Busy. Please wait.
or

show password
Forgot Password?

Don't have an account?  Sign up 
or

Username is available taken
show password

why


Make sure to remember your password. If you forget it there is no way for StudyStack to send you a reset link. You would need to create a new account.
We do not share your email address with others. It is only used to allow you to reset your password. For details read our Privacy Policy and Terms of Service.


Already a StudyStack user? Log In

Reset Password
Enter the associated with your account, and we'll email you a link to reset your password.
Don't know
Know
remaining cards
Save
0:01
To flip the current card, click it or press the Spacebar key.  To move the current card to one of the three colored boxes, click on the box.  You may also press the UP ARROW key to move the card to the "Know" box, the DOWN ARROW key to move the card to the "Don't know" box, or the RIGHT ARROW key to move the card to the Remaining box.  You may also click on the card displayed in any of the three boxes to bring that card back to the center.

Pass complete!

"Know" box contains:
Time elapsed:
Retries:
restart all cards
share
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.

  Normal Size     Small Size show me how

Microbiology

QuestionAnswer
Describe the cell wall of Gram + bacteria from outer to inner. 1. capsule 2. thick peptidoglycan cell wall 3. thin inner membrane
Describe the cell wall of Gram - bacteria from outer to inner. 1. capsule 2. outer membrane 3. thin peptidoglycan cell wall 4. inner membrane
What is the virulence of the bacterial capsule? makes the microbe anti-phagocytic
1. What does S. aureus aquire that renders it resistant to penicillin? 2. What does S. aureus aquire that renders it resistant to methicillin 1. β-lactamase 2. Novel penicillin binding protein
What two genera of medically relevant bacteria are capable of forming spores? Bacillus and Clostridium
Microbes responsible for neonatal meningitis 1. Group B strep (Strep. agalactiae) 2. Listeria monocytogenes 3. E. coli
What are the two microbes that commonly cause urinary tract infections? 1. E. coli 2. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
1. What causes Rheumatic fever? 2. Which type of hypersensitivity is it? 3. Rheumatic fever can present after which illness is left untreated? 1. autoimmune cross-reaction between anti-streptococcal antibodies and antigens of joint and heart tissue 2. Type II Hypersensitivity 3. Str. pyogenes pharyngitis
1. What cause poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis? 2. Which type of hypersensitivity is it? 1. immune complexes of anti-streptococcal antibodies are deposited on the glomerular basement membrane and activate complement 2. Type III Hypersensitivity
What is the most likely cause of endocarditis: 1. IV drug user 2. native heart valve 3. prosthetic heart valve 4. following GI/GU surgery 1. S. aureus 2. Viridans streptococci 3. S. epidermidis 4. Enterococcus faecalis
Which microbes are individuals with chronic granulomatous disease most susceptible to? Why? 1. catalase positive organisms: S. aureaus Pseudomonas Capacia Serratia Nocardia Aspergillus 2. Chronic granulomatous patients have impaired neutrophils with NADPH oxidase deficiency and are susceptible to catalase positive organisms
What blood test can check for a Str. pyogenes infection? ASO antibodies
What are the two superantigens? TSST-1 from S. aureus and erythrogenic toxin from S. pyogenes
What causes disseminated intravascular coagulation in toxic shock syndrome? Lipid A activates Hageman factor (II) of the intrinsic pathway
Which microbe opportunistically causes UTIs when normal body flora is suppressed by cephalosporins? Enterococcus faecalis
Which microbe is a Gram + diplococci? Str. pneumoniae
