Busy. Please wait.

show password
Forgot Password?

Don't have an account?  Sign up 

Username is available taken
show password


Make sure to remember your password. If you forget it there is no way for StudyStack to send you a reset link. You would need to create a new account.
We do not share your email address with others. It is only used to allow you to reset your password. For details read our Privacy Policy and Terms of Service.

Already a StudyStack user? Log In

Reset Password
Enter the associated with your account, and we'll email you a link to reset your password.

Remove Ads
Don't know
remaining cards
To flip the current card, click it or press the Spacebar key.  To move the current card to one of the three colored boxes, click on the box.  You may also press the UP ARROW key to move the card to the "Know" box, the DOWN ARROW key to move the card to the "Don't know" box, or the RIGHT ARROW key to move the card to the Remaining box.  You may also click on the card displayed in any of the three boxes to bring that card back to the center.

Pass complete!

"Know" box contains:
Time elapsed:
restart all cards

Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.

  Normal Size     Small Size show me how

BIO 251 Lec Exam 3

BIO 251 Lecture Exam 3

What are the functions of blood? transports vital substances (gasses, glucose), maintains stability of interstitial fluid, distributes, heat.
What is a formed element? term used to describe things in the blood that are not exactly a cell. They form mostly in red bone marrow and include RBC's, WBC's and platelets
Are platelets cells? no, they are cell fragments
Do all formed elements start in the bone marrow? yes, but some mature in lymph nodes and thymus
Finish this phrase. "where water goes... ...heat flows"
What is the name of the bone marrow cell responsible for the production of thrombocytes? megakaryocyte
What are some factors that can affect blood volume? body size, changes in fluid concentration, changes in electrolyte concentration, amount of adipose tissue
What percent of body weight is blood? about 8%
What is the average adult's blood volume (in liters) 5 liters
What does hematocrit measure? the proportion of total blood volume that is red blood cells (used to determine oxygen carrying capacity of blood)
If you centrifuged a blood sample, what percent of the sample would be plasma? 55%
If you centrifuged a blood sample, what percent of the sample would be leukocytes and platelets (buffy coat)? less than 1 %
If you centrifuged a blood sample, what percent of the sample would be erythrocytes/RBC's? 45%
There is only one type of stem cell in blood, what is it? hematopoetic stem cell
What determines the type of cell that a hematopoetic stem cell will become? it's response to local and chemical signals
What is the shape of erythrocytes/RBC's? biconcave
Why are RBC's biconcave? to provide more surface area
How do RBC's travel through capillaries? single file
How long do RBC's live? 120 days
What surgical procedure depends on the ability of the hematopoetic stem cells? bone marrow transplant
Do RBC's have a nuclei and mitochondria? no
What take up one third of an RBC? hemoglobin/oxyhemoglobin
What is the chemical structure of hemoglobin? a heme group, ring shape with iron in the middle which binds oxygen. Once the first O2 attaches to the binding site, the other 3 binding sites get more sticky and have a higher affinity for O2.
What is the unit of measure used for a RBC count? cubic milimeter
How many cubic milimeters are there in a cubic centementer? 1000
How many RBC's do men have in a cubic milimenter of blood? 4.6 million to 6.2 million
How many RBC's do women have in a cubic milimeter of blood? 4.2 million to 5.4 million
How many RBC's do children have in a cubic milimeter of blood? 4.5 million to 5.1 million
What is a red blood cell count used to determine? blood's oxygen carrying capicity
Is all of the oxygen in the blood attached to hemoglobin? no 1% is dissolved in plasma and 99% is attached to hemoglobin
What hormone stimulates the production of RBC's? erythropoetin
What contols the release of erythropoetin? sensors in the liver and kidneys detect amount of RBC in blood and respond to low levels by releasing erythropoetin. (Erythropoetin can be given artificially as epogen to cancer patients and to Jehovah Wittness patients who cannot accept blood products)
What three vitamins/minerals are necessary for RBC production? vitamin B12, folic acid and iorn
What is Pernicious enemia? B12 or folic acid deficiency
What happens to RBC's at the end of ttheir 120 day life cycle? They are destroyed by macrophages in the spleen and liver
What is hemoglobin broken down into during destruction of RBC's? heme and globin
Where does the recycled iron go? red bone marrow
Which gender is less likely to lose iron? males. The body recycles iron very well even during bacterial infection.
