final. Word Scramble

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Question	Answer
1.The portion of the jaw that surrounds and supports the tooth is the ___	Alveolar process
2. The term orbicular means ___.	circular
3. Crescent-shaped cartilage found in the TMJ and knee joints is the ___.	meniscus
4. The synovial joint formed at the bicondylar junction of the mandibule and the termporal bone is the ___.	Temporomandibular
5. Another name for the malar bone is the	zygomatic
6. The seventh cranial nerve is also called the ___.	facial nerve
7. What causes dental caries to form?	low pH in the oral cavity
8. The space between the lips (extending to including the cheeks) and the teeth is the ___.	Vestibule
9. The term deciduous refers to the __ teeth.	Primary
10. The anterior portion of the palate is the ___.	Hard palate
11. What structure attaches the tongue to the floor of the buccal cavity?	Lingual frenulum
12. The skull comprises ___ bones.	22
13. The lower jawbone is the ___.	Mandible
14. Which facial muscle allows for closure of the mouth and protrusion of the chin?	Masseter
15. What is the term used to describe a deformity in involving an abnormally small jaw?	Micrognathia
16. The term enophthalmos is used to describe ___.	sagging of the eye
17. What is the medical term for premature closure of the sutures of the skull?	Craniostenosis
18. Which of the following best describes a LeFort I fracture?	Alveolar process of the maxilla being horizontally separated from the base of the skull
19. What is the source of autogenous graft material?	patient
20. The purpose of arch bars is to stabilize the ___ bone(s)?	Maxillary
21. Arch bars are fixed into position with a(n) ___.	Wire
22. Vomiting can lead to aspiration, but in the maxillofacial patient it can also pose a risk of ___.	Infection
23. Why is nasal intubation preferred when arch bar application is anticipated?	to provide access to the oral cavity
24. The term malocclusion refers to ___.	teeth that are not in proper alignment
25. Under ideal circumstances, bone healing is expected within ___ weeks.	4-6
26. What type of incision is made at the patient’s hairline and can be bilaterally extended?	Coronal
27. Endoscopic viewing of a joint is called ___.	arthroscopy
28. An example of synthetic graft material is ___.	Silastic
29. What is the most common type of midfacial fracture?	LeFort I
30. Which diagnostic imaging method provides images of bony defects?	CT scan
31. In which position will the patient be placed to obtain a Water’s view radiograph?	Upright with the neck hyperextended
32. Which of the following is an action of epinephrine?	vasoconstriction
33. There are ___ bones of the cranium that enclose and protect the brain.	8
34. All of the actions of the frontalis muscle EXCEPT ___.	drawing the scalp backward
35. anatomical development of the face occurs along with the development of the cranium around the __ week of embryological life.	6
36. Which class of dental fractures extend into the dentin of the tooth?	Class II
37. Most LeFort fractures are a result of ___.	Automobile accidents
38. A rubber wedge placed between the upper and lower teeth of the unaffected side to maintain the patients mouth in an open position is called a(n) __.	Mouth prop
39. All are true regarding throat packs EXCEPT that ___.	Throat packs are kept dry and used to prevent oral secretions, irrigation fluid, blood, and bone or tooth fragments from becoming lodged in the pharynx.
40. A sagittal split osteotomy may be performed to correct ___.	Retrognathism
41. ___ is injected into the joint space to distend the capsule during a TMJ arthroscopy.	Lactated Ringer’s
42. Craniofacial screws come in diameters of ___ mm.	1 to 4
43. Which statement is correct concerning oral procedures?	Oral procedures are not considered sterile, use the best technique possible.
