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FINAL (Modules 1-50)
Biology 161
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Proceeding downward from an individual animal, which of the following is a correct sequence of levels in life’s hierarchy? | nervous system, brain, nervous tissue, nerve cell |
| All living things exhibit several key features that define them as living. Which of the following is NOT considered a defining feature of life? | movement |
| Walking around the LCCC campus you may encounter squirrels, pine trees, lichens, song sparrows and numerous other organisms. All the organisms on the campus of LCCC make up ___________. | a community |
| What is the term used to describe the process in which living organisms maintain a preferred condition? | homeostasis |
| Organisms that can manufacture their own source of chemical energy as also known as | producers |
| The primary difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes is the presence of | a nucleus |
| There are three Domains of life. What is one main reason protists and bacteria are grouped into different domains? | bacterial cells lack a nucleus |
| Which of the following set of descriptions matches with the organisms known as plants? | eukaryotic; multicellular; autotroph |
| Which of the following is a correct sequence of levels of classification? | species, genus, family, order, class, phylum, kingdom |
| Homo sapiens is the scientific name for humans. The name Homo in this binomial nomenclature is the _____ to which humans are classified | genus |
| Which of the following is the best description of a hypothesis in biology? | a possible explanation of an observation |
| Which of the following best describes the logic of hypothesis-based science? | if my hypothesis is correct, I can expect certain test results |
| Which of the following statements best distinguishes a hypothesis from a theory in science? | theories have been supported through extensive testing and experimentation; hypotheses have a significant chance of being rejected |
| When designing an experiment, a researcher will often incorporate a control group as part of the investigation. What is the purpose of using a control group in scientific experiments? | a researcher can compare the results in the experimental group and control group to determine if a single variable is causing a particular outcome in the experimental group |
| What makes up the nucleus of an atom? | protons and neutrons |
| Which of the following applies to a neutron? | uncharged and located in the nucleus |
| If you were asked to determine if atom A and atom B are isotopes of the same element, which of the following facts, if true, would allow you to make this determination? | they each have 6 protons |
| In what way do the isotopes of carbon-12 and carbon-14 differ? | the number of neutrons |
| What does the adjective trace mean in the term trace element? | the element is required in very small amounts |
| What is the capacity of the second electron shell of atoms? | 8 |
| If an atom has 9 protons and 10 neutrons in its nucleus, how many valence electrons would it have? | 7 |
| Magnesium has an atomic number of 12. How many valence electrons does an atom of magnesium have? | 2 |
| Which of the following statements is true of all anionic atoms? | the atom has more electrons than protons |
| Ionic bonds form based on _______ | attractions between ions of opposite charge |
| In the formation of NaCl (table salt) who gets oxidized and who gets reduced? | Na is oxidized and Cl is reduced |
| Which of the following occurs when a covalent bond forms? | electrons in valence shells are shared between the nuclei of two atoms |
| The atomic number of sulfur is 16. Sulfur combines with hydrogen by covalent bonding to form a compound, hydrogen sulfide. Based on the electron configuration of sulfur, we can predict that the molecular formula of the compound will be | H2S |
| If a molecule has the chemical formula C2H2 then it must contain _______ | a triple covalent bond |
| What term best describes any substance that can easily dissolve in water? | hydrophilic |
| The ability of an atom to attract electrons in a bond with another atom is termed its | electronegativity |
| Which of the following molecules would you predict to have the largest number of polar covalent bonds based on their molecular formulas? | C2H4O2 (acetic acid) |
| In what way do covalent bonds differ from hydrogen bonds? | covalent bonds involve sharing of electrons between atoms, but hydrogen bonds are the result of weak attractions between a positive region (usually a hydrogen atom) within a polar molecule and an electronegative atom of another polar molecule |
| Many salad dressings are roughly equal parts oil and vinegar (a water-based solution of acetic acid). If you shake a bottle of salad dressing and then let it sit it will eventually separate into two distinct phases again. Why does this occur? | nonpolar oil is not soluble in water |
