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Bio A&P

Biology Anatomy & Physiology Chapter 1-17

QuestionAnswer
The study of the structure of an organism and the relationships of its parts. Anatomy
The study of the functions of living organisms and their parts. Physiology
The fundamental organizational unit of life. The cell
What are the two main subdivisions of the body? Axial & appendicular
What does the term 'bilateral symmetry' mean? A term meaning that right and left sides of the body are mirror images
What is the standard reference position for anatomical descriptions called? Anatomical position
What plane divides the body into right and left sides? Sagittal plane
What plane divides the body into front and back portions? Frontal (coronal) plane
What plane divides the body into upper and lower portions? Transverse (horizontal) plane
What are the two main body cavities in the ventral cavity? Thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities
What cavities are included in the dorsal body cavity? Cranial and spinal cavities
What term is used to describe structures on the same side of the body? Ipsilateral
What term is used to describe structures on opposite sides of the body? Contralateral
What is the chemical level of organization? The levels involve atoms, molecules, and macromolecules
What is the cellular level of organization? The level where cells are the smallest living units of structure and function
What is the tissue level of organization? An organization of similar cells specialized to perform a certain function
What is the organ level of organization? An organization of several different kinds of tissues to perform a specific function
What is the system level of organization? An organization of varying numbers and kinds of organs to perform complex functions
What is the highest level of organization? Organism level
What is the term for a theory that has an unusually high level of confidence? A law
What is the term for wasting effects of advancing age? Atrophy
What is the study of cells called? Cytology
What is the study of tissues called? Histology
What is the name given to terms based on a person's name, and why are they avoided in official lists? Eponyms; they are not descriptive and vary by location.
What is the key concept that unifies the study of anatomy and physiology? The principle of complementarity of structure and function
Which major body cavity contains the pleural and pericardial cavities?" The thoracic cavity
Which plane divides the body into symmetrical right and left halves? Midsagittal (or median sagittal) plane
What term refers to the trunk and includes the head and neck? Axial subdivision
What type of anatomy studies body structures by systems? Systemic anatomy
What is the scientific process that includes a hypothesis, experiments, and a resulting theory? Scientific inquiry (or scientific method)
Who coined the term 'homeostasis'? Walter B. Cannon
What is a set point in the context of homeostasis? The normal value for a physiological variable
What is the name for the specific sensory component in a homeostatic control mechanism? Sensor mechanism
What part of the homeostatic control mechanism integrates information and initiates a response? Integrating or control center
What part of the homeostatic control mechanism directly influences controlled variables? Effector mechanism
What are the two main types of feedback control systems? Positive and negative feedback
How do negative feedback control systems function? They are inhibitory and produce an action opposite to the change that activated the system.
What is the primary effect of negative feedback loops on the body's internal environment? Stabilization
How do positive feedback control systems function? They are stimulatory and amplify or reinforce the change that is occurring
Give an example of a positive feedback loop in the human body. Childbirth, blood clotting
What is the primary effect of positive feedback loops on the body's internal environment? They can be disruptive and produce destabilizing effects.
What is a feed-forward control system? A system where information flows ahead to another process to trigger a change in anticipation of an event.
What is intracellular control? Regulation within cells, involving genes and enzymes.
What is intrinsic control (autoregulation)? Regulation within tissues or organs, using chemical signals or other built-in mechanisms.
What is extrinsic control? Regulation from organ to organ, using nerve signals or hormones
Give an example of an intrinsic control mechanism. Local vasodilation in a working muscle
Give an example of an extrinsic control mechanism involving hormones. The release of insulin to regulate blood sugar.
What is the term for the efficiency of homeostatic mechanisms? Homeostatic efficiency
During what period of life is homeostatic efficiency highest? Young adulthood
What is the sum of all physical and chemical reactions in the body called? Metabolism
What is the name for the condition where a feedback loop fails to maintain a constant internal environment? Homeostatic imbalance or disease
Why are negative feedback control systems more common than positive feedback control systems? Because they are responsible for maintaining the stability of homeostasis.
What is the typical effect of a negative feedback control system? To return a variable to its normal set point
What does the term 'autopoiesis' mean in the context of living organisms? The principle that living organisms are self-organized and self-maintaining.