Bilirubin and biliverdin are byproducts of RBC destruction, specifically the breakdown of the heme group. Where are they excreted? in bile. Per Hopkin they give plasma and urine its golden color and are responsible for jaundice
What mineral deficiency can produce enemia? iron
What vitamin deficiency can produce pernicious anemia? (actually an inability to absorb the vitamin) B12
What type of anemia can be developed after an infectious condition that breaks down RBC's? hemolytic
What type of anemia is common in cats, less common in humans and is caused by the cessation of RBC production? (RBC production shuts down) aplastic
Which type of anemia is caused by a single mutation on a single gene thet cases RBC's to become very polar. They are typically non-polar. This condition causes the RBC's to get stuck in capillaries and crystallize sickle cell anemia
Can sickle cell anemia be cured? yes, with bone marrow transplant but it is dangerous related to the possibility of rejection
What is the RBC to WBC ratio? 1000:1
Are all leulocytes/WBC's specialized? no, some are not and they are called "innate"
How many leulocytes/WBC's are found in a cubic milimeter of blood? 5,000 to 10,000
What are leukocytes/WBC's primary function? to protect againt disease
What are the two major types of leukocytes/WBC's? granulocytes and agranulocytes
How did granulocytes get their name? they are named for the dye absorbing granules seen in the cell in a prepared slide. agranulocytes do not have visible granules inside the cells.
What are the three tyes of WBC's that are considered granulocytes? neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils
What are the two types of WBC's that are considered agranulocytes lymphocytes and monocytes
What does a differential WBC count measure? First it lists the toltal WBC count the lists the % of each type of WBC.
Which WBC type stains light blue, has a multilobbed irregular nucleus (doesn't divide), is called bands when young/immature, another name is polymorphonuclear leukocyte, and is most numerous at 54%-65%? Neutrophils
What are the functions of neutrophils? they are the first to arrive at infection sites (respond to inflammation), they are phagocytic however the immature bands can only eat small things.
If a test result reveals elevated number of bands (immature neutrophils) what does this mean? It means that an infection is killing the mature ones
What are the 5 kinds of leukocytes/WBC's? Neutrophils, Basophils, Eosinophils, Monocytes and Lymphocytes
Whuch leukocyte/WBC cell type releases histamine and heparin and is considered rare making up less than 1% of WBC's? They have deep blue granules on stained slide. Basophils
What are mast cells? basophils are found in blood. Once they leave the blood and move into tissue, attach themselves and serve as phagocytes, they are called mast cells.
Which leukocyte/WBC has a 2 lobed nucleus, moderate response to allergic reaction, defend against worm infesations, also considered rare at 1%-3% of leukocytes (elevated in worm infestations and allergic reactions)? Eosinophils (granulocyte)
How do eosinophils defend against parasitic worm infestations? the granules have cationic protein that binds with the surface of parasitic worms . It blocks sodium reception and smothers the worm.
Which leukocyte/WBC is the largest blood cell, have kidney shaped or oval nuclei, make up 3%-9% of all leukocytes and are elevated in typhoid fever, malarie and TB? Monocyte
What do you call a monocyte that has entered connective tissue to function as a phagocyte? macrophage
What is the biggest cell in blood? Monocyte. It is not as big as a megakaryocyte, but they are found in red bone marrow, not in the blood.
Which leukocyte/WBC is the second most abundant, approximately the same size as a RBC, includer T cells and B cells, are important in immunity, produce antibodies(B cells)? Lymphocytes (including T-lymphocytes and B-lymphocytes)
How does HIV/AIDS affect T cells? the HIV virus takes over T-Cell, thus getting around the normal immune response
Which lymphocytes make antibodies? B-lymphocytes
What does diapedesis mean? Leukocytes squeeze through capillary walls to enter tissue space outside the blood vessel. (WBC's leave blood and enter connective tissue to respond to infectious agents
Which formed element is made up of cell fragments of megakaryocytes, 130,000-360,000 per cubic milimeter of blood, and helps control blood loss from broken vessels? Blood platelets/thrombocytes
What do you call the straw colored liquid portion of blood? blood plasma
What percent of blood is plasma? 55%
How much of plasma is water? 92%
How much of plasma is electrolytes, vitamins, minerals, hormones, O2, nitrogen and CO2? 1%
How much of plasma is protein? 7%
Why do divers have a problem with nitrogen? our atmosphere is 80% nitrogen and trace amounts are dissolved in plasma through our lungs. As pressure increases, nitrogen absorption increases.