Diarrhea presents after an antibiotic treatment of Clindamycin or Ampicillin. What is the suspected microbe responsible? Why? C. difficile survives in the normal flora of the GI tract by forming spores and reemerges after treatment is complete
What causes subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE)? 1. enterococcus or Viridans 2. Streptococci colonize valves that were previously damaged by Group A Streptococci (Rheumatic fever)
Strep pneumonia is the most common cause of (4): MOPS 1. meningitis 2. Otitis media (in children) 3. pneumonia 4. sinusitis
Why do common colds present with stuffy nose and sore throat? cold viruses enter upper respiratory tract and bind epithelial cells, causing local inflammation and exudation of proteins into tissues → swelling
Virus that infects glandular tissue (parotid, testes) causing painful enlargment: Mumps
What two surface proteins contribute to the virulence of Influenza virus? What purpose does each serve? 1. Hemagglutinin (HA) - binds sialic acid on cells for endocytosis 2. Neuroaminidase (NA) - cleaves HA-sialic acid to permit spread
How does the emergence of antigenic drifts in inflenza strains differ from the emergence of antigenic shifts? 1. Shifts - gradual and occur by exchange of RNA segments between human and animal strands (cause pandemics) 2. Drifts - spontaneous mutations every year
1. What are the common symptoms of rabies? 2. What is the pathophysiologic cause? 1. dysphagia, increased muscle tone 2. Virus binds Acetylcholine receptors
Direct contact with monkeys. Hemorrhagic fever. Ebola or Marburg virus
Acute, Chronic or Immunized? 1. HBsAg, Anti-HBcAb IgM 2. Anti-HBsAg 3. HBsAg, Anti-HBcAb IgG 1. Acute 2. Immunized 3. chronic
1. Presence of HBeAg tells what about the hepatitis B infection? 2. What if it were Anti-HBeAg? 1. HBeAg indicates high transmissibility 2. less contagious, chronic infection or recovery period
Which hepatitis virus co-infects with HBV? Why? HDV becuase the Hep B surface antigen is requires to form infectious particle
Which proteins does HPV use to cause benign cell growth? Which genes do these proteins act on? E6 blocks p53 E7 blocks Rb
What are the herpes viruses 1-8? 1. HSV-1 2. HSV-2 3. VZV 4. EBV 5. CMV 6. HHV-6 (roseola) 7. HHV-7 (non-infectious) 8. HHV-8 (Kaposi's sarcoma)
Which sites do the following lie dormant in the human body? 1. Herpesvirus 1-3 2. Herpesvirus 4 3. Herpesvirus 5 1. neuronal ganglia 2. EBV - B cells 3. (Cytomegalovirus)mononuclear cells
What causes Hemolytic Uremic syndrome? What is the triad of clinical symptoms? 1. anemia 2. thrombocytopenia 3. acute renal failure EHEC shiga like toxin causes endothelium to swell and narrow the lumen leading to mechanical hemolysis and reduced renal blood flow; damaged endothelium consumes platelets
Which 2 gram positive bacteria are alpha hemolytic? 1. Streptococcus viridans 2. Streptococcus Pneumonia
What commonly causes pseudomembraneous colitis? What is the pathophysiology? C. difficil infections result from inflammatory reaction of the bowel wall to C dif toxin B, a cytotoxin that destroys the enterocyte cytoskeletal structure
1. What cells is a Tzanak test used to detect? 2. Which viruses is a positive finding diagnostic for? 1. multinucleated giant cells 2. HSV-1, HSV-2 and VZV
Hepatitis Families: 1. HAV 2. HBV 3. HCV 4. HDV 5. HEV 1. picornavirus 2. hepadnavirus 3. flavivirus 4. deltavirus 5. hepevirus
Bags causing food poisoning that are found in: 1. shelfish 2. reheated rice 3. mayonnaise, custard 4. reheated meat 5. canned food 6. undercooked meat 7. poulty, meat, eggs 1. Vibrio 2. B cureus 3. S aureus 4. C perfringens 5. C botulinum 6. E. coli 7. Salmonella
1. What is croup? 2. What is it commonly caused by? 3. Most common cause of influenza in infants 1. swelling around vocal cords leading to beathing difficulty and a "barking cough" 2. paramyxovirus - parainfluenza 3. Respiratory Syncytial Virus
