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Pharm/Physio
Pharmacology/Physiology
| Question | Answer | ||
|---|---|---|---|
| Tetracyclines can be used to treat acne. | True | False | |
| When should tetracyclines be taken? | 1hr. before or 2hrs. after a meal | During a meal | On an empty stomach |
| Photosensitivity is a common side effect of tetracyclines | True | False | |
| Tetracyclines do not discolor teeth | False | True | |
| Tetracycline is | Broad spectrum antibiotic | narrow spectrum antibiotic | |
| What kind of drug is omeprazole? | Proton pump inhibitor | Diuretic | NSAID |
| What do proton pump inhibitors do? | Prevent gastric acid release | Relieve heartburn | |
| Polymyxin is used for what kind of bacteria (last line of defense against gram negative bacteria) | Gram negative bacteria | Gram positive bacteria | Both |
| Bacitracin is used for | minor skin infections | ||
| Bacitracin is used for what kind of bacteria | Gram positive bacteria | Gram negative bacteria | Both |
| Staphylococcus and Streptococcus are | Gram positive bacteria | Gram negative bacteria | |
| What kind of bacteria is mycobacterium tuberculosis? | Acid-fast bacillus | ||
| What happens if vancomycin is infused too quickly? | Red-man syndrome | ||
| What does it mean when a drug is centrally acting? | It acts on the central nervous system | It acts on the heart | |
| Clonidine is | A centrally acting alpha‑2 agonist/sympathetic nervous system | A centrally acting beta-2 agonist | |
| What are the side effects of clonidine? | Dizziness, drowsiness, dry mouth | Constipation, flatulence, headache | |
| What are the side effects of simvastatin? | Constipation, flatulence, headache | ||
| What is simvastatin used for? | Hyperlipidemia-decreases LDL (bad cholesterol) | GERD | |
| Grapefruit juice can be taken with statins | False | True | |
| Muscle pain and cola-colored urine should be reported immediately if taking statin drugs | True | ||
| What kind of drug is gabapentin? | Antiepileptic/analgesic | ||
| What are some side effects of gabapentin? | Dizziness, fatigue, suicidal ideation | ||
| Gabapentin does not need to be tapered off | False | True | |
| Patients on clonidine need to be tapered off | True | False | |
| Most drugs but not all drugs that affect the brain, blood pressure and hormones need to be tapered. | True | False | |
| What does centrally acting alpha 2 agonist mean? | The drug lowers the HR & BP | The drug raises the HR & BP | |
| What kind of drug is albuterol and salmeterol? | Beta₂ adrenergic agonists | ||
| What do beta₂ adrenergic agonists do? | Relax smooth muscle (open airways) | relaxes skeletal muscles | |
| What is albuterol and salmeterol used for? | Asthma, COPD | Rhinitis and asthma | |
| What do beta₁ adrenergic agonists do? | Increase heart rate (HR) | Decrease heart rate (HR) | |
| Albuterol is short acting. | True | False | |
| Salmeterol is short acting. | False | True | |
| What are the side effects of hydroxyzine? | Drowsiness, dry mouth and dizziness | ||
| What is hydroxyzine used for? | Anxiety/allergies | ||
| What kind of drug is hydroxyzine? | Antihistamines | ||
| Beclomethasone, mometasone, budesonide, fluticasone are what kind of drugs? | These are locally acting glucocorticoids | These are systemically acting glucocorticoids | |
| When are beclomethasone, mometasone, and budesonide, fluticasone used? | Rhinitis and asthma | GERD | |
| Prednisone, hydrocortisone, methylprednisone, dexamethasone are what kind of drugs? | These are systemically acting glucocorticoids | These are locally acting glucocorticoids | |
| When is prednisone, hydrocortisone, methylprednisone, and dexamethasone used? | asthma, suppress autoimmune disorders, and inflammatory disorders | ||
| What are some side effects of systemic glucocorticoids? | bone loss, weight gain, hyperglycemia, hypokalemia, fluid retention, increased risk of infection, peptic ulcer disease | ||
| What type of drug is azithromycin, clarithromycin, erythromycin? | Macrolides | ||
| What are some side effects of macrolides? | GI upset, ototoxicity, rash, dysrhythmias | ||
