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| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| 1.The portion of the jaw that surrounds and supports the tooth is the ___ | Alveolar process |
| 2. The term orbicular means ___. | circular |
| 3. Crescent-shaped cartilage found in the TMJ and knee joints is the ___. | meniscus |
| 4. The synovial joint formed at the bicondylar junction of the mandibule and the termporal bone is the ___. | Temporomandibular |
| 5. Another name for the malar bone is the | zygomatic |
| 6. The seventh cranial nerve is also called the ___. | facial nerve |
| 7. What causes dental caries to form? | low pH in the oral cavity |
| 8. The space between the lips (extending to including the cheeks) and the teeth is the ___. | Vestibule |
| 9. The term deciduous refers to the __ teeth. | Primary |
| 10. The anterior portion of the palate is the ___. | Hard palate |
| 11. What structure attaches the tongue to the floor of the buccal cavity? | Lingual frenulum |
| 12. The skull comprises ___ bones. | 22 |
| 13. The lower jawbone is the ___. | Mandible |
| 14. Which facial muscle allows for closure of the mouth and protrusion of the chin? | Masseter |
| 15. What is the term used to describe a deformity in involving an abnormally small jaw? | Micrognathia |
| 16. The term enophthalmos is used to describe ___. | sagging of the eye |
| 17. What is the medical term for premature closure of the sutures of the skull? | Craniostenosis |
| 18. Which of the following best describes a LeFort I fracture? | Alveolar process of the maxilla being horizontally separated from the base of the skull |
| 19. What is the source of autogenous graft material? | patient |
| 20. The purpose of arch bars is to stabilize the ___ bone(s)? | Maxillary |
| 21. Arch bars are fixed into position with a(n) ___. | Wire |
| 22. Vomiting can lead to aspiration, but in the maxillofacial patient it can also pose a risk of ___. | Infection |
| 23. Why is nasal intubation preferred when arch bar application is anticipated? | to provide access to the oral cavity |
| 24. The term malocclusion refers to ___. | teeth that are not in proper alignment |
| 25. Under ideal circumstances, bone healing is expected within ___ weeks. | 4-6 |
| 26. What type of incision is made at the patient’s hairline and can be bilaterally extended? | Coronal |
| 27. Endoscopic viewing of a joint is called ___. | arthroscopy |
| 28. An example of synthetic graft material is ___. | Silastic |
| 29. What is the most common type of midfacial fracture? | LeFort I |
| 30. Which diagnostic imaging method provides images of bony defects? | CT scan |
| 31. In which position will the patient be placed to obtain a Water’s view radiograph? | Upright with the neck hyperextended |
| 32. Which of the following is an action of epinephrine? | vasoconstriction |
| 33. There are ___ bones of the cranium that enclose and protect the brain. | 8 |
| 34. All of the actions of the frontalis muscle EXCEPT ___. | drawing the scalp backward |
| 35. anatomical development of the face occurs along with the development of the cranium around the __ week of embryological life. | 6 |
| 36. Which class of dental fractures extend into the dentin of the tooth? | Class II |
| 37. Most LeFort fractures are a result of ___. | Automobile accidents |
| 38. A rubber wedge placed between the upper and lower teeth of the unaffected side to maintain the patients mouth in an open position is called a(n) __. | Mouth prop |
| 39. All are true regarding throat packs EXCEPT that ___. | Throat packs are kept dry and used to prevent oral secretions, irrigation fluid, blood, and bone or tooth fragments from becoming lodged in the pharynx. |
| 40. A sagittal split osteotomy may be performed to correct ___. | Retrognathism |
| 41. ___ is injected into the joint space to distend the capsule during a TMJ arthroscopy. | Lactated Ringer’s |
| 42. Craniofacial screws come in diameters of ___ mm. | 1 to 4 |
| 43. Which statement is correct concerning oral procedures? | Oral procedures are not considered sterile, use the best technique possible. |
| 1. What layer binds the skin to the underlying structures | subcutaneous |
| 2. Which layer contains hair follicles, sweat glands, sebaceous glands, and nerve fibers? | dermis |
| 3. What burn classification involves only the epidermis? | first degree |
| 4. If skin is taken from an unburned area of the pt and used as a transplant, it is called | autograft |
| 5. A cosmetic procedure performed on the eyelid is | -blepharoplasty |
| 6. Which body site is not ideal for a split-thickness skin graft? | -calf |
| 7. Which nerve must be avoided during a rhytidectomy? | -facial |
| 8. Which type of suture is most often used to close the skin in plastic surgery to achieve a cosmetic closure? | -nylon |
| 9. The anterior portion of the palate that consists of the palatine processes of each maxilla and palatine bones is known as the | -hard palate |
| 10. How many phalanges are in a normal hand? | -14 |