1. All DNA viruses replicate in the nucleus except .. 2. All RNA viruses replicate in the cytoplasm except... 1. poxvirus 2. influenza and retroviruses
For which viruses are there Live Attenuated vaccines? Live! See small yellow chickens get vaccinated with Sabin's and MMR 1. smallpox 2. yellow fever 3. chickenpox (VZV) 4. Sabin polio 5. MMR 6. BCG for TB
For which viruses are there killed vaccines? RIP Always 1. Rabies 2. Influenza 3. salk Polio 4. HAV
For which viruses are there recombinant vaccines? HBV
1. Unicellular form of fungi 2. Filament of fungi 3. Clumps of intertwined hyphae 4. fungal form that grows as hyphae 1. yeast 2. hypha 3. mycelium 4. mold
1. Which sterol is found in fungal cell membranes? 2. Which special stain can be used to view the fungal capsule? 3. How does KOH help clinically detect fungus? 1. ergosterol 2. India ink stain 3. dissolves all other non-fungal debris
1. What is medically signifcant about Dermatophytes? 2. Which anti-fungal is used to treat dermatophytoses? Why? 1. digest keratin on the skin 2. Griseolfalvin
Which systemic fungi is found: 1. Mississippi/Ohio River Valley 2. States East of Miss River 3. Southwest US, Cali 1. Histoplasmosis 2. Blastomycoses 3. Coccidioidomycosis
Describe the outer structure of mycoplasma & mycobacteria. How do they stain? 1. mycoplasma: contain sterols with no cell wall; don't stain 2. mycobacteria: contain mycolic acid and high lipid content cell wall; require acid-fast stain
What are the obligate aerobes? Nagging Pests Must Breath 1. Nocardia 2. Pseudomonas 3. Mycobacterium tuberculosis 4. Bacillus
Obligate anaerobes? Can't Breath Air 1. Clostridium 2. Bacteriodes 3. Actinomyces
What is the difference between a lytic bacteriophage and a lysogenic bacteriophage? lytic injects viral nucleid acid into host cell and replicates with host machinery lysogenic integrates into host DNA
1. Fever, night sweats, weight loss and hemoptysis 2. lyme disease is caused by 3. lyme disease is transmitted by 1. tuberculosis 2. Borrelia burgdorferi 3. Ixodes ticks
What bacteria causes: 1. Cat scratch fever 2. skin lesion with black base after tick bite 3. Fever and enlarged lymph nodes following flea bite in southwest US 1. Bartonella spp. 2. tularemia caused by Francisella tularensis 3. Plague caused by Yersinia pestis
Which bacteria causes: 1. Infective animal bites 2. Rash and illness after flea bites in another country 3. Rocky Mountain Spotted fever 1. Pasteurella multocida 2. Rickettsia prowazekii (typhus) 3. Rickettsia rickettsii
What cellular machinery do negative stranded RNA viruses bring with them? RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
Which species of E. coli cause bloody diarrhea? 1. EHEC 2. EIEC
What causes osteomyelitis in: 1. Most people 2. Diabetics and drug addicts 3. Sickle cell patients 1. S. auerus 2. Pseudomonas 3. Salmonella
1. Grey pseudomembranes 2. "cherry red" epiglottis and dysphagia 1. C. diphtheria 2. H. influenzae
Spiking fever, hepatosplenomegaly and pancytopenia after sandfly bite. Leishmaniasia donovani
1. Fungi that is inhaled from pigeon droppings. 2. Which fungal form does this species take or is it dimorphic? 3. Fungi found inside macrophages 1. Cryptococcus neoformans 2. yeast 3. Histoplasmosis (bat droppings)
1. Which fungi can first present as pneumonia then lead to granulomas throughout skin and bone? 2. Spherules in tissue, hyphae outside. 3. Broad based budding yeast in tissue, hyphae outside. 1. Blastomyces dermatitidis - Blastomycosis 2. coccidioidomycosis 3. blastomycosis
1. Where in the body does the poliovirus replicate? 2. Disease obtained from unsterilized milk 1. Peyer's patches, tonsils 2. Brucellosis