| Macrolides are to be taken on an empty stomach. * | True * | ||
| What type of insulin is insulin lispro (Humalog), insulin aspart (Novolog)? | Rapid acting insulin | Intermediate acting | Long acting |
| What type of drug is trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole? | Sulfonamides | Cephalosporins | Aminoglycosides |
| What would trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole be used for? | UTI, respiratory infections, and middle ear infections | ||
| What are some side effects of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole? | GI upset, blood dyscrasia, photosensitivity, crystal urea | ||
| What type of drug is cephalexin, ceftriaxone, ceftazidime, cefepime? | Cephalosporin | Aminoglycoside | Fluoroquinolones |
| What are some side effects of cephalosporins? | GI upset, super infection | ||
| What type of drug is gentamicin? | Aminoglycoside | Sulfonamide | Cephalosporin |
| What are some side effects of aminoglycosides? | otoxicity, nephrotoxicity, vertigo, and ataxia | ||
| Where is nitroglycerin oral spray supposed to be sprayed? | body of the tongue | sublingual | |
| What is nitroglycerin used for? | angina | ||
| What is amitriptyline used for? | anti-depressant | allergies | angina |
| What does anticholinergic mean? | blocks acetylcholine | ||
| Acetylcholine is part of what system? | parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS) | sympathetic nervous system (SNS) | |
| Corticosteroids increase the risk of hyperglycemia because | stress response | ||
| What kind of drugs are rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide & ethambutol | TB medications | ||
| What is a side effect of rifampin? | orange colored secretions | ||
| Muscarinic receptors are mostly involved with what system? | parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS) | sympathetic nervous system (SNS) | |
| The skin has secretion that are acidic and inhibit bacterial growth | True | False | |
| The skin secretes a sebum that is toxic to bacteria | True | False | |
| Phagocytes, antimicrobial proteins, and inflammation are the _ | second line of defense | first line of defense | third line of defense |
| Skin and mucosae are the _ | first line of defense | second line of defense | third line of defense |
| B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes are the _ | third line of defense | second line of defense | first line of defense |
| Saliva and lacrimal fluid contains _ that destroys bacteria | lysozyme | acid | |
| Eosinophils fight against _ | parasitic worms | ||
| Which wbc are phagocytes? | neutrophils, monocytes, dendritic cells, eosinophils | ||
| igG | accounts for 75%-85% of circulating antibodies | exists in a monomer or pentamer form | |
| igD | attaches to a b cell and is important for b cell receptor | ||
| igM | exists in a monomer or pentamer form | ||
| igA | present in body secretions such as saliva, sweat, intestinal juice, and milk | ||
| igE | never found in blood and bind to mast cells; involved in allergic reactions | ||
| Mast cells are involved in what type of reaction? | allergic | parasitic | |
| What must be possible before phagocytosis can occur? | adherence | ||
| What makes pneumococcus difficult to phagocytize or adhere to? | it has a thick polysaccharide capsule | acidic plasma membrane | |
| What does opsonization do? | coats foreign particles with complement proteins and antibodies to increase adherence | ||
| Respiratory burst is activated by the innate/adaptive immune system? | innate | ||
| What are two granular lymphocytes? | natural killer (NK) cells & cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CD8= T Cells) | B lymphocytes & helper T lymphocytes | |
| NK cells secrete what kind of chemicals? | perforins | lipids | |
| Where are most sugars and amino acids reabsorbed? | proximal convoluted tubule (pct) | ||
| What is the function of the macula densa cells? | sensors for the gfr of the kidneys | ||
| The complement system is part of the innate/adaptive immune system | innate | adaptive | |