| 11. During replantation, which drug may be used to prevent vasospasm? | -papaverine |
| 1. The outermost layer of the meninges is the | Dura |
| 2. A shallow groove on the brain is called a | Sulcus |
| 3. The cerebral hemispheres are connected by a deep bridge of nerve fibers called the | Corpus callosum |
| 4. A deep groove in the brain is called a | Fissure |
| 5. The area that usually occurs in the left cerebral hemispheres and coordinates the complex muscular movements associated with speech | Broca’s area |
| 6. The left hemisphere is usually associated with | Verbal abilities |
| 7. The right hemisphere is not usually associated with | Analytical thought |
| 8. Masses of grey matter located deep within the cerebral hemispheres are called the | Basal ganglia |
| 9. The ____ serves as a relay station for sensory impulses by channeling them to appropriate regions of the cortex for interpretation. | Thalamus |
| 10. The structures within the ventricles that produce CSF are the | Choroid plexus |
| 11. The medulla oblongata controls which visceral activity | All of the above |
| 12. Most CSF is produced within the___ ventricle. | Lateral |
| 13. The aqueduct of Sylvius (cerebral aqueduct) connects the___ ventricles. | Third and fourth |
| 14. The structure that extends from the level of the foramen magnum to the pons is the | Medulla oblongata |
| 15. The___ plays a key role in maintaining homeostasis by regulating a variety of visceral activities. | Hypothalmus |
| 16. The___ is the largest of the cranial nerves and has three branches. | Trigeminal |
| 17. The ___ nerve supplies the muscles that act in adjusting the amount of light that enters the eyes. | Oculomotor |
| 18. The ___ nerve that has autonomic motor fibers that supply the heart and a variety of smooth muscles. | Vagus |
| 19. The___ nervous system functions independently and continuously without conscious effort. | Autonomic |
| 20. Leroy-Raney clips are used on | Scalp edges |
| 21. The best way to control bleeding on the cut edges of the bone is with | Bone wax |
| 22. A ventricular shunt can be placed distally in the | Atrium or the peritoneal cavity |
| 23. A congenital collection of abnormal vessels of the brain that increases in size with time best describes an | Arteriovenous malformation |
| 24. Which condition results from an obstruction of the flow of CSF, overproduction of CSF, or improper absorption of CSF | Hydrocephalus |
| 25. Which of the following is not a positioning aid for intracranial procedures | Wilson frame |
| 26. Scalp bleeding can be reduced by all of the following except | Heparinized saline |
| 27. Which of the following correctly outlines the procedure to turn a bone flap | Incision, raise muscle flap, perforator, craniotome |
| 28. What is the best temperature for irrigation on the brain | Body temperature |
| 29. Which of the following statements regarding aneurysms clips is not correct | Temporary aneurysms clips can be left in patient for permanent occlusion of an aneurysm |
| 30. Which of the following statements regarding a ventriculopertoneal shunt is not correct | The proximal catheter is a draining tube that is inserted into the peritoneum |
| 31. Which of the following is not a correct approach for a transphenoidal hypophysectomy | Through a craniotomy |
| 32. Which of the following statements regarding a lumbar laminectomy is not correct | Laminectomies can be achieved with the patient in the supine position |
| 33. For a laminectomy with discectomy the appropriate specimen is | Disk |
| 34. Which statement is correct regarding necessary equipment for a craniotomy | The use of a perforator facilitates the making of bur holes |
| 35. Which statement is not correct regarding the placement of the bone flap | The bone flap is placed after the muscle layer is closed with an absorbable suture. |
| 36. Which type of suture would most likely be used to close the dura on an adult patient | 4-0 Neurolon |
| 37. The sphenoid bone forms | Portions of the base of the cranium sides of the skulls and base and sides for the orbits |
| 38. The motor areas of the frontal lobes control | Voluntary muscle movements |
| 39. The ventricles contain all except | Water |
| 40. Which system is responsible for protecting offspring | Limbic |
| 41. Which is the second largest structure of the brain | Cerebellum |
| 42. The midbrain is located just below the | Thalmus |
| 43. The midbrain is located between the | Diencephalon and pons |
| 44. There are___ vertebrae in the cervical region | 7 |
| 45. What are the lateral extensions of the pedicles in the spine called | Annulus fibrosis |
| 46. Which artery provides the brain with the most of its blood | Internal carotid artery |
| 47. What nerve controls the voluntary muscles of the pharynx larynx palate sternocliedomastoid and trapezius | Accessory |
| 48. Which term describes the organ of smell | Olfactory |
| 49. Which tumor is marked by loss of hearing, headache, vertigo, and facial pain | Acoustic neuroma |