1. Severe pneumonia acquired from contaminated water in showers, air conditioning systems. 2. What method is used to visualize microbe? 1. Legionella pneumophilia 2. silver stain
1. How is tularemia spread? 2. What is pathologically significant about the fungi sporothrix? 1. tick bites, contact with infected animals (rabbits), eating infected meat 2. fungal contamination of a wound (e.g. made by a thorn)
What is the role of each of the following HIV proteins? 1. gp41 2. gp120 1. mediates viral-cell fusion after docking 2. binds CD4, CXCR4, and CCR5 on T cells and macrophages
What are the 3 genes encoded by HIV? What are the proteins that each gene encodes? 1. gag: p24 (capsid protein) 2. pol: reverse transcriptase, protease, integrase 3. env: Gp120, Gp41
Cause of disorders in AIDS patients (CD4+ < 200) 1. Diarrhea (2 organisms) 2. Meningitis 3. Retinitis 4. Brain abscess 1. Cryptosporidium & Isospora belli 2. Cryptococcus neoformans 3. CMV 4. Toxoplasmosis gondii
1. What type of organisms infect post-splenectomy patients? 2. Why do intracellular parasites (i.e. tuberculosis) frequently present with granuloma formation? 1. encapsulated organisms 2. intracellular organisms are protected from antibody and complement and elicit cell-mediated immune responses
1. Pseudohyphae and budding yeast: 2. Septate hyphae that branch as acute angles 1. Candida albicans 2. Aspergillus
Bacteria toxins encoded by a lysogenic phage ABCDE 1. shigA-like toxin 2. Botulinum toxin 3. Cholera 4. Diphtheria 5. Erythrogenic toxin of Strep pyogenes
1. What color does MacConkey agar display to signify lactose fermentation? 2. Otitis externa 3. Pneumonia is Cystic Fibrosis patients 1. pink 2. P. aeruginosa 3. P. aeruginosa
Rashes 1. "slapped cheek" appearance 2. trunk in infants 3. begins in face and spreads to extremities; postauricular lymphadenopathy 4. begins in face and spreads to extremities; blue-white spots on buccal mucosa 1. erythemia infectiosum (parvovirus B19) 2. Roseola (HHV6) 3. Rubella (German measles - togavirus) 4. Rubeola (Measles - paramyxovirus)
Rashes 1. maculopapular rash on palms and soles with centripetal spread to trunk. 2. Sandpaper rash beginning on trunk 3. Fever, oral mucosa ulcers, maculopapular rash on hands 1. R rickettsi 2. S. pyogenes 3. Cocksackie A virus (hand, foot, mouth disease)
This disease spread by human body louse presents as fevers that last about 5 days, remit and return a week later. What is the organism? Borrelia recurrentis; relapsing fever
HIV patient with hemiparesis, visual field deficits and MRI showing multiple nonenhancing T2-hyperintense lesions of the brain. PML; JCV
HIV patient with cognitive defects and MRI showing enhanced periventricular white mater lesions in cortical and subependymal regions. CMV
HIV paitient with insidious onset of memory loss, gait disorder and spasticity. HIV encephalopathy
HIV patient with cognitive dysfunction, MRI reveals multiple ring-enhanced lesions at corticomedullary junctions. Toxoplasma infection
Malaria like syndrome with maltese cross appearing parasite. Diagnosis and treatment? Babesia, treated with Quinidine
Patient presents with nausea, vomiting and irrational behavior after a camping trip. Lab testing reveals meningoencephalitis with amebas in CSF. Patient dies 6 days later. Naegleria fowleri
1. What color denotes a positive gram stain? 2. What color denotes a negative gram stain? 1. blue 2. red
What are the following stains used for: 1. Ziehl-Neelsen 2. India ink 3. Silver stain 1. Acid-fast organisms (mycobacteria) 2. Cryptococcus neoformans 3. Pneumocystis jirovechi, Legionella
Which microbes require for following for growth: 1. chocolate agar with V and X 2. Thayer-Martin media (Vancomycin, Polymyxin, Nystatin) 3. Bordet-Gengou 4. Tellurite, Loffler's media 1. H. influezae 2. N. gonorrhoeae 3. Bordetella Pertussis 4. C. diphtheriae