| What term describes a dissolved substance? | solute |
| The reason that water dissolves salts is because it | has partial positive and negative charges |
| Sweating is a method many mammals use to control their body temperature. Which property of water is most directly responsible for the ability of sweat to lower body temperature? | the absorption of heat by the breaking of hydrogen bonds |
| Why does water have a high specific heat? | hydrogen bonds must be broken to raise its temperature |
| The bonds that are broken when water vaporizes are | hydrogen bonds between water molecules |
| Which of the following would be most accurate to describe a solution with a high concentration of protons (hydrogen ions)? | it is called an acid |
| Acid precipitation has lowered the pH of a particular lake to 5.0. What is the hydrogen ion concentration of the lake? | 10–5M |
| A solution with a pH of ___ would be 100 times more acidic than pure water | 5 |
| Compared to a basic solution at pH 9, the same volume of an acidic solution at pH 4 has _____________ times more hydrogen ions (H+) | 100,000 |
| When taste receptors detect high levels of protons, the substance tastes | sour |
| Why is carbon is well suited to serve as the backbone of organic molecules? | it can form up to four covalent bonds with varying atoms and molecular groups |
| Which of the following functional groups would contribute to making a molecule more non polar when added? | a methyl group (–CH3) |
| How is a polymer formed from multiple monomers? | by the removal of an –OH group from one and a hydrogen atom from the other |
| Molecules that have the same molecular composition but differ in structure and/or bonding association are referred to as _______ | isomers |
| What makes a monosaccharide designated as an aldose? | a terminal carbonyl group |
| What is the defining difference between a monosaccharide, a disaccharide, and a polysaccharide? | the number of monomers in the molecule |
| What type of linkage is formed between two sugars in a disaccharide? | glycosidic bond |
| Although there is some overlap, each of the four different biomolecule groups carry out specific functions in the cell. What are the primary functions associated with carbohydrates? | energy storage, cell identity, structure |
| A triglyceride is a form of ____ composed of ____ | lipid; fatty acids and glycerol |
| What aspect of triglyceride structure accounts for their insolubility in water? | the nonpolar C–H and C–C bonds in fatty acids |
| Which of the following statements concerning unsaturated fats is true? | they have double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids |
| Some fatty acids are described as saturated fatty acids. What are they saturated with? | hydrogen |
| How does the structure of saturated fats different from that of unsaturated fats? | the hydrocarbon tails in a saturated fat have the maximum number of hydrogens possible |
| There are four levels of structure in proteins. What determines the primary structure of a polypeptide? | its sequence of amino acids |
| Nucleotides are to ___________ as ___________ are to proteins. | nucleic acids; amino acids |
| Which level of protein structure would be LEAST affected by a disruption in hydrogen bonding? | the primary level |
| There are 20 different amino acids but what two functional groups are present on every amino acid? | an amino group and a carboxyl group |
| DNA and/or RNA molecules are polymers of | nucleotides |
| What makes each of the twenty different amino acids found in the proteins of cells different from each other? | the composition of their side chains, or R groups |
| What bonds are responsible for holding together the secondary structure called an α-helix found in a polypeptide? | hydrogen bonds that form between the core C=O and N—H groups on different amino acids |
| Proteins that interact with DNA often interact with the phosphates that are part of this molecule. Which of the following types of amino acids would you predict to be present in the DNA binding sites of these proteins? | basic amino acids |
| Which part of an amino acid has the greatest influence on the overall structure of a protein? | the R group |
| What structural feature of a nucleotide determines whether it is a component of DNA or a component of RNA | five-carbon sugar |
| An important characteristic of phospholipids is that they are are amphipathic. What does this mean? | they are composed of a hydrophilic portion and a hydrophobic portion |
| According to the fluid mosaic model of membrane structure, proteins of the membrane are mostly | embedded in the phospholipid bilayer |
| Which of the following factors would tend to increase membrane fluidity? | a greater proportion of unsaturated phospholipids |
