transpeptidation occurs where? | Between the P and the A sites |
| Step 1 Peptide formation: Aminoacyl-tRNA arrives at the which site? | A site |
| Step 2 Peptide formation: Involves translocation which is what? | When the empty tRNA exits from the E site, the growing chain moves from A to P site, and a new chain arrives at the A site |
| These nonsense codons stop synthesis of tRNA | UAA, UAG, UGA |
| When a stop codon appears what three things aid in termination? | Release Factors 1, 2, 3 |
| Peptide chains can begin folding into what during synthesis. | Proteins |
| T/F Can translation begin before transcription? | Yes! |
| Constitutive expression | When a gene is always expressed |
| A gene that can be turned on/ off like an oven is called | an inducible gene expression |
| T/F All 5000+ genes in the chromosome are expressed all the time. | False, energetically expensive! |
| What regions on the DNA are upstream of the gene/genes that are regulated. | Regulatory regions |
| Another name for a regulatory region | a promoter |
| Regulatory regions are used to | turn genes on or off |
| T/F Regulatory regions can only control one gene. | False |
| Two or more genes transcribed from a single promoter. | Operon |
| This is when a bacteria will have genes on to eat/catabolize one nutrient and then turn those genes off and another set on to eat a different nutrient. | Diauxic Growth |
| Ex of Diauxic Growth | E. coli will first eat glucose and then switch genes to be able to eat lactose |
| What Control is at the level of DNA? | Transcriptional control |
| Give five examples of transcription control. | Positive control, Negative control, Diauxic Growth, Attenuation, Two component phospohrely system. |
| Translation control is at the level of | Level of mRNA |
| Control at the level of protein/enzymatic level is called | Protein control |
| This protein helps to activate what and binds upstream of the promoter : | Regulatory proteins |
| What is it called when regulatory proteins promote transcriptional initiation? | Positive control |
| What is binding to DNA at the activator binding site and promotes transcription? | Regulatory protein called activator protein. |
| Negative control | When repressors shut down transcription/ inhibits transcriptions initation by binding downstream of the promoter and physically blocking the RNA polymerase from moving to transcribe the DNA. |
| The two-component phosphorelay system has two components: | Sensor and Response-Regulator |
| Sensor | Is a protein found in the membrane and senses external changes (ex. Temp or oxygen) |
| Response-Regulator | Recieves signal from sensor to shut down or turn on protein/ genes |
| This is something that has the capability to turn on/off more than one operon! | Global Regulator |
| Quorum sensing | Is when bacteria can send out signals to count their population |
| Control at the enzyme level are broken into three section : | Affinity of enzyme for product, Allosteric regulation, covalent modification |
| Affinity of enzyme for products | Is when increased substrate leads to increased velocity. |
| This is when an end product is formed that may inhibit biosynthesis. | Allosteric Regulation |
| Active site | Where the substrate binds during allosteric regulation |
| What can turn up or down the enzyme activity levels during allosteric regulation? | Allosteric site |
| Three examples of chemical groups that can add to enzymes in covalent modification | Methyl, phosphate, AMP/ADP |
| Attenuation | Control at the transcriptional level where only some mRNA gets made so the bacteria does not have too much of one thing. |
| Example of Attenuation | trp operon |
| This is a piece of DNA that codes for one product (ex: protein) | gene |
| Genetic characteristics of an organism like a toxic gene are known as | genotypes |
| Phenotypes | whether a gene is expressed or not/ physical visible characteristics of an organism |
| Name the two methods for genetic variability: | Mutation and recombination |
| A small change in a DNA sequence that becomes hereditary is known as a | Mutation |
| Recombination is | Process that leads to new combinations of genes on a chromosome. |
| How often does a mutation occur? | 1 in every 1 million |
| Mutations can be induced by a | Mutagen |
| Mutagens | increase the mutation rates. |
| Define point mutation | When a base pair of the DNA is altered |
| What are the three types of point mutation? | Silent Mutation, Missense Mutation, and Nonsense Mutation |
| Which mutation occurs when the genotype is different, but the phenotype is not different, as the alteration to the base pair results in the same amino acid? | Silent Mutation |
| Missense Mutation | Results in an alteration of base pair which causes a change in the amino acid. |
| T/F Missense mutations have a different phenotype and genotype? | Both! Depends on whether it is so important it effects the protein structure |