Plasma has lots of stuff in it, what gasses are found in plasma? oxygen, carbon dioxide and nitrogen
What nutrients are found in plasma? amino acids, simple sugars, nucleotides, lipids and lipoproteins
What electrolytes are found in plasma? sodium, potassium, calcium, magnesium, chloride, bi-carb, phosphate, sulfate
What are the three nitrogenous wastes found in plamsa? urea, uric acid and BUN
What does BUN mean? blood urea nitrogen
What is urea a byproduct from? the breakdown of amino acids
What are the three groups of plasma proteins? albumins, fibrinogen and globulins
Which plasma protein thickens blood to maintain osmotic pressure? albumin - it is a large molecule
What are the characteristics of the plasma protein albumins? most numerous, originate in liver, and helps to maintain osmotic pressure
What are the characteristics of the plasma protein globulins? The alpha or beta: originate in the liver, transport lipids and fat soluble vitamins. Gamma: originate in lymphatic tissues and constitute the antibodies of immunity
What are the characteristics of the plasma protein fibrinogen? originate in the liver, plays a key role in blood coagulation and are the most abundant of the plasma proteins
What are the 4 plasma lipoproteins? chylomicrons, LDL's, VLDL's and HDL's
What are the characteristics of the plasma lipoprotein chylomicrons? primarily composed of tryglycerides and transport dietary fats from intestines to muscles and adipose cells (DIETARY FATS)
What are the characteristics of the plasma lipoprotein LDL? transports cholesterol and delivers it to cells for the manufacture of cell membranes (high LDL is not harmful, but indicates that you are making too much fat)
What are the characteristics of the plasma lipoprotein VLDL? primarily made of tryglycerides, is produced in the liver and carries triglycerides made in the liver to adipose cells (not dietary/this one carries fats made by the body)
What are the characteristics of the plasma lipoprotein HDL? mostly made of protein (less lipid) and transports remnants of chylomicrons to the liver
Why do lipids need to be carried by plasma lipoproteins? they are not water soluble and need to be carried through the blood stream by protein
What is a platelet? a megakaryocyte vessicle with signaling chemicals inside. They are not sticky until they encounter collagen
What are the three steps in the stoppage of bleeding? blood vessel spasm, platelet plug formation and blood coagulation
How do undamaged endothelial cells prevent clotting? they release chemicals that inhibit the clotting process.
How do damaged endothelial cells allow clotting to occur? when they are damaged, they stop releasing inhibitors
What happens after the first platelet sticks to a damaged site? it releases chemicals that cause next platelet to stick (positive feedback mechanism)
What are the characteristics of the first step in the stoppage of bleeding (blood vessel spasm)? it is triggered by pain receptors, or platelet's release of chemicals or serotonin. Smooth muscle in the vessel contracts (this decreases blood flow to the damaged area and decreases pressure in the damaged area)
What are the characteristics of the second step in the stoppage of bleeding (platelet plug formation)? it is triggered by the exposure of platelets to collagen, the platelets adhere to a rough surface and form a plug.
What are the characteristics of the third step in the stoppage of bleeding ( blood coagulation)? it is triggered by cellular damage and blood contact with foreign surfaces. The blood clot forms.
What are the 4 steps in platelet plug formation? 1. break in vessel wall 2. blood escaping through break 3. platelets adhere to eachother and to the end of the broken vessel, and to exposed collagen 4. the platelet plug helps control blood loss
There is an intrinsic and extrinsic clotting mechanism, which one begins with tissue damage? extrinsic - it begins with something outside the system. A chemical outside of blood triggers blood coagulation (the chemical is thromboplastin which is not found in blood). It is triggered when blood contacts damaged tissue.
There is an intrinsic and extrinsic clotting system, which one begins with contact with a foreign surface? intrinsic - a chemical inside the blood triggers coagulation. Triggered by Hageman factor found inside blood. Triggered when blood contacts a foreign surface.
What ion is important in both clotting mechanisms? calcium
Does intrinsic or extrinsic clotting mechanism include tissue thromboplastin? extrinsic (tissue damage releases tissue thromboplastin)(involves endothelial cells)
Does intrinsic or extrinsic clotting mechanism include Hageman factor 12? intrinsic (foreign surface triggeres Hageman factor 12 to activate)
What forms the plug? platelets