1. What layer binds the skin to the underlying structures	subcutaneous
2. Which layer contains hair follicles, sweat glands, sebaceous glands, and nerve fibers?	dermis
3. What burn classification involves only the epidermis?	first degree
4. If skin is taken from an unburned area of the pt and used as a transplant, it is called	autograft
5. A cosmetic procedure performed on the eyelid is	-blepharoplasty
6. Which body site is not ideal for a split-thickness skin graft?	-calf
7. Which nerve must be avoided during a rhytidectomy?	-facial
8. Which type of suture is most often used to close the skin in plastic surgery to achieve a cosmetic closure?	-nylon
9. The anterior portion of the palate that consists of the palatine processes of each maxilla and palatine bones is known as the	-hard palate
10. How many phalanges are in a normal hand?	-14
11. During replantation, which drug may be used to prevent vasospasm?	-papaverine
1. The outermost layer of the meninges is the	Dura
2. A shallow groove on the brain is called a	Sulcus
3. The cerebral hemispheres are connected by a deep bridge of nerve fibers called the	Corpus callosum
4. A deep groove in the brain is called a	Fissure
5. The area that usually occurs in the left cerebral hemispheres and coordinates the complex muscular movements associated with speech	Broca’s area
6. The left hemisphere is usually associated with	Verbal abilities
7. The right hemisphere is not usually associated with	Analytical thought
8. Masses of grey matter located deep within the cerebral hemispheres are called the	Basal ganglia
9. The ____ serves as a relay station for sensory impulses by channeling them to appropriate regions of the cortex for interpretation.	Thalamus
10. The structures within the ventricles that produce CSF are the	Choroid plexus
11. The medulla oblongata controls which visceral activity	All of the above
12. Most CSF is produced within the___ ventricle.	Lateral
13. The aqueduct of Sylvius (cerebral aqueduct) connects the___ ventricles.	Third and fourth
14. The structure that extends from the level of the foramen magnum to the pons is the	Medulla oblongata
15. The___ plays a key role in maintaining homeostasis by regulating a variety of visceral activities.	Hypothalmus
16. The___ is the largest of the cranial nerves and has three branches.	Trigeminal
17. The ___ nerve supplies the muscles that act in adjusting the amount of light that enters the eyes.	Oculomotor
18. The ___ nerve that has autonomic motor fibers that supply the heart and a variety of smooth muscles.	Vagus
19. The___ nervous system functions independently and continuously without conscious effort.	Autonomic
20. Leroy-Raney clips are used on	Scalp edges
21. The best way to control bleeding on the cut edges of the bone is with	Bone wax
22. A ventricular shunt can be placed distally in the	Atrium or the peritoneal cavity
23. A congenital collection of abnormal vessels of the brain that increases in size with time best describes an	Arteriovenous malformation
24. Which condition results from an obstruction of the flow of CSF, overproduction of CSF, or improper absorption of CSF	Hydrocephalus
25. Which of the following is not a positioning aid for intracranial procedures	Wilson frame
26. Scalp bleeding can be reduced by all of the following except	Heparinized saline
27. Which of the following correctly outlines the procedure to turn a bone flap	Incision, raise muscle flap, perforator, craniotome
28. What is the best temperature for irrigation on the brain	Body temperature
29. Which of the following statements regarding aneurysms clips is not correct	Temporary aneurysms clips can be left in patient for permanent occlusion of an aneurysm
30. Which of the following statements regarding a ventriculopertoneal shunt is not correct	The proximal catheter is a draining tube that is inserted into the peritoneum
31. Which of the following is not a correct approach for a transphenoidal hypophysectomy	Through a craniotomy
32. Which of the following statements regarding a lumbar laminectomy is not correct	Laminectomies can be achieved with the patient in the supine position
33. For a laminectomy with discectomy the appropriate specimen is	Disk
34. Which statement is correct regarding necessary equipment for a craniotomy	The use of a perforator facilitates the making of bur holes
35. Which statement is not correct regarding the placement of the bone flap	The bone flap is placed after the muscle layer is closed with an absorbable suture.
