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DIT 2009 WK 1
Q&A from DIT emailed questions WK 1
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Findings in pt with a lesion of CN XII | LMN - tongue will deviate toward side of the lesion |
| Findings in pt with a lesion of CN X | Uvula deviates away from side from side of lesion |
| Findings in pt with a lesion of CN V | Motor lesion - jaw deviates toward side of lesion |
| Findings in pt with a lesion of CN XI | Weakness turning head to contralateral side of lesion. Shoulder droop on side of lesion |
| Distinctive clinical features of Williams's Sx | Distinctive "elfin" facies, mental retardation, well-developed verbal skills, cheerful disposition, extreme friendliness with strangers, cardiovascular problems (ie. supravalvular aortic stenosis) |
| Which cells have CD3 molecules | Cluster of polypeptides associated with a T-cell receptor. Important in signal transduction |
| Which cells have CD4 molecules | Helper T cells (T2), which bind to MHC II on APC |
| Which cells have CD8 molecules | Cytotoxic T cells (T1), which bind to MHC I on virus-infected cells |
| What causes the S1 heart sound? | Mitral and Tricuspid closing (loudest at Mitral area) |
| What causes the S2 heart sound? | Aortic and Pulmonary closing (loudest at left sternal border) |
| What causes the S3 heart sound? | Heard in early diastole during rapid ventricular filling phase, associated with increase filling pressure and more common in dilated ventricles (normal in children) |
| What causes the S4 heart sound? | "Atrial kick" - heard in late diastole, high atrial pressure, associated with ventricular hypertrophy, left atrium must push against a stiff LV wall |
| Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor - used in eye to produce mydriasis and cycloplegia | Atropine (homotrapine, tropicamide) |
| Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor - used in CNS for Parkinson's Dz | Benztropine |
| Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor - used for motion sickness | Scopolamine |
| Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor - used for asthma and COPD | Ipratropium |
| Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor - used in GU to reduce urgency in mild cystitis and reduce bladder spasms | Oxybutynin (glycopyrrolate) |
| Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor - used in GI for peptic ulcers | Methscopolamine (pirenzepine, propantheline) |
| Indirect cetylcholinesterase inhibitor - used as postoperative and neurogenic ileus and urinary retention, MG, reversal of neuromuscular junction blockade (postoperative) *No CNS penetration* | Neostigmine |
| Indirect cetylcholinesterase inhibitor - used for MG (long acting); does not penetrate CNS | Pyridostigmine |
| Indirect cetylcholinesterase inhibitor - used in Glaucoma (crosses BBB --> CNS) and atropine overdose | Physostigmine |
| Indirect cetylcholinesterase inhibitor - used for glaucoma | Echothiophate |
| Define nephritic syndrome | inflammatory process involving the glomeruli, leading to hematuria, azotemia, RBC casts in urine, oliguria, hypertension, and mild proteinuria (<3.5g/d) |
| Define nephrotic syndrome | massive proteinuria (>3.5g/d), frothy urine (fatty casts, oval fat bodies), hyperlipidemia/lipiduria (b/c liver is up regulated), and edema (b/c of loss of albumin – oncotic pressure) |
| What are the acidic amino acids? | Asp and Glu (both neg charged at body pH) |
| What are the basic amino acids? | Arg, Lys, and His |
| Where can one find high concentrations of basic amino acids and why? | Found in high concentrations in histones, which bind negatively charged DNA |
| Bacteria are known for causing bloody diarrhea | Campylobacter, Salmonella, Shigella, E.coli (enterohemorrhagic and eterocolitica), C. difficile, and E. histolytica |
| Bacteria known for causing watery diarrhea | E. coli (enterotoxigenic), V. cholera, C. perfringens, Protozoa and viruses |
| Nerve injury suspected in a pt with foot drop (loss of dorsiflexion) | Common peroneal |
| Nerve injury suspected in a pt with loss of plantar flexion | Tibial |
| Nerve injury suspected in a pt with loss of knee jerk | Femoral |
| Nerve injury suspected in a pt with loss of hip adduction | Obturator |
| Leading causes of death in infants | congenital anomalies, short gestation/low birth weight, sudden infant death syndrome, maternal complications of pregnancy, respiratory distress syndrome |
| Formula for a drug's volume of distribution | amount of drug in the body/plasma drug concentration |
| Clinical features of hyperammonemia | tremor, slurring of speech, somnolence, vomiting, cerebral edema, blurring of vision. Can be acquired (liver disease) or hereditary (urea cycle enzyme deficiencies) |