What activates prothrombin? prothrombin activator (calcium ions involved) Both clotting mechanisms lead to this shared step.
What traps red blood cells in the clot? fibrinogen threads
What vitamin deficiency causes clotting problems? Vitamin K
What factor is fibrinogen factor 1
How do you treat congenital hemophilia? give clotting factors
What turs off the clotting process? thrombin
For blood type A, what antigen is on the surface of the red blood cells? A
For blood type A, does the individual make antibodies? anti-B
For blood type B, what antigen is on the surface of the red blood cell? B
For blood type B, does the individual make antibodies? anti-A
For blood type AB, what antigen is on the surface of the red blood cell? A and B
For blood type AB, does the individual make antibodies? no
For blood type O, what antigen is on the surface of the red blood cell? none
For blood type O, does the individual make anti-bodies? yes, anti-A and anti-B
What is agglutination? when the antibodies stich to the foreign blood cells and create a clump
Can a fetus make anti-A or anti-B before birth? yes
What is both the preferred and permissible blood types for transfusion of a patient with blood type A? preferred: A Permissible in emergency: A, O
What is both the preferred and permissible blood types for transfusion of a patient with blood type B? preferred: B Permissible in emergency: B, O
What is both the preferred and permissible blood types for transfusion of a patient with blood type AB? preferred: AB Permissible in emergency: AB, A, B, O
What is both the preferred and permissible blood types for transfusion of a patient with blood type O? preferred: O Permissible in emergency: O
What is the antigen found on the RBC membrane made of? glycoprotein (a protein with sugar attached)
Where are anti-B and anti-A antibodies found? in the plasma
What is the technical term for clumping? agglutination
Rh or D agglutinogens were discovered in rheses monkey in 1940. If someone is born without the D antigen on their RBC's, do they automatically make anti-D's? no, they don't make them until they are exposed to blood containing the D antigen
Will an rH negative person have a reaction during their first exposure to the Rh or D antigen? no, they will make antibodies following the exposure and have a reaction at their next exposure. Takes about three weeks for the antibdies to form. Each subsequent exposure will have a stronger response.
If a pregant woman is Rh negative, what treatment is given to deal with the possibility that she is carrying an Rh positive fetus? given Rhogam at 28 weeks (even if father is Rh negative, in case she is lying about paternity of the child)
What does Rhogam do? it prevents anti-body formation to prevent antibody formation and prevent any future problems. It binds to fetal agglutinogens in mom's blood so she will not make antibodies of her own
Will every preganacy where mom is Rh neg and fetus is Rh positive end in exposure? no but there is a substantial risk of exposure to fetal blood no matter how the pregnancy ends.
How is a fetus who is Rh positive affected by a Rh negative mother? It is called hemolytic disease of the newborn. The mother's antibodies attack fetal blood causing severe anemia and toxic brain syndrome from excessive bilirubin in blood.
Where is the apex of the heart? 5th intercostal, left mid clavicular
Where is the base (top) of the heart? 2nd intercostal space
What is the pericardium? an umbrella term to describe the coverings of the heart
What is the fibrous pericardium? the outtermost fibrous bag
What is the visceral pericardium and parietal pericardium? it is part of the same membrane which covers the heart and then folds back over on itself to form a double layer. The visceral side touches the heart and the parietal side touches the fibrous pericardium. space between them is filled with serous fluid
What is the pericardial space? located between visceral and parietal pericardium and is filled with a small amount of serous fluid.
What are the three layers that make up the heart wall? endocardium, myocardium and epicardium
Where is the endocardium? the inner slipperly layer inside the heart (in contact with blood) (connective tissue with endothelial cells/simple squamous epithelium)
What does myocardium mean? muscle of the heart (cardiac muscle layer) contracts to pump blood
Where do you find the epicardium? It is the same as the visceral pericardium. As if one mane wasn't challenging enough.(serous membrane, contains capilaries and nerve fibers, makes serous fluid)
What ion is important in the electrical conduction system of the heart? calcium
What are the characteristics of cardiac muscle fibers? they are short, branched and striated with single nuclei. Bundles contain actin (thin filaments) and myosin (thick filaments). Elastic and fibrous connective tissues between fibers.
What physically joins cardiac mascle fibers? intercalated disks