| The lipid bilayers in cells are called “selectively permeable”. What does this description mean? | they are permeable to some substances but not others |
| What chemical property characterizes the interior of the phospholipid bilayer? | it is hydrophobic |
| A bacterial cell that can alter the composition of saturated and unsaturated fatty acids in its membrane lipids is adapted to a cold environment. If this cell is shifted to a warmer environment, it will react by | increasing the degree of saturated fatty acids in its membrane |
| Which of the following statements best describes the chemical composition of biological membranes? | biological membranes are bilayers of phospholipids with associated proteins and carbohydrates |
| What component of cell membranes most often function as recognition markers? | glycoproteins |
| Protein channel transporters that have the ability to open and close in response to specific stimuli are referred to as | gated |
| What should you expect to happen to plant cells when they are moved into a hypotonic solution? | a build-up in turgor pressure |
| When a cell takes in dissolved materials by forming tiny vesicles around fluid droplets trapped by folds of the plasma membrane this process is called: | pinocytosis |
| How will water move if a solution surrounding a cell is hypertonic relative to the inside of the cell? | it will move out of the cell via osmosis |
| When does a concentration gradient exist? | when solute concentrations differ on the two sides of a membrane |
| If a typical animal cell such as a red blood cell is in an isotonic environment, then | water movement still occurs, but there is no net gain or loss of cell volume |
| What is NOT a mechanism for bringing material into a cell? | exocytosis |
| What is the name of the process where solutes are moved across a membrane against their concentration gradient? | active transport |
| Which of the following is NOT considered to be a component of the cytoskeleton | Golgi apparatus |
| Which of the following has a structure consisting of microtubules in a 9+2 arrangement? | cilia |
| The extracellular matrix: | contains fibronectins that bind to integrins |
| In what ways are different motor proteins like kinesin and dynein similar to each other? | they both can interact with microtubules AND use energy from ATP to produce movement |
| The most prevalent protein found in the ECM of animals provides strength and resistance to tearing. This protein is _______ | collagen |
| What is the main difference between a plant primary wall and a secondary cell wall? | the secondary cell wall possesses the polymer lignin, which is absent in the primary cell wall |
| What are the microtubule organizing centers of animal cells known as? | centrosomes |
| In what way are cilia and flagella distinguished from each other? | their length |
| What is the term used for small molecules such as cAMP that relay signals within the cell interior? | secondary messengers |
| Lipid-soluble signal molecules, such as testosterone, cross the membranes of all cells, but affect only target cells because | intracellular receptors are present only in target cells |
| Consider this pathway: epinephrine --> G protein-linked receptor --> G protein --> adenylyl cyclase --> cAMP. Identify the secondary messenger. | cAMP |
| G proteins are so named because they _______ | bind to the energy carrier "GTP" |
| Treating dissociated cells with certain antibodies (proteins of the immune system that bind to target proteins specifically) makes the cells unable to reaggregate. Why? | the antibodies bind to cell adhesion proteins called cadherins |
| What characteristics do tight junctions bestow on tissues that use these adhesions to connect adjacent cells? | they form a watertight barrier between the cells |
| In what way are the plasmodesmata in plant cells and the gap junctions in animal cells functionally similar? | they form channels between cells that allow diffusion of small molecules |
| All cells of a multicellular organism may not respond in the same way to a particular ligand (signaling molecule) that binds to a cell surface receptor. The difference in response may be due to | all of these answers are correct |
| Ribosomes are manufactured in the __________ of the nucleus | nucleolus |
| Which of the following can be found in a prokaryotic cell? | ribosomes |
| Which of the following accurately describes a difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? | eukaryotic cells have a membrane-enclosed structure for their DNA |
| What is not found in ALL cells? | cell wall |
| What might be the benefit of having membrane-enclosed organelles? | they allow incompatible functions to be carried out simulatneously by keeping them separated |
| What is the primary biomolecule present in bacterial cell walls? | peptidoglycan |
