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A&P II ECPI
Bio 118 unit 3
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| A common age-related change in kidney is that they: | Become slower at nitrogenous wastes and toxins |
| About what percentage of kidney stone pass on their own (as stated) | About 60% |
| Active Na+ transport in renal tubules is important because it: | Provides the gradient that drives reabsorption of many nutrients and water |
| Active transport in the renal tubules: | Moves substances against gradients and requires ATP |
| ADH increases: | Water reabsorption |
| Adult kidneys are typically about ____ long. | 12 cm |
| After the renal pelvis, urine flows into the: | Ureter |
| Age-related decreases in vitamin D activation can contribute to: | Reduced calcium absorption |
| Aldosterone primarily stimulates: | Na+ reabsorption (and K+ secretion) in distal tubule/collecting duct |
| Angiotensin II can stimulate which responses? | Vasoconstriction, Increased aldosterone secretion, Increased thirst AND Increased ADH secretion |
| Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) converts angiotensin I to: | Angiotensin II |
| ANP/BNP primarily increase excretion of: | Sodium and water |
| Approximately what percentage of Na+ and water are reabsorbed before urine is excreted? | 97% to 99% |
| Arcuate (arciform) arteries: | Branch from interlobar arteries and arch around renal pyramids |
| As the bladder, ureters, and urethra lose elasticity with age, bladder capacity often: | Decreases |
| Autoregulation helps keep GFR: | Relatively constant |
| Average adult glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is approximately: | 125 mL/min |
| Beeturia refers to: | Pink urine after eating beets (a benign genetic variation) |
| Blood exits the glomerulus via the: | Efferent arteriole |
| Blood plasma is filtered about ____ times per day. | 60 |
| By about age 75, GFR may decrease to about: | Half of young adult values |
| By about age 80, the kidneys may have lost approximately: | One-third of their mass |
| Cardiac natriuretic peptides (ANP/BNP) are released in response to: | Increased blood volume and pressure |
| Changing the diameter of the afferent or efferent arteriole can: | Change net filtration pressure and GFR |
| Chronic glomerulonephritis is characterized by: | Progressive inflammation and nephron damage with fibrous tissue replacing glomerular membranes |
| Collecting ducts drain through the renal papilla into a: | Minor calyx |
| Cortical nephrons are characterized by: | Short nephron loops and corpuscles near the kidney surface |
| Cortical nephrons make up approximately: | 85% |
| Creatinine clearance is commonly used because creatinine is: | Filtered but not significantly reabsorbed or secreted, helping estimate GFR |
| End-stage renal disease (ESRD) may be treated with: | Hemodialysis or kidney transplant |
| Excess uric acid may cause: | Gout due to uric acid crystal deposition in joints |
| Extensions of cortex that dip into the medulla are called: | Renal columns |
| Filtered uric acid is: | Completely reabsorbed by active transport (then some is secreted so ~10% is excreted) |
| Filtrate flows from the glomerular capsule to the: | Proximal tubule |
| Filtration occurs as long as NFP is: | Positive |
| Glomerular capillaries are highly permeable because they contain: | Fenestrae (tiny openings) |
| Glomerulonephritis is inflammation of the: | Glomeruli |
| Hemodialysis and continuous peritoneal dialysis are used primarily to: | Filter wastes from the blood when kidneys fail |
| If a substance reaches its transport maximum (Tm) in the proximal tubule, you would expect: | The substance to begin appearing in urine (spillover) |
| If GFR is 125 mL/min, approximately how many liters of filtrate are produced per day? | 180 L/day |
| In AGN, antigen-antibody complexes primarily: | Deposit in and block glomeruli |
| A condition of acidemia is termed: | Acidosis |
| A condition of alkalemia is termed: | Alkalosis |
| A decrease in plasma calcium level stimulates secretion of: | Parathyroid hormone (PTH) |
| A drop in plasma calcium concentration would most directly stimulate secretion of: | Parathyroid hormone |
| A high plasma potassium concentration stimulates secretion of: | Aldosterone |
| A high-protein diet can increase acid load because amino acid breakdown produces: | Phosphoric and sulfuric acids |
| A high-protein diet can increase acidity because breakdown of some amino acids produces: | Sulfuric and phosphoric acids |
| A key effect of hyponatremia described is: | Hypotonic ECF and water uptake by cells by osmosis |
| A listed cause of metabolic acidosis is: | Kidney disease with decreased ability to excrete acids |
| A listed cause of respiratory acidosis is: | Obstruction of air passages |
| A lower pH indicates a solution is more: | Acidic |
| A patient drinks a large volume of water rapidly. Which immediate hormonal change would promote excretion of the excess water? | ADH secretion decreases |