Which microbes require for following for growth: 1. Lowenstein-Jensen agar 2. Eaton's agar 3. Sabouraud's agar 4. Charcoal yeast etract with cysteine 1. M. tuberculosis 2. M. pneumoniae 3. Fungi 4. Legionella
1. What are the two obligate intracellular microbes? 2. What are the 7 facultative intracellular microbes? 3. What method do facultative intracellular microbes use to live inside cells? 1. Rickettsia, Chlamydia 2. Some Nasty Bugs May Live FacultativeLy: Salmonella, Neisseria, Brucella, Mycobacterium, Listeria, Francisella, Legionella 3. inhibit host phagosome-lysosome fusion
Which microbes contain urease? Particular Kinds have Urease 1. Proteus 2. Klebsiella 3. H. pylori 4. Ureaplasma
Which microbes contain exotoxins that induce cAMP? cAMP 1. C = cholera 2. A = anthrax 3. M = montezuma's revenge (ETEC) 4. P = pertussis
What is the exotoxin action of the following microbes? 1. C. perfringens 2. C. tetani 3. C. botulinum 4. EHEC 1. lecithinase that acts as a phospholipase 2. blocks release of GABA and glycine 3. blocks release of acetylcholine 4. Shiga-like toxin: inactivates 60S subunit
What is the exotoxin action of the following microbes? 1. B. anthracis 2. Shigella 3. s. pyogenes 4. ETEC 1. edema factor is an adenylate cyclase 2. shiga toxin inactivates host cell 60S subunit 3. Streptolysin O is a hemolysin 4. cholera like; cAMP inducer
1. Ability to take up DNA from the environment 2. Which microbes are known to possess this activity? 1. Transformation 2. SHiN (those with the IgA protease from meningitis) S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, Neisseria
1. Term for the F+ plasmid that has become incorporated into bacteria DNA? 2. Lytic phage that packages parts of bacterial chromosome into viral capsid for transport. 3. Lysogenic phage that excises some bacterial DNA with its own for transport. 1. Hfr cell 2. Generalized transduction 3. Specialized tranduction
1. PAS positive macrophages are found in this disease 2. Which variant of Neisseria has a polysaccharide capsule? 1. Whipple's disease (Tropheryma whippelii) 2. Meningococci
Treatment for gram-positive rods forming long branching filaments resembling fungi Actinomyces israelii and Nocardia asteroides; SNAP (Sulfa for Nocardia, Actinomyces use Penicillin)
Gram negative diplococci neisseria (gonorrheae and meningitis)
1. What is a Ghon complex? 2. What is miliary tuberculosis 1. TB granulomas + lobar and perihilar lymph node involvement) 2. Disseminated granulomas
1. Which form of leprosy presents in patients with weak T-cell-mediated immunity? 2. Which form of leprosy presents in patients with intact T-cell response? 1. lepromatous leprosy 2. tuberculoid leprosy
1. Which microbe causes fever, diarrhea and rose spots on abdomen? 2. Which organ can this microbe live in for an extended period of time? 1. Salmonella typhi 2. gallbladder
1. Diarrhea precursor to Guillain-Barre syndrome is caused by which microbe? 2. Causes pseudoappendicitis. Bloody diarrhea outbreaks in day care centers 1. Campylobacter jejuni 2. Yersinia enterocolitica
Bacteria found in contaminated water. Causes flulike symptoms, fever, abdominal pain and photophobia Leptospira interrogans
What characterizes the 3 stages of lyme disease? 1. erythema chronicum migrans 2. chondyloma lata, aneurologic (Bell's palsy) and cardiac (AV nodal block) 3. polyarthritis
1. What is a condylomata lata? 2. Which stage of syphilis does it present? 3. What microscopy is needed to detect treponema? 1. wart-like lesions on vulva or scrotum 2. Stage 2 3. dark field microscopy
Which diseases present with a rash on palms and feet? 1. Rocky mountain spotted fever (Rickettsia rickettsii) 2. Coxsackievirus 3. secondary syphilis
What is characteristic of dimorphic fungi? 1. mold when cold (20 degrees C) 2. yeast with heat (37 degrees C)