| What structure helps the nucleus maintain its shape? | the nuclear lamina |
| Which structure is not technically part of the endomembrane system? | chloroplast |
| Which of the following is not true of secreted proteins? | they contain a signal that directs them into the lysosome |
| How are the signal sequences that direct molecules to particular destinations in the cell "read"? | they bind to receptor proteins |
| Which model most accurately represents the current understanding of how proteins received from the ER progress through the Golgi apparatus? | the cisternal maturation hypothesis |
| What is the name of the protein that targets a newly synthesized polypeptide for entry into the ER lumen? | a signal recognition particle |
| What allows for proper protein and lipid sorting within the Golgi | carbohydrate tags |
| What is the major function of peroxisomes? | breakdown of H2O2 by catalase |
| There are several molecules involved in producing ATP that cyanide can bind to. If a cell is exposed to cyanide, where would most of the cyanide be found? | within the mitochondria |
| What is not a major type of plastid | celluloplast |
| What is the theory that suggests that mitochondria and plastids were once independent cells that were captured by another cell? | Endosymbiont |
| What is not an example of an energy transformation? | sunlight strikes a prism and separates into distinct wavelengths |
| According to the first law of thermodynamics, | energy can neither be created nor destroyed |
| What is the term used to refer to the measure of the amount of disorder in a system in thermodynamics? | entropy |
| What is thermal energy? | the kinetic energy of molecular motion |
| What correctly describes any chemical reaction that has reached equilibrium? | the rate of the forward reaction equals the rate of the reverse reaction |
| Catabolism is to anabolism as ____ is to ______. | exergonic; endergonic |
| A spontaneous reaction is one in which the change in free energy (∆G) has a ___________ value. | negative |
| What determines whether a chemical reaction is spontaneous or not? | the combined effect of changes in potential energy and entropy |
| If a reaction is exergonic, then which of the following statements is true? | the products have lower free energy than the reactants |
| What combination of properties best describes an endergonic reaction? | +ΔG and the reaction is not spontaneous |
| ATP hydrolysis has a ∆G of –7.4 kcal/mol. Can an endergonic reaction with a ∆G of +12 kcal/mol be “driven” by ATP hydrolysis? | no, the overall ΔG is still positive |
| Reactions that release free energy are | exergonic AND spontaneous |
| If System A has a lower Gibbs free energy value than System B, what can we conclude about System A? | it is more stable than B |
| The high energy in the bonds that join together the phosphate groups in ATP molecules is an example of _______ | potential energy |
| What is activation energy? | the energy required to initiate a chemical reaction |
| Consider the following chemical reaction: NADH is converted to NAD+ + H+. We would say that NADH has been | oxidized |
| What is the most effective way to obtain an even faster yield of product if an enzyme solution is saturated with substrate? | add more of the enzyme |
| How can some bacteria survive and remain metabolically active in hot springs? | their enzymes have high optimal temperatures |
| What is the name given to the region of an enzyme where it combines with the substrate? | the active site |
| What best describes a transition state? | the complex formed as covalent bonds are being broken and re-formed during a reaction |
| You have discovered an enzyme that appears to function only when a particular sugar accumulates. Which of the following scenarios would you predict to be responsible for activating this enzyme? | the sugar binds to the enzyme and changes the conformation of the active site |
| Enzymes have similar responses to both changes in temperature and pH. The effect of both is on the _______ | three-dimensional shape of the enzyme |
| What is the relationship between energy level and wavelength in photons of electromagnetic radiation? | the greater the energy, the shorter the wavelength |
| What is the reason chlorophyll is green? | it absorbs wavelengths in the blue and red parts of the visible spectrum, but reflects most green photons |
| What is resonance? | transfer of energy among pigment molecules |
| What is is a product of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis? | NADPH |
| What do the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis supply the Calvin cycle with? | ATP and NADPH |
| What sequence correctly represents the flow of electrons during photosynthesis? | H2O → NADPH → Calvin cycle |