| 50. All of the following are true regarding subdural hematomas except that | The pressure of blood from arterial bleeding strips the dura away from the skull causing more bleeding as the tiny veins from the dura to the skull are torn |
| 51. Cerebral aneurysms are typically found | At points of bifurcation in the arteries of the circle of willis |
| 52. Brain hemorrhages are typically the result of | Uncontrolled hypetension |
| 53. During craniotomy for aneurysms repair, ___ may be necessary to prevent vasospasm | papaverine |
| 54. Which procedure requires two mayo stand to prevent contamination | Transphenoidal hypophysectopmy |
| What structure is referred to as the “pacemaker of the heart”? | SA node |
| Which portion of the heart receives the unoxygenated blood? | Right atrium |
| The coronary arteries arise from the ___. | Aorta |
| The coronary veins empty into the ___. | Coronary sinus |
| Which artery supplies blood to the walls of the left atrium and ventricle? | Circumflex |
| Which structure is attached to the valvular cusps and prevents valves from swinging back into the atria? | Chordae tendineae |
| There are ___ pulmonary veins. | Four |
| Which structure prevents the trachea from collapsing? | Hylaine cartilage |
| The structure between an alveoli and bronchiole is the ___. | Alveolar duct |
| The microscopic air sacs clustered at the end of the bronchiole are the ___. | Alveoli |
| The right lung is divided into how many lobes? | Three |
| The heart lies ___. | Slightly to the right within the mediastinum |
| The heart is surrounded by the ___. | Pericardium |
| Which of the following defines the term systole? | Contraction phase |
| When does the fetal heart begin developing? | third week |
| What is the most common congenital chest deformity? | Pectus excavatum |
| What medical term refers to the abnormal accumulation of air in the pleural cavity? | Pneumothorax |
| All of the following are false for types of aneurysms EXCEPT that | A true aneurysm is a pulsatile hematoma contained by a fibrous capsule |
| An abnormal opening in the wall between the right and left ventricles of the heart is known as a(n) | Ventricular septal defect |
| Which of the following is NOT considered a sterile procedure? | Bronchoscopy |
| Which surgical patient position is used for a lobectomy? | Posterolateral |
| Whch piece of equipment assumes the role of the heart and lungs while undergoing cardiopulmonary bypass? | Heart/lung |
| All of the following are false for aortic cannulation during cardiopulmonary bypass EXCEPT that the cannula is placed in the ___. | Aorta |
| Which of the following protects the heart from damage during cardiopulmonary bypass? | Hypothermia |
| Which mechanical device is designed for circulatory support after cardiac procedures? | Intra-aortic balloon pump |
| Which type of hemostatic agent is placed on each side of the sternum after a median sternotomy? | Bone wax |
| Into which portion of the heart is the cannula placed to achieve venous cannulation for cardiopulmonary bypass? | Right atrium |
| Which solution or drug is NOT to be used during a coronary artery bypass grafting? | Water |
| All of the following are false for cardiac pacemaker insertion EXCEPT that the electrodes are placed | Right atrium |
| All of the following are true for tetralogy of Fallot EXCEPT that the ___. | Tetralogy of Fallot involves four cyanotic congenital heart defects |
| The parts of the sternum from superior to inferior are ___. | Manubrium, body, and xiphoid process |
| The trachea divides at the ___ into right and left bronchi. | Carina |
| Oxygenated blood leaves the lungs through the ___. | Pulmonary veins |
| All of the following are true regarding the serous pericardium EXCEPT that ___. | It’s inelastic and serves to protect the heart |
| Another name for the mitral valve is the ___. | Bicuspid |
| All of the following are false regarding the bundle of His EXCEPT that ___. | It is located in the right atrial wall inferior to the opening of the superior vena cava |
| The continuation of the umbilical vein is known as the ___. | Ductus venosus |
| After birth, with the elimination of placental circulation, which structure closes? | Umbilical arteries |
| Cyanotic defects include all EXCEPT ___. | Coarctation of the aorta |
| Truncus arteriosus is characterized by ___. | A single artery arising from both ventricles |
| For the posterolateral position, the operating room personnel should have which of the following available? | Beanbag |
| 1) Microscopic vessels designed to exchange nutrients and wastes b/w blood & tissue fluid around the cells are knwn as__________. | capillaries |
| 2) Which of the following accuratley describes the layers of an artery from inner to outer layer? | tunica intima, tunica media, tunica adventitia |
| 3) Which of the following statements accurately describes the characteristics of a vien? | veins have specialized structures called valves |
