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DIT 2009 WK 1

Q&A from DIT emailed questions WK 1

QuestionAnswer
Findings in pt with a lesion of CN XII LMN - tongue will deviate toward side of the lesion
Findings in pt with a lesion of CN X Uvula deviates away from side from side of lesion
Findings in pt with a lesion of CN V Motor lesion - jaw deviates toward side of lesion
Findings in pt with a lesion of CN XI Weakness turning head to contralateral side of lesion. Shoulder droop on side of lesion
Distinctive clinical features of Williams's Sx Distinctive "elfin" facies, mental retardation, well-developed verbal skills, cheerful disposition, extreme friendliness with strangers, cardiovascular problems (ie. supravalvular aortic stenosis)
Which cells have CD3 molecules Cluster of polypeptides associated with a T-cell receptor. Important in signal transduction
Which cells have CD4 molecules Helper T cells (T2), which bind to MHC II on APC
Which cells have CD8 molecules Cytotoxic T cells (T1), which bind to MHC I on virus-infected cells
What causes the S1 heart sound? Mitral and Tricuspid closing (loudest at Mitral area)
What causes the S2 heart sound? Aortic and Pulmonary closing (loudest at left sternal border)
What causes the S3 heart sound? Heard in early diastole during rapid ventricular filling phase, associated with increase filling pressure and more common in dilated ventricles (normal in children)
What causes the S4 heart sound? "Atrial kick" - heard in late diastole, high atrial pressure, associated with ventricular hypertrophy, left atrium must push against a stiff LV wall
Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor - used in eye to produce mydriasis and cycloplegia Atropine (homotrapine, tropicamide)
Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor - used in CNS for Parkinson's Dz Benztropine
Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor - used for motion sickness Scopolamine
Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor - used for asthma and COPD Ipratropium
Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor - used in GU to reduce urgency in mild cystitis and reduce bladder spasms Oxybutynin (glycopyrrolate)
Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor - used in GI for peptic ulcers Methscopolamine (pirenzepine, propantheline)
Indirect cetylcholinesterase inhibitor - used as postoperative and neurogenic ileus and urinary retention, MG, reversal of neuromuscular junction blockade (postoperative) *No CNS penetration* Neostigmine
Indirect cetylcholinesterase inhibitor - used for MG (long acting); does not penetrate CNS Pyridostigmine
Indirect cetylcholinesterase inhibitor - used in Glaucoma (crosses BBB --> CNS) and atropine overdose Physostigmine
Indirect cetylcholinesterase inhibitor - used for glaucoma Echothiophate
Define nephritic syndrome inflammatory process involving the glomeruli, leading to hematuria, azotemia, RBC casts in urine, oliguria, hypertension, and mild proteinuria (<3.5g/d)
Define nephrotic syndrome massive proteinuria (>3.5g/d), frothy urine (fatty casts, oval fat bodies), hyperlipidemia/lipiduria (b/c liver is up regulated), and edema (b/c of loss of albumin – oncotic pressure)
What are the acidic amino acids? Asp and Glu (both neg charged at body pH)
What are the basic amino acids? Arg, Lys, and His
Where can one find high concentrations of basic amino acids and why? Found in high concentrations in histones, which bind negatively charged DNA
Bacteria are known for causing bloody diarrhea Campylobacter, Salmonella, Shigella, E.coli (enterohemorrhagic and eterocolitica), C. difficile, and E. histolytica
Bacteria known for causing watery diarrhea E. coli (enterotoxigenic), V. cholera, C. perfringens, Protozoa and viruses
Nerve injury suspected in a pt with foot drop (loss of dorsiflexion) Common peroneal
Nerve injury suspected in a pt with loss of plantar flexion Tibial
Nerve injury suspected in a pt with loss of knee jerk Femoral
Nerve injury suspected in a pt with loss of hip adduction Obturator
Leading causes of death in infants congenital anomalies, short gestation/low birth weight, sudden infant death syndrome, maternal complications of pregnancy, respiratory distress syndrome
Formula for a drug's volume of distribution amount of drug in the body/plasma drug concentration
Clinical features of hyperammonemia tremor, slurring of speech, somnolence, vomiting, cerebral edema, blurring of vision. Can be acquired (liver disease) or hereditary (urea cycle enzyme deficiencies)