| In plants, what is the final electron acceptor in the noncyclic electron flow of photosynthesis? | NADP+ |
| What is produced by the cyclic electron flow that can occur via photosystem I? | ATP |
| Which specific region of the chloroplast is associated with the capture of light energy? | thylakoid membranes |
| The reaction center pigment differs from the other pigment molecules of the light-harvesting complex in that | the reaction center pigment transfers excited electrons to the primary electron acceptor |
| If you could measure the pH within a chloroplast, where would it be lowest? | in the lumen of the thylakoid |
| The water necessary for photosynthesis ... | provides the electrons that replace lost electrons in photosystem II |
| During carbon fixation, what is the molecule that Rubisco attaches a carbon atom to? | ribulose bisphosphate |
| In what respect are the photosynthetic adaptations of C4 plants and CAM plants similar? | in both cases Rubisco is not used to fix carbon initially |
| The first stage of the Calvin cycle is carbon fixation. What does it mean to say that CO2 has been fixed? | it becomes bonded to an organic compound |
| During the first phase of the Calvin cycle, carbon dioxide is incorporated into ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP) by | Rubisco |
| NADPH is produced during the light-dependent reactions and is used in what stage of the Calvin cycle? | the reduction phase, which produces PGAL |
| What happens to the majority of the PGAL produced during the reduction and carbohydrate production phase? | it stays in the cycle to synthesize RuBP to continue the cycle |
| What is photorespiration | an inefficient function of Rubisco where O2 is fixed instead of CO2 |
| Why are C4 plants more common in hotter, drier climates? | water conservation via stomata closing leads to a decrease in CO2 availability versus O2 |
| What do the numbers represent in C3 and C4 photosynthesis? | the number of carbons in the first stable intermediate following carbon fixation |
| What is the end product of glycolysis? | pyruvate |
| Which metabolic pathway is common to both fermentation and aerobic cellular respiration of a glucose molecule? | glycolysis |
| What purpose do the reactions in a fermentation pathway serve? | to generate NAD+ from NADH, so glycolysis can continue |
| What would cause cells to switch from aerobic cellular respiration to fermentation? | the final electron acceptor in the ETC (O2) is not available |
| What is the net ATP gain per glucose molecule following glycolysis? | 2 ATP |
| What is the immediate energy source that drives ATP synthesis by ATP synthase during oxidative phosphorylation? | the H+ concentration gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane holding ATP synthase |
| What is the final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain that functions in aerobic oxidative phosphorylation? | O2 |
| In the presence of a metabolic poison that specifically and completely inhibits all function of mitochondrial ATP synthase, which would you expect? | an increase in the pH difference across the inner mitochondrial membrane |
| Most CO2 from cellular respiration catabolism is released during | the Krebs cycle |
| Which of the following is a major source of electrons for the electron transport chain? | NADH |
| What would cause cells to switch from aerobic cellular respiration to fermentation? | the final electron acceptor in the ETC is not available |
| If you were to expose cells that are undergoing cellular respiration to a radioactive oxygen isotope in the form of O2, which of the following molecules would you expect to be radiolabeled? | water |
| Where do the reactions of the Krebs cycle occur? | the matrix of the mitochondria |
| Certain drugs act as ionophores that cause the mitochondrial membrane to be highly permeable to H+. How would such drugs affect oxidative phosphorylation? | ATP synthesis would be inhibited |
| What is a replicated chromosome composed of? | two sister chromatids held together at the centromere |
| What is not a necessary process during binary fission in prokaryotes? | assembly of the nuclear envelope |
| During which phase of the cell cycle are chromosomes replicated? | S phase |
| One standard chemotherapeutic drug used to treat cancer is vinblastine. This drug interferes with the assembly of microtubules, therefore its effectiveness in inhibiting cell division must be related to | disruption of mitotic spindle formation |
| Through a microscope, you can see a cell plate beginning to develop across the middle of the cell and nuclei re-forming on either side of the cell plate. This cell is most likely | a plant cell in the process of cytokinesis |
| Some organisms can perform mitosis without cytokinesis occurring. What will this will result in? | cells with more than one nucleus |
| What does not occur during mitosis? | replication of DNA |