| This mutation occurs in the alteration of a base pair and results in a stop codon. | Nonsense Mutation |
| Nonsense mutation leads | Early termination of the peptide chain and an altered protein structure/ function. |
| This is when a protein stops, and almost always changes the phenotype. | Nonsense Mutation |
| This mutation results in a shift in codon reading, changing every amino acid until the stop codon. | Frame Shift Mutation |
| Auxotroph | An organism that once could make a nutrient for itself but mutation occurred and it no longer can produce that nutrient. |
| What is the name for the parent of an auxotroph? | Prototroph |
| This is when a second mutation (back mutation) reverses the effects of the first mutation. | Reversion |
| What test determines if a chemical is mutagenic? | Ames Test |
| What is a histidine auxotroph? | A bacteria that once could produce the histidine protein but due to a mutation can no longer and must be given it. |
| In the Ames test an increase in reversion rate means that the chemical being tested is | a potential mutagen/ carcinogen |
| This is when new, foreign DNA is incorporated into the chromosome | Genetic Transfer |
| Once foreign DNA is incorporated into the cell it is now called | a recombinant organism |
| Name three mechanisms/types of genetic transfer: | Transformation, Transduction, Conjugation |
| Transformation | A really common form of genetic transform when naked DNA is taken up by the cell and is homologous enough to recombination. |
| Who initially did Transformation work in England? | Frederick Griffith |
| Conjugation | Involves plasmid DNA and sex pilius to have bacterial sex. |
| Transduction | When a virus infects a bacterial cell and while making and enclosing copies of itself will accidentally copy some of the host bacterial DNA and inject it into the new host cell. |
| Bacteriostatic | Slows down the growth of bacteria |
| Bacteriocidal | Kills the bacteria |
| Sterilization | Kills all bacteria and spores, used in hospitals. |
| Disinfectant | Substance that kills vegetative cells and is used on inanimate objects. |
| Antiseptic: | Disinfectant safe for animate objects |
| Sanitize | Reduce microbial population to safe levels (pasteurization) |
| A “death” of a microbe results in | The microbe being unable to grow or reproduce. |
| T/F Antimicrobial agents kill instantly. | False |
| This is the time required to kill 90% of the microbes or spores in a sample. | Decimal Reduction Time |
| Name five factors that affect D value: | Concentration levels, temperature, Physical/chemical environment, microbial load/population, and population composition. |
| This is when the more microbes there are the longer it will take to kill them all. | Microbial load/population |
| Population composition | What mixture of microbials are in the composition |
| The more concentrated an antimicrobial agent is, the shorter time to kill the microbes is called | Intensity/Concentration |
| Lower concentration of a concentration can be more effective if used at what kind of temperature. | Higher |
| Antimicrobial agents target these five places in the cell : | DNA, Ribosomes, Key enzymes, Cell wall, and Membrane |
| Name seven types of physical agents: | High temperature, Low temperature, dessication, osmotic pressure, filtration, radiation, and oxygen exclusion. |
| This is steam under pressure and used in hospitals, although it will melts some items. | Autoclave |
| What are the conditions of autoclaving? | 121 °C, 15 psi, 15 minues |
| What disinfects but does not sterilize as spores are not killed and is under higher temperature, moist and not under pressure. | Boiling |
| Sterilization | is at suboiling temperatures and sanitizes liquids, not STERILIZE usually at 30 minutes & 62.8 °C. |
| HTST | stands for High Temperature/Short Time and is at 71.7C for 15 seconds. |
| UHT | stands for Ultra high temperature and is at 141°C for 2 seconds. |
| Dessication | The drying/ removing of water and is biostatic. |
| Example of dessication | food preservation; dry noodles; dried herbs/spices |
| This is the process removed the water from cells using high concentrations of salt and sugar. | Osmotic pressure |
| Two types of radiation are : | Ionizing and Non-Ionizing |
| T/F Both types of radiation end in damaged DNA. | True |
| Which radiation penetrates deeply using gamma rays? | Ionizing |
| Which radiation is good for surface sterilization? | Non-Ionizing |
| Which rays does non-ionizing use? | UV Rays |
| Vacuum packing meat is an example of | oxygen exclusion |
| Will facultative anaerobes or aerobes grow in oxygen exclusion? | Yes |
| Who was the first man to use disinfectants such as phenol during operations? | Lister |
| Semmelweis | Reduces childbed fever but instilling handwashing techniques. |
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victoria_verney
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