| Changes in sleep patterns and sexual anatomy are seen in the elderly | *Sleep pattern changes: decreased REM, slow-wave sleep with increase in sleep latency and awakenings during the night *Sexual anatomy changes: Men – slower erection/ejaculation, longer refractory period. Women – vaginal shortening, thinning, and dryness |
| Describe the probe and sample to which the probe binds in Souther blot | DNA sample electrophoresed on gel & transferred to a filter, soaked in a denaturant & exposed to a labeled DNA probe recognized & anneals to complementary strand - results in ds labeled DNA |
| Describe the probe and sample to which the probe binds in Northern blot | involves radioactive DNA probe binding to sample RNA. Best way to determine if a gene is being expressed |
| Describe the probe and sample to which the probe binds in Western blot | Protein is separated via gel electrophoresis and transferred to a filter. Labeled antibody is used to bind to the relevant protein. Detects a target polypeptide or protein from within a mixed sample |
| Describe the probe and sample to which the probe binds in Souther blot | DNA sample electrophoresed on gel & transferred to a filter, soaked in a denaturant & exposed to a labeled DNA probe recognized & anneals to complementary strand - results in ds labeled DNA |
| Describe the probe and sample to which the probe binds in Northern blot | involves radioactive DNA probe binding to sample RNA. Best way to determine if a gene is being expressed |
| Neoplasm most commonly responsible for the hormone ACTH paraneoplastic syndrome | Small Cell Lung Carcinoma |
| Describe the probe and sample to which the probe binds in Western blot | Protein is separated via gel electrophoresis and transferred to a filter. Labeled antibody is used to bind to the relevant protein. Detects a target polypeptide or protein from within a mixed sample |
| Neoplasm most commonly responsible for the hormone PTH-related peptide paraneoplastic syndrome | Squamous cell lung, renal cell, & breast carcinoma |
| Diagnostic criteria for major depressive episode | 5 of the following for 2 weeks: Sleep disturbance, Loss of Interest (anhedonia), Guilt or feelings of worthlessness, Loss of energy, Loss of concentration, Appetite/weight changes, Psychomotor retardation or agitation, Suicidal ideations, Depressed mood |
| Neoplasm most commonly responsible for the hormone Erythropoietin paraneoplastic syndrome | Renal cell carcinoma, hemangioblastoma |
| Clinical definition of chronic bronchitis | AKA “Blue Bloater” - Reid index > 50% - productive cough for >3 consecutive months in >/= 2 yrs |
| Neoplasm most commonly responsible for the hormone ADH paraneoplastic syndrome | Small cell lung carcinoma & intracranial neoplasms |
| Neoplasm most commonly responsible for the hormone ACTH paraneoplastic syndrome | Small Cell Lung Carcinoma |
| What is the blood supply to the embryonic foregut and what adult structures arise from it? | Celiac artery – stomach to proximal duodenum; liver, gall bladder, pancreas |
| Neoplasm most commonly responsible for the hormone PTH-related peptide paraneoplastic syndrome | Squamous cell lung, renal cell, & breast carcinoma |
| What is the blood supply to the embryonic Midgut and what adult structures arise from it? | SMA – (develops in yolk sac) distal duodenum to proximal 2/3 of transverse colon |
| Neoplasm most commonly responsible for the hormone Erythropoietin paraneoplastic syndrome | Renal cell carcinoma, hemangioblastoma |
| Neoplasm most commonly responsible for the hormone ADH paraneoplastic syndrome | Small cell lung carcinoma & intracranial neoplasms |
| What is the blood supply to the embryonic foregut and what adult structures arise from it? | Celiac artery – stomach to proximal duodenum; liver, gall bladder, pancreas |
| What is the blood supply to the embryonic Midgut and what adult structures arise from it? | SMA – (develops in yolk sac) distal duodenum to proximal 2/3 of transverse colon |
| What is the blood supply to the embryonic Hindgut and what adult structures arise from it? | IMA – distal 1/3 of transverse colon to upper portion of rectum (splenic flexure is watershed region) |
| Which tract of the spinal cord relays sensory information from the body? | a) Dorsal column – Medial lemniscal pathway (ascending pressure, vibration, touch, and proprioceptive sensation |
| Which tract relays pain and temperature sensation? | b) Spinothalamic tract – ascending pain and temperature sensation (A-delta and C-fibers), cell body in DRG. Only tract that crosses at spinal cord |
| Which tract relays motor sensation to the body? | c) Lateral corticospinal tract - descending voluntary movement of contralateral limbs |
| Most common tumor of the salivary gland | a) Pleomorphic adenoma (MC tumor, painless, movable mass; benign with high rate of recurrence) |
| Most common malignant tumor of the salivary gland? | Mucoepidermoid CA |
Created by:
snezya24
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