1. Hiker with foul-smelling watery diarrhea from drinking contaminated water. 2. Bloody diarrhea, right upper quadrant pain from drinking contaminated water. 1. Giardia lamblia 2. Entamoeba histolytica
Causes of vaginitis 1. Gram negative 2. Protozoan 3. Fungal 1. Gardnerella vaginalis 2. Trichomonas vaginalis 3. Candida albicans
Associated parasites 1. brain cysts, uncooked pork 2. Liver cysts 3. B12 deficiency 4. Hematuria, bladder cancer 1. Taenia solium 2. Echinococcus granulosus 3. Diphyllobothrium latum 4. Schistosoma haematobium
What type of immunity is generated (humoral or cell mediated) 1. Live attentuated vaccines 2. Killed/inactivated vaccines 1. both cell and humoral immunity 2. only humoral immunity
Which virus can cause an aplastic crisis in sickle cell patients? Parvovirus B19
What are the negative-stranded viruses? Always Bring Polymerase or Fail Replication 1. Arenaviruses 2. Bunyaviruses 3. Paramyxoviruses 4. Orthomyxovirses 5. Filoviruses 6. Rhabdoviruses
1. Segmented viruses have which nucleic acid? 2. What are the segmented viruses? 1. RNA 2. BOAR: Bunyaviruses, Orthomyxoviruses, Arenaviruses, Reoviruses
Neoplasms associated with HIV 1. Kaposi's sarcoma (HHV-8) 2. cervical carcinoma (HPV) 3. 1° CNS lymphoma 4. non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
1. Which maternal infection is associated with neonatal patent ductus arteriosus? 2. Infection associated with uveitis, urethritis, arthritis 1. Rubella 2. (Reiter's syndrome) Chlamydia, Campylobacter
Differential for multiple angiomas in immunosuppressed patients 1. Bacillary angiomatosis (Bartonella spp) 2. Kaposi's sarcoma (HHV-8)
1. Flagellated protozoan causing lymphadenopathy and sleepiness. Vector? 2. Flagellated protozoan causing congestive heart failure and megacolon. Vector? 1. T. brucei; African Sleeping Sickness; Tsetse fly 2. T. cruzi; Chagas Disease; Reduviid bug
What is the Weil-Felix reaction? antirickettsial antibodies in patient's serum cross-react with Proteus O antigen and agglutinate; usually positive for rocky mountain spotted fever and typhus
1. Most common cause: insidious onset, headache, nonproductive cough, diffuse interstitial infiltrate on X-ray. 2. Treatment 1. Mycoplasma pneumoniae 2. Erythromycin
1. organism causes intestinal infection and anal pruritis 2. Larvae of this organism penetrate skin of feet leading to intestinate infection and anemia 1. Enterobius vermicularis; pinworm 2. Ancylostoma duodenale; hookworm
1. What EBV pathology are HIV patients more susceptible to? 2. Which hepatitis virus is transmissible by sexual contact? 3. Which hepatitis virus is transmissible by intravenous drug use? 1. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma 2. HBV 3. HCV
1. Associated with cold agglutination of patient's plasma 2. Virulence factor of Mycobacteria 1. Mycoplasma pneumonia (sometimes EBV) 2. Cord Factor - allows mycobacteria to form chains and inhibits neutrophils
1. Accumulation of fluid in fetal compartments. What is the pathophysiologic mechanism? 2. What is a common microbial cause? 1. Hydrops fetalis: fetal anemia → ↑ cardiac output and eventual heart failure → edema 2. Parvovirus B19
1. Dysuria and hematuria in children is commonly caused by? 2. What is a common cause in adults Hemorrhagic cystitis 1. Adenovirus 2. cyclophosphamide (used in chemotherapy)
1. Septic shock, bilateral hemorrhage into adrenal gland 2. Which malaria causing agents establish a latent hepatic infection in the liver? Treatment? 1. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome from Neiserria meningitis 2. P. vivax and P ovale hypnozoites; Primaquine in addition to Chloroquine
1. Which bacteria have rapid variation of pilus proteins? 2. fungi found within macrophages 1. N. meningitidis and N. gonorrhea 2. Histoplasmosis