| A patient has kidney disease with decreased ability to excrete acids. This is most consistent with: | Metabolic acidosis |
| A patient has prolonged vomiting with loss of gastric acid. This is most consistent with: | Metabolic alkalosis |
| A patient hyperventilates from anxiety and blows off CO2. This is most consistent with: | Respiratory alkalosis |
| A patient with metabolic acidosis needs immediate stabilization of pH. Which system provides the most immediate buffering? | Chemical buffer systems |
| A rise in plasma potassium concentration would most directly stimulate secretion of: | Aldosterone |
| A strong acid is defined as an acid that: | Ionizes more completely and releases more H+ |
| A strong base is defined as a base that ionizes more completely and releases more: | OH?2- (or other negative ions that combine with H+) |
| A weak acid ionizes ____ and releases ____ hydrogen ions | Less completely; fewer |
| Acid-base balance involves regulation of the concentration of: | Hydrogen ions (H+) |
| Acid-base imbalances are termed metabolic if caused by: | A non-respiratory disturbance (other than respiratory) |
| Acid-base imbalances are termed respiratory if caused by: | A respiratory problem affecting CO2 |
| Acidemia refers to arterial blood pH: | Below 7.35 |
| Acids are electrolytes that ionize in water and release: | Hydrogen ions (H+) |
| ADH increases water reabsorption primarily by increasing permeability of: | Distal tubules and collecting ducts |
| After drinking excess water, osmoreceptors swell and ADH is: | Inhibited |
| Aldosterone increases tubular reabsorption of ____ and tubular secretion of ____. | Na+; K+ |
| Aldosterone primarily regulates the concentrations of: | Sodium (Na+) and potassium (K+) |
| Alkalemia refers to arterial blood pH: | Above 7.45 |
| An adult has a daily water intake of 2500 mL. Approximately how many milliliters come from moist foods if it accounts for 30% of intake? | 750 mL |
| An arterial blood pH of 7.28 is best classified as: | Acidemia (acidosis) |
| An arterial blood pH of 7.33 is best classified as: | Acidemia (acidosis) |
| An arterial blood pH of 7.36 is best classified as: | Normal pH range |
| An arterial blood pH of 7.40 is best classified as: | Normal pH range |
| An arterial blood pH of 7.44 is best classified as: | Normal pH range |
| An arterial blood pH of 7.46 is best classified as: | Alkalemia (alkalosis) |
| An arterial blood pH of 7.52 is best classified as: | Alkalemia (alkalosis) |
| Angiotensin II stimulates thirst centers when activated by: | Decreased blood pressure (renin-angiotensin system activation) |
| Approximately what percent of daily water intake is from drinking fluids? | 60% |
| A blood test sometimes used in evaluating prostate issues measures: | Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) |
| A key outcome of meiosis is genetic variation due to: | Crossing over and independent assortment |
| A key role of the dartos muscle is to: | Adjust testicular temperature for sperm production |
| A listed cause of male infertility is: | Failure of testes to descend into the scrotum |
| A listed female secondary sex characteristic is: | Increased adipose tissue in breasts, thighs, and buttocks |
| A major reason oocyte number declines is: | Apoptosis (programmed cell death) |
| A male secondary sex characteristic listed is: | Thickening of the skin |
| A mature antral follicle is also called a: | Graafian (preovulatory) follicle |
| A primary function of sustentacular (Sertoli) cells is to: | Support and nourish developing sperm |
| A rise in plasma potassium concentration would most directly stimulate secretion of: | Aldosterone |
| A strong acid is defined as an acid that: | Ionizes more completely and releases more H+ |
| A strong base is defined as a base that ionizes more completely and releases more: | OH?2- (or other negative ions that combine with H+) |
| A weak acid ionizes ____ and releases ____ hydrogen ions | Less completely; fewer |
| Acid-base balance involves regulation of the concentration of: | Hydrogen ions (H+) |
| Acid-base imbalances are termed metabolic if caused by: | A non-respiratory disturbance (other than respiratory) |
| Acid-base imbalances are termed respiratory if caused by: | A respiratory problem affecting CO2 |
| Acidemia refers to arterial blood pH: | Below 7.35 |
| Acids are electrolytes that ionize in water and release: | Hydrogen ions (H+) |
| ADH increases water reabsorption primarily by increasing permeability of: | Distal tubules and collecting ducts |
| After drinking excess water, osmoreceptors swell and ADH is: | Inhibited |
| Aldosterone increases tubular reabsorption of ____ and tubular secretion of ____. | Na+; K+ |
| Aldosterone primarily regulates the concentrations of: | Sodium (Na+) and potassium (K+) |
| Alkalemia refers to arterial blood pH: | Above 7.45 |