What electrically joins muscle fibers? gap junctions
What does the term autorhythmic mean? the heart spontaneously depolarizes (this is directly caused by the intentional leaking of ion channels) heart muscle does not need nervous input to contract
What term is used to describe how the heart works together as a unit? syncytium (the heart forms a functional syncythia) It can be broken down into atrial syncytium and ventricular syncytium
What is the function of the fibrous pericardium? keeps heart from overfilling and overstretching
Is there a resting potential in a cardiac muscle cell? no, becuase it is always leaking
what are the characteristics of the right atrium? no valve in, receives blood deoxygenated blood from the inferior vena cava and the superior vena cava, and the coronary sinus from the coronary arteries
What are the characteristics of the right ventricle? receives deoxygenated blood from the right atrium and gives a little squeeze sending blood off to the pulmonary circuit
What are the characteristics of the left atrium? receives oxygenated blood from the pulmonary veins
What are the characteristics of the left ventricle? receives oxygenated blood from the left atrium and gives a big squeeze out to the body. Thickest part of the heart muscle (3 times thicker than right ventricle)
What are the characteristics of the tricuspid valve? it has three flaps, also called right A-V valve, is lies between the right atrium and the right ventricle
What are the characteristics of the bicuspid valve? also called the mitral valve or the left A-V valve, lies between the left atrium and the left ventricle
What are the characteristics of the pulmonary valve? it is a semilunar valve located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk
What are the characteristics of the aortic valve? it is a semi-lunar valve that lies between the left ventricle and the aorta
What is the general purpose for valves? ensure one way blood flow
What causes the valves to open or close? pressure differences
Are valves controlled by muscle contraction? no, they are just flaps that work without muscular control
what are cordae tendonae? they are tendon cords/strings that stabilize A-V valves to muscles in the heart.
Can valve replacements be preformed with animal valves? yes becuase valves are made of collagen, not cells and do not have cell markers
When will valves open? when pressure is greatest infront of the valve and will close when pressure is greatest after the valve, purely mechanical
what divides atria and ventricles? connective tissue
What are heart valves attached to? fibrous rings of connective tissue
What are the systemic vens that deliver deoxygenated blood passively into the right atria? superior and inferior vena cava
There are 16 steps in the flow of blood through the heart. What are the first 8? 1. blood from systemic circuit 2. venae cavae 3. rt. atrium 4. throught tricuspid valve 5. to rt. ventricle 6. through pulmonary valve 7. to pulmonary trunk 8. to pulmonary arteries
There are 16 steps in the flow of blood through the heart. What are the last 8 steps? 1. blood oxygenates in alveolar capillaries 2. enters pulmonary veins 3. fills left atrium 4. thru mitral valve 5. into left ventricle 6. thru aortic valve 7. into aorta 8. blood goes through systemic circuit
How long does this circuit take? dunno
What causes a heart attack/MI? occlusion of blood supply to the heart (heart cannot run anaerobically like skeletal muscles) Can only bypass and put stints in the larger vessels
What does collateral circulation mean? an area of the heart is fed by more than one vein (this trait is genetically determined and improves post MI survivability)
What activity improves collateral circulation? aerobic exercise
How is the heart muscle supplied with blood? 1. aorta feeds 2. L and R coronary arteries which feed 3. posterior interventricular artery (ventricular walls), marginal artery (walls of R atr and R ventricle), circumflex artery (walls of L atr and L vent), anterior interventricular artery (vent walls)
How does the heart muscle get rid of used/deoxygenated blood? cardiac veins to coronary sinus into the right atrium
What does systole mean? contraction
What does diastole mean? relaxation
If the atria are in systole, what are the ventricles in? diastole
If the atria are in diastole, what are the ventricles in? systole
How is a ventrical filled? passive filling from the atria to the ventricle for the first 70% then the last 30% is squeezed in. The A-V valves will close when pressure is greater in the ventrical than in the atrium
What is laminar flow? smooth flow...what blood flow through the heart should be without any turbulence.
What causes a murmer/abnormal heart sound? turbulent noise. could be valvular insufficiency, calcification of a valve and or narrowing of a valve/valvular stenosis