36. Which type of suture would most likely be used to close the dura on an adult patient	4-0 Neurolon
37. The sphenoid bone forms	Portions of the base of the cranium sides of the skulls and base and sides for the orbits
38. The motor areas of the frontal lobes control	Voluntary muscle movements
39. The ventricles contain all except	Water
40. Which system is responsible for protecting offspring	Limbic
41. Which is the second largest structure of the brain	Cerebellum
42. The midbrain is located just below the	Thalmus
43. The midbrain is located between the	Diencephalon and pons
44. There are___ vertebrae in the cervical region	7
45. What are the lateral extensions of the pedicles in the spine called	Annulus fibrosis
46. Which artery provides the brain with the most of its blood	Internal carotid artery
47. What nerve controls the voluntary muscles of the pharynx larynx palate sternocliedomastoid and trapezius	Accessory
48. Which term describes the organ of smell	Olfactory
49. Which tumor is marked by loss of hearing, headache, vertigo, and facial pain	Acoustic neuroma
50. All of the following are true regarding subdural hematomas except that	The pressure of blood from arterial bleeding strips the dura away from the skull causing more bleeding as the tiny veins from the dura to the skull are torn
51. Cerebral aneurysms are typically found	At points of bifurcation in the arteries of the circle of willis
52. Brain hemorrhages are typically the result of	Uncontrolled hypetension
53. During craniotomy for aneurysms repair, ___ may be necessary to prevent vasospasm	papaverine
54. Which procedure requires two mayo stand to prevent contamination	Transphenoidal hypophysectopmy
What structure is referred to as the “pacemaker of the heart”?	SA node
Which portion of the heart receives the unoxygenated blood?	Right atrium
The coronary arteries arise from the ___.	Aorta
The coronary veins empty into the ___.	Coronary sinus
Which artery supplies blood to the walls of the left atrium and ventricle?	Circumflex
Which structure is attached to the valvular cusps and prevents valves from swinging back into the atria?	Chordae tendineae
There are ___ pulmonary veins.	Four
Which structure prevents the trachea from collapsing?	Hylaine cartilage
The structure between an alveoli and bronchiole is the ___.	Alveolar duct
The microscopic air sacs clustered at the end of the bronchiole are the ___.	Alveoli
The right lung is divided into how many lobes?	Three
The heart lies ___.	Slightly to the right within the mediastinum
The heart is surrounded by the ___.	Pericardium
Which of the following defines the term systole?	Contraction phase
When does the fetal heart begin developing?	third week
What is the most common congenital chest deformity?	Pectus excavatum
What medical term refers to the abnormal accumulation of air in the pleural cavity?	Pneumothorax
All of the following are false for types of aneurysms EXCEPT that	A true aneurysm is a pulsatile hematoma contained by a fibrous capsule
An abnormal opening in the wall between the right and left ventricles of the heart is known as a(n)	Ventricular septal defect
Which of the following is NOT considered a sterile procedure?	Bronchoscopy
Which surgical patient position is used for a lobectomy?	Posterolateral
Whch piece of equipment assumes the role of the heart and lungs while undergoing cardiopulmonary bypass?	Heart/lung
All of the following are false for aortic cannulation during cardiopulmonary bypass EXCEPT that the cannula is placed in the ___.	Aorta
Which of the following protects the heart from damage during cardiopulmonary bypass?	Hypothermia
Which mechanical device is designed for circulatory support after cardiac procedures?	Intra-aortic balloon pump
Which type of hemostatic agent is placed on each side of the sternum after a median sternotomy?	Bone wax
Into which portion of the heart is the cannula placed to achieve venous cannulation for cardiopulmonary bypass?	Right atrium
Which solution or drug is NOT to be used during a coronary artery bypass grafting?	Water
All of the following are false for cardiac pacemaker insertion EXCEPT that the electrodes are placed	Right atrium
All of the following are true for tetralogy of Fallot EXCEPT that the ___.	Tetralogy of Fallot involves four cyanotic congenital heart defects
The parts of the sternum from superior to inferior are ___.	Manubrium, body, and xiphoid process
The trachea divides at the ___ into right and left bronchi.	Carina
Oxygenated blood leaves the lungs through the ___.	Pulmonary veins
All of the following are true regarding the serous pericardium EXCEPT that ___.	It’s inelastic and serves to protect the heart
Another name for the mitral valve is the ___.	Bicuspid
All of the following are false regarding the bundle of His EXCEPT that ___.	It is located in the right atrial wall inferior to the opening of the superior vena cava
The continuation of the umbilical vein is known as the ___.	Ductus venosus
After birth, with the elimination of placental circulation, which structure closes?	Umbilical arteries
Cyanotic defects include all EXCEPT ___.	Coarctation of the aorta
Truncus arteriosus is characterized by ___.	A single artery arising from both ventricles