| An adult has a daily water intake of 2500 mL. Approximately how many milliliters come from moist foods if it accounts for 30% of intake? | 750 mL |
| An arterial blood pH of 7.28 is best classified as: | Acidemia (acidosis) |
| An arterial blood pH of 7.33 is best classified as: | Acidemia (acidosis) |
| An arterial blood pH of 7.36 is best classified as: | Normal pH range |
| An arterial blood pH of 7.40 is best classified as: | Normal pH range |
| An arterial blood pH of 7.44 is best classified as: | Normal pH range |
| An arterial blood pH of 7.46 is best classified as: | Alkalemia (alkalosis) |
| An arterial blood pH of 7.52 is best classified as: | Alkalemia (alkalosis) |
| Angiotensin II stimulates thirst centers when activated by: | Decreased blood pressure (renin-angiotensin system activation) |
| Approximately what percent of daily water intake is from drinking fluids? | 60% |
| A blood test sometimes used in evaluating prostate issues measures: | Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) |
| A key outcome of meiosis is genetic variation due to: | Crossing over and independent assortment |
| A key role of the dartos muscle is to: | Adjust testicular temperature for sperm production |
| A listed cause of male infertility is: | Failure of testes to descend into the scrotum |
| A listed female secondary sex characteristic is: | Increased adipose tissue in breasts, thighs, and buttocks |
| A major reason oocyte number declines is: | Apoptosis (programmed cell death) |
| A male secondary sex characteristic listed is: | Thickening of the skin |
| A mature antral follicle is also called a: | Graafian (preovulatory) follicle |
| A primary function of sustentacular (Sertoli) cells is to: | Support and nourish developing sperm |
| A primordial follicle consists of a primary oocyte surrounded by: | Follicular cells |
| A reported approximate time for a primordial follicle to become a mature antral follicle is: | About 300 days |
| A secondary (pre-antral) follicle forms when: | Granulosa cells proliferate and the zona pellucida separates oocyte from granulosa cells |
| A specialized function of female reproductive organs is to: | Provide a favorable environment for developing offspring |
| A stated function of prostatic secretion is to: | Enhance sperm motility |
| A typical number of oocytes released over a female reproductive life is: | About 300 to 400 |
| A typical sperm concentration is described as approximately: | 120 million sperm/mL |
| After descent, the spermatic cord contains which structures? | Blood vessels |
| After ovulation, the oocyte must be fertilized within: | Hours or it degenerates |
| After primordial follicles are formed during fetal development: | No new primordial follicles are produced |
| After telophase I, each daughter cell contains: | 23 chromosomes, each with two chromatids |
| All ova carry which sex chromosome? | X chromosome |
| An embryo with an XY genotype will typically develop as: | Male |
| Androgens in females (from adrenal cortex) are described as causing growth of: | Pubic and axillary hair at puberty |
| As spermatogenesis proceeds, developing sperm migrate toward the: | Lumen of the seminiferous tubule |
| At fertilization, the diploid chromosome number is restored because sperm and egg unite to form: | A zygote with 46 chromosomes |
| At puberty, increased secretion of which hormone promotes follicle maturation? | FSH |
| Bulbourethral glands are also known as: | Cowper's glands |
| Bulbourethral glands secrete a mucus-like fluid that primarily: | Lubricates the end of the penis |
| Capacitation refers to a process in the female tract that: | Weakens the acrosome so sperm can fertilize an oocyte |
| CASA (computer-aided sperm analysis) evaluates fertility by analyzing count, motility, and: | Size and shape of sperm parts |
| Cells of Leydig are also called: | Interstitial cells |
| Cells that contain one set of chromosomes are described as: | Haploid |
| Cells that contain two sets of chromosomes are described as: | Diploid |
| Channels that transport sperm from the testis to the epididymis are the: | Rete testis |
| Cilia in the uterine tube help: | Transport the oocyte toward the uterus |
| Completion of meiosis II yields: | A zygote (after nuclear union) and a second polar body |
| Crossing over occurs during: | Prophase I |
| Dihydrotestosterone (DHT) is: | A derivative of testosterone that acts on prostate and external organs |
| During erection, parasympathetic impulses release nitric oxide, which: | Dilates arteries of the penis |
| During female orgasm, rhythmic contractions occur in muscles of the perineum and also the: | Uterus and uterine tubes |
| During meiosis I in oogenesis, cytoplasm is distributed: | Unequally |
| During ovulation, the released cell is the: | Secondary oocyte (with the first polar body) |
| During prenatal development, primordial germ cells called oogonia divide by: | Mitosis |
| Ejaculation depends primarily on: | Sympathetic nerve impulses |