Cardiac cycle: what happens during atrial systole/ventricular diastole? blood flows passively into ventricles, remaining 30% of blood squeezed in (by atrial systole) the A-V valves open and the semilunar valves close, ventricles are relaxed and ventricular pressure increases as they fill up with blood
Cardiac cycle: what happens during ventricular systole/atrial diastole? A-V valves close, cordae tendonae prevent cusps of valves from bulging too far into the atria, the atria are relaxed, blood flows into atria, ventricular pressure increases and opens semilunar valves, blood flows into pulmonary trunk and aorta
What is Lubb? first heart sound, occurs during ventricular contraction and corresponds with the closing of the A-V valves
What is Dupp? it is the second heart sound, it is a sharper sound, occurs at the beginning of ventricular contraction and corresponds with the closing of the semilunar valves
What is a murmer? abnormal heart sound
What is an innocent murmer? can occur in a very strong heart muscle. Other murmers are a sign of pathology
What congenital defect can cause a murmer? patent foramen ovale
How do you best hear the sound of a valve? place the stethoscope downstream of the valve
What does the term myogenic mean? it means that the hearbeat originates within the heart
What does the term autorhythmic mean? regular, spontaneous depolarization
Which circuit has lower pressure: pulmonary or arterial? pulmonary (little squeeze off to the lungs)
What is the pacemaker for the heart? SA node. innitiates heartbeat and sets heart rate
How does the electrical signal get through to each cardiac muscle fiber? gap junctions
After the SA node fires, how does the electrical signal flow through the heart? atrial syncytium, AV node, AV bundle, right and left bundle branches, Purkinje fibers and ventricular syncytium
what is another name for the A-V bundle? bundle of his
how does the elasticity of arteries affect blood flow? arteries have a lot of elastic tissue, their recoil keeps squeezing the blood through the circulatory system. The elastic recoil releases slowly and squeezes like a tube of toothpaste
What do purkinje fibers do? they branch into the heart muscle causing it to contract at the same time
Are nodes made of nerve fibers? no, they are made of modified muscle cells and can depolarize faster than normal muscle cells
What is the definition of high blood pressure? diastolic over 90
What are some effects of high blood pressure? can cause edema, can cause a back up of venous pressure into pulmonary system. This causes pulmonary congestion leading to congestive heart failure
What does a swan gans catheter measure? pressure in the pulmonary circuit (the catheter is fed into the heart and then fed into the pulmonary system)
Myocardial action potential and contraction: 1. Na gates open, K channels close 2. rapid depolarization 3. Na gates close 4. Ca channels open 5. Ca channels close, K channels open
What happens if the heart muscle works too hard? the muscle gets thicker and the chambers get more narrow
What is the definition of heart failure? heart is not pumping enough blood to supply tissues - one cause is thickening of heart walls
Can the sympathetic nervous system increase H.R.? yes
Can the parasympathetic nervous system decrease heart rate? yes
Can a person on a pacemaker get input from the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems? no
What does an ECG record? electrical changes that occur in the myocardium, and assesses hearts ability to conduct a signal (can be measured at peripheral locations r/t the conductivity of fluid)
What happens if SA node malfunctions? AV node takes over
What is represented by the P wave? atrial depolarization
What is represented by the QRS wave? ventricular depolarization
What is represented by the T wave? ventricular repolarization
How long should the P-R interval be? 0.12 to 0.20 seconds (longer indicates something is wrong in the conduction system of the heart)
How long should the QT interval be ? .06 to .09 seconds
A What does a prolonged/widening QRS complex indicate? possible damage to the A-V bundle fibers
What does widening mean? uncoordinated/incomplete squeezing
What is represented by the P wave? atrial depolarization
What is represented by the QRS wave? ventricular depolarization
What is represented by the T wave? ventricular repolarization
How long should the P-R interval be? 0.12 to 0.20 seconds (longer indicates something is wrong in the conduction system of the heart)
How long should the QT interval be ? .06 to .09 seconds
A What does a prolonged/widening QRS complex indicate? possible damage to the A-V bundle fibers
What does widening mean? uncoordinated/incomplete squeezing
Do the ventricles squeeze everything out? no, they leave about 50 ml in the chamber
Approximately how much blood is in the body? 5L or 5000ml
How much blood goes through the heart in one minute? 5600ml (so all the blood goes through the heart every minute...in theory)