| The last step in plant cell division involves the formation of the | cell plate |
| In the spindle, the ______ ends of the kinetochore microtubules are embedded in the kinetochore, and the ______ ends are at the spindle pole. | plus; minus |
| What major events occur during anaphase of mitosis? | sister chromatids separate, and the spindle poles are pushed apart |
| What happens if the sister chromatids of one chromosome fail to separate during karyokinesis? | one daughter cell receives too few chromosomes; the other receives a replicated chromosome |
| One difference between cancer cells and normal cells is that cancer cells | continue to divide even when they are tightly packed together |
| What causes the decline of MPF activity at the end of mitosis? | the degradation of cyclin |
| If a eukaryotic cell lacks telomerase then it would | experience a gradual reduction of chromosome length with each replication cycle |
| What is a tumor suppressor? | a gene associated with tumor formation when its product does not function |
| Progression through the cell cycle is regulated by oscillations in the concentration of which type of molecule? | cyclins |
| When are cancer cells said to be metastatic? | when they migrate to other parts of the body |
| What are cyclin-dependent kinases (Cdks) regulated by? | the periodic increase and destruction of cyclins |
| What step in the cell cycle represents an irreversible commitment to division? | the G1/S checkpoint |
| The influence of neighboring cells on the regulation of cell division is known as | social control |
| ______ is a prefix that refers to cancer | onco |
| The protein responsible for activating the enzymes that carry out the internal breakdown of the cell during apoptosis resides in the | mitochondria |
| Clean-up of the shattered fragments at the conclusion of apoptosis is carried out by | phagocytes |
| What mechanism is used to attract the clean-up crew to the cell undergoing apoptosis? | a phospholipid flipped to the membrane surface |
| Collectively the protease enzymes that break down the components of the cell during apoptosis are called | caspases |
| Homologous chromosomes separate and move toward opposite poles of a dividing cell during | meiosis I |
| Meiosis II is similar to which process? | mitosis in haploid cells |
| If the number of chromosomes of a diploid cell in the G1 phase of the cell cycle is 24, then the number of chromosomes of the same cell at metaphase of meiosis I would be | 24 |
| If we continued to follow the cell lineage from the previous question, then the number of chromosomes in a cell at metaphase of meiosis II would be | 12 |
| When would you expect to find a synaptonemal complex in a cell? | meiotic prophase I |
| Dogs have 78 chromosomes in their diploid cells. If a diploid dog cell enters meiosis, how many chromosomes and chromatids will be present in each daughter cell at the end of meiosis I? | 39 chromosomes and 78 chromatids |
| What occurs during anaphase I? | homologous chromosomes move to opposite poles |
| The condition known as Down syndrome is the result of a trisomy for chromosome 21. Why is this trisomy viable and trisomy for most other chromosomes is not? | chromosome 21 is a small chromosome with few genes so this does less to disrupt the genome |
| If a nondisjunction event occurred during the second division of the process of spermatogenesis, this would be | better than one occurring during the first division, because only two of the four meiotic products would be aneuploid |
| The immediate product of fertilization is called a(n) | zygote |
| One of the major contributors to genetic variation is crossing over, which involves exchanging chromosomal segments between | non-sister chromatids of homologues |
| Which of the following are genetically identical? | two cells resulting from a mitotic division |
| two cells resulting from a mitotic division | metaphase of meiosis II |
| How does DNA replication differ between mitosis and meiosis? | DNA replication is exactly the same in mitosis and meiosis |
| Which of the following best describes a recessive trait | a trait that is masked by the presence of a dominant trait |
| An organism’s ___ is/are determined by its ____ | phenotype; genotype |
| The F1 generation of the monohybrid cross purple (PP) X white (pp) flower pea plants should | all have purple flowers |
| An individual that has two different alleles of a particular gene is said to be | heterozygous |
| Why is it technically incorrect to refer to alleles found in haploid organisms as either dominant or recessive? | dominance and recessiveness describe which allele is expressed in the phenotype when different alleles occur in the same individual |
| Based on Mendel’s experimental crosses, what is the expected F2 phenotypic ratio of a monohybrid (one trait) cross? | 3:1 |