| Ejaculation is defined as: | Movement of semen out of the urethra |
| Emission is defined as: | Movement of semen into the urethra |
| Erection is maintained in part because venous outflow is reduced when: | Veins are compressed by pressure of arterial blood |
| Estrogens are described as stimulating: | Thickening of the endometrium and enlargement of accessory organs |
| Female erection and lubrication involve nitric oxide causing arterial dilation and: | Expansion/elongation of vagina with mucus secretion from vestibular glands |
| Fertilization typically occurs in the: | Uterine tube |
| Fimbriae help position the oocyte near the uterine tube by: | Propelling the oocyte toward the tube opening |
| Finger-like extensions of the uterine tube that help pick up the oocyte are the: | Fimbriae |
| FSH primarily stimulates: | Sustentacular (Sertoli) cells to support spermatogenesis |
| Gametes (sex cells) typically contain: | 23 chromosomes (one set of genetic instructions) |
| GnRH from the hypothalamus stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete: | FSH and LH |
| Gonads are organs that produce: | Hormones and gametes (sex cells) |
| Human somatic (body) cells typically contain: | 46 chromosomes arranged in 23 pairs |
| If it takes ~300 days for follicle development, this implies follicle maturation is: | A continuous overlapping process across cycles |
| In addition to cilia, transport in uterine tubes is aided by: | Peristaltic contractions |
| In fetal life, primary oocytes begin meiosis but soon stop in: | Prophase I (until puberty) |
| A common symptom set in chronic kidney disease described includes: | Hypertension, proteinuria, hematuria, elevated BUN and creatinine |
| A GFR of 125 mL/min corresponds to about ____ of filtrate per day. | 180 L/day |
| A key difference in the male urethra is that it: | Has a dual function in urination and reproduction |
| A kidney stone lodged in a ureter typically causes: | Strong peristaltic waves and severe pain |
| A major homeostatic role of the kidneys is to: | Maintain the composition, pH, and volume of body fluids within normal limits |
| A nephron consists of a renal corpuscle and a: | Renal tubule |
| A patient has glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure of 50 mm Hg, glomerular colloid osmotic pressure of 25 mm Hg, and capsular hydrostatic pressure of 15 mm Hg. What is the net filtration pressure (NFP)? | 10 mm Hg |
| A patient has glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure of 52 mm Hg, glomerular colloid osmotic pressure of 26 mm Hg, and capsular hydrostatic pressure of 16 mm Hg. What is the net filtration pressure (NFP)? | 10 mm Hg |
| A patient has glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure of 55 mm Hg, glomerular colloid osmotic pressure of 30 mm Hg, and capsular hydrostatic pressure of 15 mm Hg. What is the net filtration pressure (NFP)? | 10 mm Hg |
| A patient has glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure of 60 mm Hg, glomerular colloid osmotic pressure of 32 mm Hg, and capsular hydrostatic pressure of 18 mm Hg. What is the net filtration pressure (NFP)? | 10 mm Hg |
| A patient has glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure of 62 mm Hg, glomerular colloid osmotic pressure of 30 mm Hg, and capsular hydrostatic pressure of 22 mm Hg. What is the net filtration pressure (NFP)? | 10 mm Hg |
| A patient has glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure of 64 mm Hg, glomerular colloid osmotic pressure of 34 mm Hg, and capsular hydrostatic pressure of 18 mm Hg. What is the net filtration pressure (NFP)? | 12 mm Hg |
| A patient has glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure of 65 mm Hg, glomerular colloid osmotic pressure of 35 mm Hg, and capsular hydrostatic pressure of 20 mm Hg. What is the net filtration pressure (NFP)? | 10 mm Hg |
| A patient has glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure of 68 mm Hg, glomerular colloid osmotic pressure of 32 mm Hg, and capsular hydrostatic pressure of 26 mm Hg. What is the net filtration pressure (NFP)? | 10 mm Hg |
| A patient has glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure of 70 mm Hg, glomerular colloid osmotic pressure of 36 mm Hg, and capsular hydrostatic pressure of 24 mm Hg. What is the net filtration pressure (NFP)? | 10 mm Hg |
| A patient produces 1.8 L of urine per day. Compared with 180 L/day of filtrate, this indicates that the kidneys reabsorb approximately: | About 99% of the filtrate |
| A patient with abnormally high plasma glucose exceeds reabsorptive capacity. This finding is best described as reaching the: | Renal plasma threshold for glucose |
| A rise in NaCl concentration at the macula densa would most directly cause: | Vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole and decreased GFR |
| About how many nephrons are in each kidney? | About 1 million |
Created by:
Boi118
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