What is the primary drive for breathing? CO2 in blood..body needs to get rid of CO2
How is the cardiac cycle regulated? it will change based on the needs of the body (unless you have a pacemaker)
How does physical exercise affect the cardiac cycle? increases HR, increases O2 consumption, increases CO2 production
How does increase in body temp affect the cardiac cycle? it raises the metabilic rate
How can concentration of various ions affect cardiac cycle? can cause dysrhythmias or produce arrhythmias
In what ways do impulses from the parasympathetic nervous system decrease heart action? neck massage, valsalva maneuver
In what ways can sympathetic impulses increase heart action? scare!
What regulates the autonomic impulses to the heart? the cardiac center of the medulla
Can epi and nor-epi stimulate heart cells? yes
Do the right and left ventricles have the same output? yes, they must be equal
What is cardiac output? amount of blood pumped out by each ventricle in one minute (heart rate times stroke volume equals cardiac output)(BPM times volume per beat)
What is stroke volume? end diastolic volume - end systolic volume (this will change as heart rate changes
What is EDV (end diastolic volume)? how much blood is pre-loaded
What is ESV (end systolic volume)? amount remaining in the ventricle. This depends on contractility and afterload
What does Aarhythmia mean? without rhythm
V-Fib needs to be shocked
V-tach needs to be shocked
flat line/asystole cannot shock, cannot reset a dead system
What will an increase in calcium ion do to the heart? cause it to contract faster/increases contractility(contractility is affected on a cellular level)
What is Frank-Starling law of the heart? greater stretch in the cardiac muscle will result in a greater strength contraction. Preload by atria affect the strength of the ventricle contraction.
How can afterload affect stroke volume? in disease states, the arteries will not be able to accomodate the full afterload which will reduce the amount of blood coming out of the valve
What is hypertropic cardio myopothy? extra strong heart that can't get enough blood through it.
Can a change in position produce a change in blood pressure? yes
What are baroreceptors? pressure receptors
What filters plasma? kidneys. If BP goes up, arteries to kidneys contract to mantain constant pressure
What does the liver filter? stuff from the intestine
What is the term used to describe the force that blood exerts against the inner walls of the blood vessels? blood pressure
How does arterial blood pressure respond to ventricular contraction? it rises
How does arterial blood pressure respond to ventricular relaxation? it falls
How does arterial blood pressure respond to systolic pressure? it is at it's maximum pressure
How does arterial blood pressure respond to diastolic pressure? it is at its minimum pressure
What is the term used to describe alternate expanding and recoiling of the arterial wall that can be felt? pulse
What are the nine palpable pulses? 1. temporal 2. facial 3. carotid 4. brachial 5. radial 6. femoral 7. popliteal 8. posterior tibial 9. dorsalis pedis
What are 6 things that can increase arterial blood pressure? 1. increase in blood volume 2. increase in heart rate 3. increase in stroke volume 4. increase in blood viscosity 5. increase in peripheral resistance
What regulates blood pressure? the control of cardiac output and peripheral resistance
What happens if blood pressure decreases? an increase in sympathetic nervous system stimulation and increase in epinephrine secretion. This increases heart rate which increases cardiac output, which increases blood pressure.
What happens if blood volume increases? it increases venous return and pre-load, produces increased force of contraction (starling's law of the heart),increased stroke volume, increasing blood pressure
What happens when Vasomotor center of medulla oblongata is stimulated? vasoconstriction is increased, which increases peripheral resistance which increases blood pressure
What happens if blood pressure rises? baroreceptors innitiate the cardioinhibitory reflex which lowers the blood pressure
What are the 8 steps to lower blood pressure? 1. cardiac output increases 2. BP rises 3. baroreceptors in aortic arch and carotid sinuses are stimulated 4. sensory impulses sent to cardiac center 5. parasympathetic n.s. send signal to heart 6. SA node inhibited 7. HR decreases 8. BP retuns to normal
What can arterioles do to control BP? dilate. This decreases peripheral resistance to return BP to normal
Where is the blood? 60-70% in systemic veins, 10-12% in lungs, 8-11% in heart, 10-12% in systemic arteries, 4-5% in capilaries
What happens to flow if BP drops? it drops too, and creates a momentary zero pressure in chambers
Where does exchange happen? in the capilaries
Created by: Merrill15888