What may be the cause of infection in an individual with erythemia chronicum migrans, flulike symptoms and anemia? Borrellia bergdorferi plus Babesia (both carried by the Ixodes tick and coinfect humans)
1. Which organisms exhibit tumbling motility? 2. Periventricular calcification in newborn 1. Listeria and Proteus mirabilis 2. CMV
1. Which organism is found in soft cheeses and should be avoided by pregnant women? 2. Which organisms produce exotoxins that inactivate EF-2? 1. Listeria 2. Diphtheria and Pseudomonas
Which RNA viruses do not have envelopes? CPR 1. Calicivirus 2. Picornavirus 3. Reovirus
Which DNA viruses do not have envelopes? PAPP 1. Parvovirus 2. Adenovirus 3. Papilloma 4. Polyoma
1. Which strain of E. coli does not ferment sorbitol? 2. What is the virulence factor of this strain? 1. EHEC (O157:H7) 2. shiga-like toxin
1. Hypopigmented skin patches occuring in hot, humid weather 2. Which microbe is responsible? 1. tinea versicolor 2. Malassezia furfur
Which E. coli virulence factors are responsible for: 1. pyelonephritis 2. pneumonia 3. septic shock 4. meningitis 1. fimbriae 2. K capsule 3. LPS endotoxin 4. K capsule
1. Disease mostly in ketoacidotic diabetic and leukemic patients. Enters brain through nasal cavity. 2. Dimorphic fungi with pseudohyphae at 20°C and germ tube formation at 37°C. 1. Mucormycosis (Mucor and Rhizopus spp. of fungi) 2. Candida albicans
Neonatal infections transmitted from mother: 1. petechial rach, hearing loss, seizures 2. chorioretinitis, intracranial calcification, hydrocephalus 3. PDA, cataracts, deafness 1. CMV 2. Toxoplasmosis 3. Rubella
1. Most common cause of conjunctivitis 2. Common pneumonia in immunocompromised patient 3. Interstitial pneumonia in immunocompromised patients 1. Adenovirus 2. Pneumocystis jiroveci 3. CMV
1. Sepsis with black lesions on skin 2. β- hemolytic gram positive rod 1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (usually immunocompromised patient) 2. Listeria (facultative intracellular organism)
Which disease do the following Chlamydia serotypes cause: 1. A,B, and C 2. D-K 3. L1,L2, and L3 1. blindness and follicular conjunctivitis in Africa 2. urethritis/PID, neonatal pneumonia or conjunctivitis 3. lymphogranuloma venereum
16 yro sexually active male with rash on trunk and genitals consisting of multiple umbilicated nodules which are dome-shaped, waxy, and painless. Molluscum contagiosum; Poxvirus
Eosinophilic globule found in liver of those suffering from Yellow fever Councilman bodies
Patient presents with hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, malaise, anemia and weight loss after a trip to africa. L. Donovani infection
Gram positive bacteria that causes oral/facial abscesses that drain through sinus tracts Actinomyces israelii
Child present with symptoms of appendicitis but have mesenteric adenitis Yersinia enterocolitica
Schistosoma haematobium is associated with with neoplasm? squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder
1. What is the infectious form of C. trachomatis? 2. What is the intracellular form? 1. elementary body 2. reticulate body
1. Test for monitoring the effect of drug therapy in HIV patients 2. Only serological marker during the HBV window phase 1. HIV PCR 2. anti-HBc antibody
Which bacteria do not contain peptidoglycan? 1. mycoplasma 2. chlamydia
1. All DNA viruses are double stranded except: 2. All DNA viruses have linear DNA except: 1. parvovirus 2. hepadnavirus, papilloma, polyomavirus
1. Barking cough 2. Virus that enters the bloodstream through Peyer's patches 1. croup from parainfluenza 2. poliovirus
1. Gram - bacilli; lactose non-fermenter, oxidase + 2. Gram - bacilli, oxidase -, urease + 3. Gram + bacilli, nonspore forming, motile 1. Vibrio cholera, P. aeruginosa 2. Proteus mirabilis 3. Listeria monocytogenes
Created by: amichael87