For the posterolateral position, the operating room personnel should have which of the following available?	Beanbag
1) Microscopic vessels designed to exchange nutrients and wastes b/w blood & tissue fluid around the cells are knwn as__________.	capillaries
2) Which of the following accuratley describes the layers of an artery from inner to outer layer?	tunica intima, tunica media, tunica adventitia
3) Which of the following statements accurately describes the characteristics of a vien?	veins have specialized structures called valves
4) Which of the following statements concerning blood pressure is NOT correct?	venous blood pressue is much higher than arterial blood pressure
5) Which structure supplies the myocardium with oxygenated blood?	coronary arteries
6) Of the following, which is not the one of the three major branches of the aortic arch?	right subclavian artery
7) The aorta bifurcates at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra into the ____.	right & left common iliac arteries
8)Which arteries supply the pelvis & perineum with blood?	internal iliac
9) Which arteries supply the neck adn head outside of the skull w/blood?	external carotid
10) Which arteries communicate with the basilar artery to form the circle of Willis?	internal carotid
11) Which arteries supply blood to the spinal cord and its meninges?	lumbar arteries
12) Which veins receive blood from the brain, meninges, and deeper regions of the face and neck?	Internal jugular
13) Which vein travels along the lateral side of the arm from the hand to the shoulder, eventually empytying into the axillary vein?	cephalic
14) Which is the longest vein in the body?	greater saphenous
15) The anterior & posterior tibial veins unite to form the ____.	popliteal vein
16) Claudication refers to__________.	cramping
17) Which of the following statements regarding arterial embolism is NOT correct?	the formation of emboli always causes immediate death
18) Which of the following statements concerning abdominal aneurysms is CORRECT?	most abdominal aneurysms arise below the level of the renal arteries
19) Choose the correct statment regarding an endarterectomy	Endarterectomy is preformed to alleviate occlusion of an artery
20) Whcih graft requires preclotting by the surgical team?	porous dacron grafts
21) For an aortofemoral bypass, which statement is NOT correct?	the arterial incision is made with a #10 knife blade on a long #3 handle or the pt will be perpped form midchest to midthigh & as far as poss on each side
22) Delicate polypropylene sutures can be tagged with a ___.	rubber shod
23) A Dietrich set includes items such as	vascular clamps, dilators & scissors
24) Typical suture gauge for a femoral vascular anastomosis is ____.	5-0
25) Which procedure includes a prep form a midabdomen to toes, with the affected leg prepped circumferentially?	femoral-popliteal bypass OR aortofemoral bypass
26) Which of the following statements regarding drugs handled by the STSR is correct?	Heparin in sodium chloride irrigation can be used for intra-arterial irrigation
27) Which choice indicated teh correct sequence of events for clamping fo the vessels prior to an arteriotomy?	heparinize patient, apply proximal clamp, apply distal clamp, incise vessel
28) Which procedure could necessitate the use of a Javid shunt?	carotid endarterectomy
29) Which vessels must be clamped during a carotid endarterectomy?	all of the above
30) With what instrument is an arteriotomy initiated?	#11 blade on a #7 knife handle
31) Intraluminal stents can be made of all of the following materials except	polyglactin 910
32) Which graft material cannot be safely used in the popliteal space?	porous Dacron graft
33) Which approach would be best for an aortofemoral bypass?	anterior abdominal
34) The surgical excision of a dilated protion of the aortic wall with immediate reconstruction using a synthetic graft is knwn as a(n)____________.	abdominal aortic aneurysm resection
35) the purpose of a femoral-popliteal bypass is to _______.	restore blood flow to the lower limb
36) Which statement is correct regarding the positioning of the pt about to undergo a carotid endarterectomy?	The patient should be placed in the supine position, with a roll under the scapulae and the head turned away from the operative side.
37) Which clamp is removed last during a carotid endarterectomy?	internal carotid artery
38) Which guage suture is appropriate for closing a carotid arteriotomy?	6-0
39) Which suture type is appropriate for closing an arteriotomy?	polypropylene
40) Which type of needle is appropriate for closing a vessel?	taper
41) Which statement is correct regarding the suture for peripheral vascular surgery?	before tying polypropylene sutures, the surgeon's hands should be wet
42) Which statement is NOT correct regarding supplies required for peripheral vascular procedures?	a doppler probe can be used to dilate vessels
43) Which of the following statements regarding the special needs of peripheral vascular pts is NOT correct?	monitors such as arterial lines and Swan-Ganz catheters are not necessary for these patients
44) Whcihc artery supplies the upper portion of the digestive tube, the spleen and liver?	celiac
46) Which medication is always added to injectable saline for intra-arterial irrigation?	heparin

Created by: jb005