| The complementary system uses what to kill cells? | lysis | antibodies | |
| Lysis is | the destruction of the cell membrane which causes the cell to explode | ||
| The complement system consists of at least | 20 plasma proteins | 20 leukocytes | |
| What is the primary function of interferons? | inhibit viral infections in neighboring cells | ||
| Leukocytes that follow a chemical signal to move toward the site of inflammation or infection is known as | chemotaxis | reactivity | |
| Diapedesis is when a wbc _ | enters the tissue | enters the blood vessel | |
| What is margination? | When wbcs move towards the cell wall during inflammation | ||
| What type of wbc would you expect to see the most in chronic inflammation? | macrophages | neutrophils | basophils |
| What causes redness and heat from inflammation? | vasodilation and hyperemia | ||
| Cytokines, kinin, and prostaglandins are _ | inflammatory mediators | leukocytes | |
| What wbc releases perforins | cytotoxic t cells (cd8+) & natural killer (nk) cells | neutrophils & basophils | |
| Reactivity refers to _ | the ability of an immune receptor to bind an antigen | ||
| Ige reacting to pollen is an example of _ | reactivity | ||
| Immunogenicity means to _ | have the ability to stimulate formation of specific lymphocytes | ||
| Immunocompetent means to _ | recognize a specific antigen by binding to it | ||
| Antibodies that pass from mother to fetus is an example of _ | natural passive immunity | artificial passive immunity | |
| Injecting anti-venom is an example of _ | artificial passive immunity | natural passive immunity | |
| All antibodies are monomers except iga | True | False | |
| Where is the effector region on an antibody? | constant region | polypeptide chain | |
| What region of the antibody determines the antibody class? | constant region | antigen binding site | |
| An antibody is made up of how many polypeptide chains | 4 | 2 | 6 |
| Mast cells are part of the innate/adaptive immune system | innate | adaptive | |
| Natural killer (NK) cells are part of the adaptive immune system | False | True | |
| What is a phagolysosome? | a digested pathogen that combines with a phagosome | leukocyte | |
| Interferons are part of innate/adaptive immune system | innate | adaptive | |
| NK cells are part of innate/adaptive immune system | innate | adaptive | |
| GABA is inhibitory/excitatory to the CNS | inhibitory | excitatory | |
| Glutamate is inhibitory/excitatory to the CNS | excitatory | inhibitory | |
| Benzodiazepines work by | Hyperpolarizing the neuron via chloride channels entering the neuron. Hyperpolarizing the neuron make the neuron unable to fire. | ||
| Why do local corticosteroids do not require tapering? | They do not reach the blood stream and suppress the adrenal gland | ||
| Why do systemic corticosteroids require tapering? | They reach the blood stream and suppress the adrenal gland | ||
| Which of the following correctly represents the hierarchy of steroid classifications from broadest to most specific? | steroids>corticosteroids>glucocorticoids | glucocorticoids>corticosteroids>steroids | corticosteroids>steroids>mineralcorticoids |
| How do SSRI's work? | They selectively block serotonin reuptake | ||
| Why do SSRI's take several weeks to become fully effective? | The brain needs time to adjust receptor sensitivity and neuronal pathways | It must accumulate in the liver before they can affect serotonin | It must be completely replaced before mood improves |
| Which is the earliest indicator of hepatoxicity? | Right upper quadrant pain | Jaundice | Dark urine |
| Which finding indicates worsening liver failure? | Easy bruising | Mild nausea | Decreased appetite |
| Which finding is most consistent with Heberden nodes? | Hard, bony enlargement of the distal interphalangeal joints | Soft, painful swelling of the proximal interphalangeal joints | Warm, red, inflamed metacarpophalangeal joints |
| What is the physiologic reason for tapering clonidine? | The sympathetic nervous system becomes overactive if stopped abruptly | The adrenal glands need time to resume cortisol production | The liver needs time to metabolize stored clonidine |