| If an organism is described as being a "true breeder" for a particular trait, what can the genotype of that organism be assumed to be? | homozygous |
| In Drosophila fruit flies, the allele for red eye color is considered to be the wild type allele. What does this mean? | this is the most common allele for this gene in the population |
| In a test cross, what do you do with an organism with a dominant phenotype of unknown genotype? | cross it with an organism with the recessive phenotype |
| In a cross of AaBbcc X AaBbCc, what is the probability of obtaining an individual with the genotype AABbCc? | 1/16 |
| How does the likelihood of “breaking linkage” between two genes change as the distance between the loci of these two genes increases? | it increases |
| Which of Mendel’s laws/principles cannot be observed in a monohybrid (one trait) cross? | independent assortment |
| What proportion of the offspring of a cross between a male with an X-linked recessive trait and a female carrier for that trait would also have the trait? | half of all children, regardless of their gender |
| Why is the white-eye phenotype always observed in Drosophila males carrying the white-eye allele? | because the allele is located on the X chromosome and males only have one X |
| In an organism’s genome, autosomes are | all of the chromosomes other than the sex chromosomes |
| Which of the following genotypes due to nondisjunction of sex chromosomes is lethal (nonviable)? | OY |
| A recessive sex-linked gene in humans leads to a loss of sweat glands. A woman heterozygous for this will | have patches of skin with and without sweat glands |
| A woman is heterozygous for an X-linked trait, hemophilia A. If she has a child with a man without hemophilia A, what is the probability that the child will be a male and also have hemophilia A? (Note: The child could be a male or female.) | 25% |
| Calico coat pattern in cats is the result of | X inactivation |
| Assuming no nondisjunction occurs, what is the chance that a human ovum (egg) will carry an X chromosome? | 100% |
| Suppose a woman has a recessive X-linked disease. Her husband does not have the disease. What is the chance that their first child has the disease? | 50% |
| If a gene has a recessive lethal allelic situation, crossing two heterozygotes should result in an offspring phenotypic ratio of | 2:1 |
| A particular allele of a gene found in rats causes abnormalities of the cartilage throughout the body, an enlarged heart, slow development, and death when it is present in the homozygous state. What is this an example of? | pleiotropy |
| If a father with type A blood marries a woman with type O blood and they have a child with type O blood as well, what does this tell you about the father? | the father is heterozygous (one A allele and one O allele) |
| Which of the following is the strongest evidence that a trait might be influenced by polygenic inheritance? | the trait shows quantitative variation |
| When you cross true-breeding tall and short tobacco plants, you get an F1 that is intermediate in height. When this F1 is self-crossed, it yields an F2 with a continuous distribution of heights. What is the best explanation for these data? | height is determined by the additive effects of many genes |
| What is the specific reason alleles of genes that are temperature-sensitive lack function at elevated temperatures? | the protein product of the gene denatures |
| Frederick Griffith investigated pneumonia-causing bacteria in mice. What was one of his conclusions from this work? | some substance from pathogenic cells was transferred to nonpathogenic cells, making them pathogenic |
| In analyzing the number of different bases in a DNA sample, which result would be consistent with the base-pairing rules? | A + G = C + T |
| What type of bond connects nucleotides of DNA together into polynucleotide strands? | phosphodiester bonds |
| How are the two complementary strands of the DNA double helix held to one another? | hydrogen bonds between nucleotide bases |
| If a segment of DNA is 5’-CATTAC-3’, the complementary DNA strand is: | 3'-GTAATG-5' |
| The secondary structure of DNA requires hydrogen bonds between the nitrogenous bases called purines and pyrimidines. What are the complementary base pairs that form in DNA? | A-T and G-C |
| What does it mean to say that strands in a double helix are antiparallel? | they have opposite directionality, or polarity, in the molecule |
| What was the purpose behind using radioactive isotopes of phosphorus and sulfur in the Hershey-Chase experiments with phage viruses? | to label DNA and protein differentially |
| In eukaryotic cells, chromosomes consist of | DNA and proteins |
| In a nucleosome, what is the DNA wrapped around? | histones |
| What are chromatin fibers composed of? | DNA and protein |