Changes in sleep patterns and sexual anatomy are seen in the elderly *Sleep pattern changes: decreased REM, slow-wave sleep with increase in sleep latency and awakenings during the night *Sexual anatomy changes: Men – slower erection/ejaculation, longer refractory period. Women – vaginal shortening, thinning, and dryness
Describe the probe and sample to which the probe binds in Souther blot DNA sample electrophoresed on gel & transferred to a filter, soaked in a denaturant & exposed to a labeled DNA probe recognized & anneals to complementary strand - results in ds labeled DNA
Describe the probe and sample to which the probe binds in Northern blot involves radioactive DNA probe binding to sample RNA. Best way to determine if a gene is being expressed
Describe the probe and sample to which the probe binds in Western blot Protein is separated via gel electrophoresis and transferred to a filter. Labeled antibody is used to bind to the relevant protein. Detects a target polypeptide or protein from within a mixed sample
Describe the probe and sample to which the probe binds in Souther blot DNA sample electrophoresed on gel & transferred to a filter, soaked in a denaturant & exposed to a labeled DNA probe recognized & anneals to complementary strand - results in ds labeled DNA
Describe the probe and sample to which the probe binds in Northern blot involves radioactive DNA probe binding to sample RNA. Best way to determine if a gene is being expressed
Neoplasm most commonly responsible for the hormone ACTH paraneoplastic syndrome Small Cell Lung Carcinoma
Describe the probe and sample to which the probe binds in Western blot Protein is separated via gel electrophoresis and transferred to a filter. Labeled antibody is used to bind to the relevant protein. Detects a target polypeptide or protein from within a mixed sample
Neoplasm most commonly responsible for the hormone PTH-related peptide paraneoplastic syndrome Squamous cell lung, renal cell, & breast carcinoma
Diagnostic criteria for major depressive episode 5 of the following for 2 weeks: Sleep disturbance, Loss of Interest (anhedonia), Guilt or feelings of worthlessness, Loss of energy, Loss of concentration, Appetite/weight changes, Psychomotor retardation or agitation, Suicidal ideations, Depressed mood
Neoplasm most commonly responsible for the hormone Erythropoietin paraneoplastic syndrome Renal cell carcinoma, hemangioblastoma
Clinical definition of chronic bronchitis AKA “Blue Bloater” - Reid index > 50% - productive cough for >3 consecutive months in >/= 2 yrs
Neoplasm most commonly responsible for the hormone ADH paraneoplastic syndrome Small cell lung carcinoma & intracranial neoplasms
Neoplasm most commonly responsible for the hormone ACTH paraneoplastic syndrome Small Cell Lung Carcinoma
What is the blood supply to the embryonic foregut and what adult structures arise from it? Celiac artery – stomach to proximal duodenum; liver, gall bladder, pancreas
Neoplasm most commonly responsible for the hormone PTH-related peptide paraneoplastic syndrome Squamous cell lung, renal cell, & breast carcinoma
What is the blood supply to the embryonic Midgut and what adult structures arise from it? SMA – (develops in yolk sac) distal duodenum to proximal 2/3 of transverse colon
Neoplasm most commonly responsible for the hormone Erythropoietin paraneoplastic syndrome Renal cell carcinoma, hemangioblastoma
Neoplasm most commonly responsible for the hormone ADH paraneoplastic syndrome Small cell lung carcinoma & intracranial neoplasms
What is the blood supply to the embryonic foregut and what adult structures arise from it? Celiac artery – stomach to proximal duodenum; liver, gall bladder, pancreas
What is the blood supply to the embryonic Midgut and what adult structures arise from it? SMA – (develops in yolk sac) distal duodenum to proximal 2/3 of transverse colon
What is the blood supply to the embryonic Hindgut and what adult structures arise from it? IMA – distal 1/3 of transverse colon to upper portion of rectum (splenic flexure is watershed region)
Which tract of the spinal cord relays sensory information from the body? a) Dorsal column – Medial lemniscal pathway (ascending pressure, vibration, touch, and proprioceptive sensation
Which tract relays pain and temperature sensation? b) Spinothalamic tract – ascending pain and temperature sensation (A-delta and C-fibers), cell body in DRG. Only tract that crosses at spinal cord
Which tract relays motor sensation to the body? c) Lateral corticospinal tract - descending voluntary movement of contralateral limbs
Most common tumor of the salivary gland a) Pleomorphic adenoma (MC tumor, painless, movable mass; benign with high rate of recurrence)
Most common malignant tumor of the salivary gland? Mucoepidermoid CA
Created by: snezya24