| Which neurotransmitter primarily activates muscarinic receptors in the PSNS? | Acetylcholine | Norepinephrine | Dopamine |
| What is igM involved in? | Immediate response to a new infection | Allergic reactions and anaphylaxis | Mucosal immunity in the GI and respiratory tracts |
| Which of the following is an example of artificial passive immunity? | Injection of hepatitis B immune globulin | Antibodies passed from mother to baby through breast milk | Antibodies produced after receiving a vaccine |
| What is anuria? | Producing no urine | Producing below normal levels of urine | |
| Which tissue relies heavily on type III collagen, making defects in this collagen a risk factor for aortic aneurysm formation? | Aortic wall | Tendons | Articular cartilage |
| A defect in fibrillin-1 most strongly affects which structure, increasing the risk of aneurysm formation? | Aortic wall | Skeletal muscle | Compact bone |
| Which statement best distinguishes leukemia from lymphoma? | Leukemia primarily affects the bone marrow and blood, while lymphoma primarily affects the lymph nodes | Leukemia is a solid tumor, while lymphoma is a cancer of circulating blood cells | Leukemia only occurs in children, while lymphoma only occurs in adults |
| Which white blood cell (wbc) is the body's fastest responder to bacterial infection? | Neutrophils | Lymphocytes | Basophils |
| Which white blood cell (wbc) type produces antibodies and forms memory cells? | B cells | T cells | NK cells |
| Which white blood cell becomes a macrophage once it enters tissues? | Monocytes | Eosinophils | Basophils |
| Which white blood cell is most associated with parasitic infections and allergic reactions? | Eosinophils | Basophils | Neutrophils |
| Which white blood cell releases histamine and heparin to promote inflammation? | Basophils | Neutrophils | Monocytes |
| A nurse is reviewing alb results for a client taking cyclosporine. Which finding is the priority for the nurse to report? | wbc count of 3800/mm³ | bp of 148/92 mmHg | potassium level of 5.1 mEq/L |
| What kind of drug is cyclosporine? | Calcineurin inhibitor | ||
| Which statement best describes the role of calcineurin in the immune system? | activates T-cells by enabling IL-2 production | stimulates B-cells to produce antibodies | suppresses cytokine release to prevent inflammation |
| What leukocyte is primarily responsible for generating a respiratory burst to kill engulfed pathogens? | Neutrophils | NK cells | Eosinophils |
| What wbc are the last to arrive at an injury site? | Basophils | Eosinophils | |
| What do perforins do? | perforins create pores in the target cell membrane | ||
| Verapamil, nifedipine, and diltiazem are what kind of drugs? | Calcium channel blockers | Benzodiazepine | |
| What do calcium channel blockers used for? | Hypertension, angina | Hypotension | |
| Calcium influx is required for skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle contraction | True | False | |
| What is the primary purpose of an action potential in the body? | To send a rapid, long distance electrical signal along a neuron | To store electrical energy inside the neuron | To maintain resting membrane potential during homeostasis |
| A patient overdosed on acetaminophen. Which organ is at greatest risk? | Liver | Kidneys | Stomach |
| Which patient should avoid ibuprofen? | Patient with peptic ulcer disease | Patient with mild asthma | Patient with muscle strain |
| Which medication has antiplatelet effects? | Aspirin | Acetaminophen | Ibuprofen |
| Which pain reliever is safest for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)? | Acetaminophen | Ibuprofen | Aspirin |
| Which of the following best explains why NSAIDS reduce fever? | They block prostaglandin synthesis in the hypothalamus | They stimulate vasoconstriction to reduce heat loss | They increase serotonin release to lower temperature |
| What kind of drugs are ibuprofen, naproxen, and aspirin? | NSAID | opioids | |