| If the position of a gene is described as located on the q arm of chromosome 7, what does this mean? | it is on the long arm of a submetacentric chromosome |
| Which of the following is true regarding euchromatin? | it is more likely to contain gene sequences than heterochromatin |
| What is the basis for the difference in how the leading and lagging strands of DNA molecules are synthesized? | DNA polymerase can join new nucleotides only to the 3’ end of a pre-existing strand |
| What does synthesis of a new DNA strand usually begin with? | an RNA primer |
| The Meselson and Stahl experiment used a density label to be able to | distinguish between newly replicated and old strands |
| The statement “DNA replicates by a semiconservative mechanism” means that: | each double helix consists of one old and one newly synthesized strand |
| What do topoisomerases do? | break and rejoin DNA to reduce torsional stress |
| If you could engineer an activity into DNA polymerase to allow both strands to follow the replication fork, what would this additional activity be? | the ability to synthesize in the 3’→5’ direction |
| A culture of E. coli is irradiated with ultraviolet (UV) light. The effect of the UV light is to specifically… | form covalent bonds between thymine groups on the same strand of DNA |
| Which enzyme involved in DNA replication can remove incorrectly-placed nucleotides off the end of the growing strand? | DNA polymerase III |
| An enzyme that can remove a nucleotide off the end of a DNA strand is known as a | exonuclease |
| Methyl-directed mismatch repair in bacteria | involves marking parental strands in order to recognize which strand has the incorrect base |
| Why did researchers initially believe the genetic material was protein? | proteins are more biochemically complex (have more possibility for diverse sequences) than DNA |
| What are the four nitrogenous bases found in RNA? | adenine, uracil, guanine, cytosine (A, U, G, C) |
| Considering the structure of a nucleotide, what component is always different when comparing nucleotides in a DNA strand to an RNA strand? | the pentose sugar |
| The role of tRNA is to transport | amino acids to the ribosome |
| Which of the following best represents the central dogma of gene expression? | during transcription, DNA codes for mRNA, which codes for polypeptides during translation |
| Transcription is the process by which_______ is/are synthesized: | mRNA, tRNA and rRNA |
| RNA grows in the ____ direction, as RNA polymerase moves along the template DNA strand in the _____ direction. | 5’→3’; 3’→5’ |
| Which of the following is typically removed from the primary mRNA transcript during processing in the nucleus of eukaryotes? | introns |
| Transcription copies a _________ to a complementary _________ molecule | gene; RNA |
| The RNA polymerase enzyme binds to a _________ to initiate the process of ____________ | promoter; transcription |
| Which of the following is true regarding the process of RNA splicing? | it can produce multiple mRNAs from the same transcript |
| Transcription of a gene begins at a site on DNA called ____ and ends at a site on DNA known as ____. | a promoter; the terminator |
| A gene composed of 600 nucleotides (not counting the promoter or other control elements) would encode a protein of | 200 amino acids |
| The anticodon of a particular tRNA molecule is | complementary to the corresponding mRNA codon |
| Why did researchers suspect that DNA does not code for proteins directly? | in eukaryotes, DNA is found in the nucleus, but proteins are produced outside the nucleus |
| For a protein to fold correctly, it must bind to other proteins called | chaperones |
| The ribozyme that forms peptide bonds is called peptidyl transferase because it transfers...(this one is tricky, pay attention!) | the growing peptide from a tRNA to the next amino acid |
| The ___ is the site where the translation process takes place | ribosome |
| Which of the following best describes a mutation present in a gamete that creates a stop codon immediately after a start codon? | a nonsense germinal mutation |
| Base-pair substitutions involving the third base of a codon are unlikely to result in an error in the polypeptide. Why is this the case? | the base-pairing rules are less strict for the third base of codons and anticodons |
| Which of the following mutations would be most likely to have a harmful effect on an organism? | a single nucleotide insertion downstream of, and close to, the start of the coding sequence |
| The majority of gene expression regulation occurs by exerting control over the production of mRNA. Where is most gene regulation taking place? | at the level of transcription |
| The emu, a large flightless bird of Australia, and the African ostrich have arrived at a similar appearance due to the process of | convergent evolution |
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