| 4) Which of the following statements concerning blood pressure is NOT correct? | venous blood pressue is much higher than arterial blood pressure |
| 5) Which structure supplies the myocardium with oxygenated blood? | coronary arteries |
| 6) Of the following, which is not the one of the three major branches of the aortic arch? | right subclavian artery |
| 7) The aorta bifurcates at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra into the ____. | right & left common iliac arteries |
| 8)Which arteries supply the pelvis & perineum with blood? | internal iliac |
| 9) Which arteries supply the neck adn head outside of the skull w/blood? | external carotid |
| 10) Which arteries communicate with the basilar artery to form the circle of Willis? | internal carotid |
| 11) Which arteries supply blood to the spinal cord and its meninges? | lumbar arteries |
| 12) Which veins receive blood from the brain, meninges, and deeper regions of the face and neck? | Internal jugular |
| 13) Which vein travels along the lateral side of the arm from the hand to the shoulder, eventually empytying into the axillary vein? | cephalic |
| 14) Which is the longest vein in the body? | greater saphenous |
| 15) The anterior & posterior tibial veins unite to form the ____. | popliteal vein |
| 16) Claudication refers to__________. | cramping |
| 17) Which of the following statements regarding arterial embolism is NOT correct? | the formation of emboli always causes immediate death |
| 18) Which of the following statements concerning abdominal aneurysms is CORRECT? | most abdominal aneurysms arise below the level of the renal arteries |
| 19) Choose the correct statment regarding an endarterectomy | Endarterectomy is preformed to alleviate occlusion of an artery |
| 20) Whcih graft requires preclotting by the surgical team? | porous dacron grafts |
| 21) For an aortofemoral bypass, which statement is NOT correct? | the arterial incision is made with a #10 knife blade on a long #3 handle or the pt will be perpped form midchest to midthigh & as far as poss on each side |
| 22) Delicate polypropylene sutures can be tagged with a ___. | rubber shod |
| 23) A Dietrich set includes items such as | vascular clamps, dilators & scissors |
| 24) Typical suture gauge for a femoral vascular anastomosis is ____. | 5-0 |
| 25) Which procedure includes a prep form a midabdomen to toes, with the affected leg prepped circumferentially? | femoral-popliteal bypass OR aortofemoral bypass |
| 26) Which of the following statements regarding drugs handled by the STSR is correct? | Heparin in sodium chloride irrigation can be used for intra-arterial irrigation |
| 27) Which choice indicated teh correct sequence of events for clamping fo the vessels prior to an arteriotomy? | heparinize patient, apply proximal clamp, apply distal clamp, incise vessel |
| 28) Which procedure could necessitate the use of a Javid shunt? | carotid endarterectomy |
| 29) Which vessels must be clamped during a carotid endarterectomy? | all of the above |
| 30) With what instrument is an arteriotomy initiated? | #11 blade on a #7 knife handle |
| 31) Intraluminal stents can be made of all of the following materials except | polyglactin 910 |
| 32) Which graft material cannot be safely used in the popliteal space? | porous Dacron graft |
| 33) Which approach would be best for an aortofemoral bypass? | anterior abdominal |
| 34) The surgical excision of a dilated protion of the aortic wall with immediate reconstruction using a synthetic graft is knwn as a(n)____________. | abdominal aortic aneurysm resection |
| 35) the purpose of a femoral-popliteal bypass is to _______. | restore blood flow to the lower limb |
| 36) Which statement is correct regarding the positioning of the pt about to undergo a carotid endarterectomy? | The patient should be placed in the supine position, with a roll under the scapulae and the head turned away from the operative side. |
| 37) Which clamp is removed last during a carotid endarterectomy? | internal carotid artery |
| 38) Which guage suture is appropriate for closing a carotid arteriotomy? | 6-0 |
| 39) Which suture type is appropriate for closing an arteriotomy? | polypropylene |
| 40) Which type of needle is appropriate for closing a vessel? | taper |
| 41) Which statement is correct regarding the suture for peripheral vascular surgery? | before tying polypropylene sutures, the surgeon's hands should be wet |
| 42) Which statement is NOT correct regarding supplies required for peripheral vascular procedures? | a doppler probe can be used to dilate vessels |
| 43) Which of the following statements regarding the special needs of peripheral vascular pts is NOT correct? | monitors such as arterial lines and Swan-Ganz catheters are not necessary for these patients |
| 44) Whcihc artery supplies the upper portion of the digestive tube, the spleen and liver? | celiac |
| 46) Which medication is always added to injectable saline for intra-arterial irrigation? | heparin |
Created by:
jb005