| ulcerative colitis | a chronic inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) that causes continuous inflammation and ulcers in the innermost lining of the colon and rectum | ||
| epistaxis | nose bleed | ||
| maceration | the skin pruning do to excessive moisture | ||
| blood dyscrasia | general term for blood abnormality | ||
| delirium | an acute, sudden onset disturbance in attention, awareness, and cognition caused by an underlying medical condition (reversible) | ||
| dementia | a gradual, progressive decline in mental functioning that develops slowly over months to years (irreversible) | ||
| diabetes mellitus | condition where the body has high blood glucose because it cannot make enough insulin or cannot use insulin effectively | ||
| pneumothorax | total lung collapse | ||
| atelectasis | the partial or complete collapse of alveoli (air sacs) in the lungs | ||
| aphasia | a language disorder the affects a person ability to speak, understand, read, write | ||
| auricular | related to the ear | ||
| vestibule | opening | ||
| vesicant | tissue damaging | ||
| vesicular | small fluid filled blister | ||
| xero (dry) stomia (mouth) | dry mouth | ||
| urease | an enzyme that breaks down urea (protein waste product) into NH₃ and CO₂ | ||
| ventricular septal defect (congenital) | a hole in the wall that separates the ventricles, the lower chambers of the heart | ||
| urolithiasis | a condition where hard mineral deposits form in the urinary tract | ||
| vasospastic attack (temporary) | a sudden narrowing of a blood vessel d/t a spasm in the vessel wall | ||
| urticaria (nettles) | hives | ||
| myositis | muscle inflammation | ||
| attenuating | to lessen | ||
| prostration (strat=spread out/lay flat) | extreme physical weakness or exhaustion | ||
| polydipsia (dips=thirst) | excessive thirst | ||
| strabismus 🤪 | crossed eyes | ||
| pyrosis | heartburn | ||
| tympany (tympan=drum) | a hollow high pitched drum sound that is produced when a gas containing cavity is tapped sharply | ||
| presbyopia (presby=elder) | an age relation vision condition that affects the ability to focus on close objects | ||
| pheochromocytoma (pheo=dusky/dark; chromo=color; cyto=cell) | a rare tumor that develops in the adrenal glands | ||
| tenesmus (tenes=strain) | the feeling of needing to defecate even when your bowels are empty | ||
| thrombophlebitis | inflammation of a vein | ||
| spondylosis (spondyl=vertebra) | degenerative condition of the spine that causes back and neck pain | ||
| tetany | a condition characterized by involuntary muscle spasms and cramps | ||
| polyphagia (phagia=eating) | feeling of extreme insatiable hunger | ||
| pharyngitis | sore throat | ||
| peritonitis | inflammation of the peritoneum (inner membrane of the abdominal cavity) | ||
| paracentesis | remove excess fluid from the abdominal cavity | ||
| reperfusion | restoration of blood flow to an organ or tissue after a period of ischemia | ||
| pyelonephritis | an inflammation of the kidneys caused by a bacterial infection | ||
| papule | a raised area of skin tissue that’s less than 1 centimeter around | ||
| porphyria (porphy=purple) | build-up of heme; heme is a part of hemoglobin | ||
| thyrotoxicosis (symptoms of excess thyroid hormone) | weight loss, rapid heart rate, tremors | ||
| trachoma 👀 | bacterial infection of the eyes | ||
| animism | giving inanimate objects human characteristics | ||
| cardiomegaly | enlarged heart | ||
| Blumberg's Sign | pain when you remove pressure from the abdomen | ||
| agranulocytosis (granulo=WBC w/ granules; cyto=cell) | dangerous low levels of neutrophils | ||
| cutaneous | relating to or affecting the skin | ||
| ataxia | a neurological condition that causes clumsiness, imbalance, and difficulty with fine motor tasks | ||
| bursitis | inflammation of the bursa (a small fluid filled sac in the body that is near bony prominences and joints) in the body | ||
| aplasia | absence of growth or development | ||
| dysplasia | abnormal growth or development of cells | ||
| borborygmi | a rumbling or gurgling noise made by the movement of fluid and gas in the intestines | ||
| anastomosis | a surgical connection between two body channels | ||
| bilious | illness caused by too much bile | ||
| extubation | removing an endotracheal tube | ||
| acromegaly | excess production of GH; enlargement of bones and tissues | ||
| coagulopathy | a condition that impairs the blood's ability to clot properly, leading to excessive or prolonged bleeding | ||
| diplopia | double vision | ||
| Crohn's disease | a chronic inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) that causes inflammation anywhere along the digestive tract | ||
| lochia | postpartum vaginal discharge | ||
| acute myocardial infarction (AMI) | chest pain | ||
| hyperparathyroidism | elevated levels of PTH | ||
| hypoparathyroidism | little to no production of PTH | ||
| idiopathic | disease/condition that has no known cause | ||
| fibrosis | formation of excess scar tissue | ||
| intussusception | one part of the intestine slides into another | ||
| hypertrophy | thickened walls | ||
| inotropy (ino-relating to muscle fibers or muscle contraction strength) | the force of a hearts contraction | ||
| infarction | tissue death d/t blocked vessels | ||
| hydrolyze | breaking a chemical bond via water (this does not mean dilution) | ||
| impetigo (infxn👃👄) | contagious bacterial skin infection | ||
| fremitus (frem=murmur/roar; itus=state/condition) | a vibration transmitted through the body | ||
| glycosuria (ia=condition) | excess glucose in the urine | ||
| hemiparesis | partial paralysis on one side of the body | ||
| interstitial cystitis | painful bladder syndrome | ||
| hemoptysis (ptysis=spitting or coughing up) | coughing up blood from the lungs or lower respiratory tract | ||
| hirsutism (hirsut=hairy/shaggy) | excessive hair growth | ||
| gastroenteritis | inflammation of the stomach and intestines | ||
| glycogenolysis | breakdown of glycogen (complex carbs) into glucose | ||
| hypochlorhydria (ia=condition) | low stomach acid | ||
| hematochezia (chezia=to pass stool; ia=condition) | the passage of fresh, bright red blood in the stool (lower GI bleed) | ||
| globulin (transport antibodies & nutrients) | proteins in the blood produced by the liver and immune system | ||
| hemothorax | blood build up between the chest wall and the lung | ||
| dysgeusia | altered taste perception | ||
| angioedema | painless swelling of the face and extremities due to an allergic reaction | ||
| aplastic anemia | a rare and serious blood disorder where the bone marrow fails to produce enough blood cells | ||
| allogeneic | transplants are from a person other than the patient | ||
| autologous | transplants come from the same person | ||
| eclampsia | seizures in a pregnant or postpartum person | ||
| dysphasia | partial loss of language | ||
| costovertebral angle tenderness | pain or tenderness experienced in the region between the ribs and spine | ||
| cephalohematoma | blood that collects between a newborn's scalp and skull | ||
| acrocyanosis | a condition characterized by a bluish-purple discoloration of the skin | ||
| enuresis | bed-wetting | ||
| amniotomy | artificial rupture of membranes | ||
| bradykinin | a peptide that causes inflammation | ||
| enterocolitis | the inflammation of the colon, small intestine and the digestive tract | ||
| effaced | the thinning of the cervix during childbirth | ||
| erythematosus | a disorder that causes skin inflammation | ||
| anaphylaxis | severe allergic reaction | ||
| endocarditis | an infection of the heart’s inner lining, the endocardium | ||
| effusion | an escape of fluid into a body cavity | ||
| arthroplasty | a surgical procedure that replaces an old joint with an artificial joint | ||
| exophthalmos | a condition in which causes eyes to protrude abnormally | ||
| What is ondansetron used for? | nausea & vomiting related to chemotherapy | abdominal pain | |
| What happens when you block calcium? | Blood vessels relax=BP drops | Increased vasoconstriction and higher BP |
Created by:
whoizthavuchild
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