What physiological processes are often regulated by negative feedback loops? Body temperature, blood pressure, and blood glucose levels
What is the mechanism called when the flow of information constantly moves back from the sensor to the integrator? Feedback loop
What are the three levels of homeostatic control? Intracellular, intrinsic, and extrinsic
What happens to the efficiency of homeostatic mechanisms as a person ages? It decreases.
The body's ability to maintain a relatively stable internal environment is crucial for what? Survival and proper cell function
In what periods of life might homeostatic mechanisms be less efficient? Infancy/childhood and old age
What is matter? Anything that has mass and occupies space.
What are the two components of matter? Elements and compounds
What is the simplest form of matter? An element
What is the term for a substance that cannot be broken down into two or more different substances? An element
What is an atom composed of? Protons, neutrons, and electrons
What is the charge of a proton, neutron, and electron? Proton: positive; Neutron: neutral; Electron: negative
Where are protons and neutrons located in an atom? In the nucleus
Where are electrons located in an atom? In the electron cloud surrounding the nucleus
What is the atomic number of an element? The number of protons in an atom's nucleus
What is the mass number of an element? The number of protons plus the number of neutrons in the nucleus
What are isotopes? Atoms of the same element that have different numbers of neutrons.
What is a radioactive isotope? An unstable isotope that undergoes nuclear breakdown and emits radiation.
What is a molecule? Two or more atoms joined together.
What is a compound? A substance formed by atoms of two or more elements.
What are the two main types of chemical bonds? Ionic and covalent bonds
How is an ionic bond formed? By the transfer of electrons between atoms.
How is a covalent bond formed? By the sharing of electron pairs between atoms.
What are the three basic types of chemical reactions in physiology? Synthesis, decomposition, and exchange reactions
What is a synthesis reaction? A reaction that combines two or more substances to form a more complex substance.
What is a decomposition reaction? A reaction that breaks down a substance into two or more simpler substances.
What is an exchange reaction? A reaction involving both decomposition and synthesis.
What is metabolism? All the chemical reactions that occur in body cells.
What is the difference between catabolism and anabolism? Catabolism breaks down complex compounds, while anabolism builds them up.
What is the most important inorganic compound in the body? Water
What is the pH scale used for? To measure the degree of acidity or alkalinity of a solution.
What term describes weak attractions between molecules resulting from unequal charge distribution? Hydrogen bonding
What is a substance that releases a hydrogen ion (H + ) in solution? An acid (proton donor)
What is a substance that dissociates to yield a hydroxide ion (OH−) or accepts a H + ? A base (proton acceptor)
What is the term for compounds that minimize changes in hydrogen ion concentration in a solution? Buffers
What term is used to describe a molecule that has regions with partial electrical charges? Polar molecule
What distinguishes an organic molecule from an inorganic molecule? Organic molecules contain carbon and at least one C-C or C-H bond.
What are the four major classes of organic molecules found in the body? Carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids
What are the simplest form of carbohydrates? Monosaccharides (simple sugars)
What are disaccharides and polysaccharides composed of? Two or more simple sugars bonded together.
What is the most abundant type of lipid in the body? Triglycerides (fats)
Glycerol and fatty acids
What is the difference between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids? Saturated fatty acids have all available bonds filled; unsaturated have one or more double bonds.
What is the unique property of phospholipids that allows them to form cell membranes? They have a water-soluble (hydrophilic) end and a fat-soluble (hydrophobic) end.
A steroid nucleus
What are prostaglandins? Commonly called tissue hormones, they are produced by cell membranes throughout the body.
What are proteins composed of? Amino acids
How many essential amino acids are there, and why are they called 'essential'? Eight; they cannot be produced by the human body.
What is the term for the organized structure of a protein? Protein organization (primary, secondary, tertiary, quaternary)
What is the highest level of protein organization called? Quaternary structure
What is the native state of a protein? The final functional shape of a protein molecule.
What does it mean for a protein to be 'denatured'? It has lost its shape and therefore its function.
What is the primary function of DNA? It functions as the molecule of heredity.
What are the two types of nucleic acids? Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and ribonucleic acid (RNA)
What are the four nitrogenous bases in DNA? Cytosine, thymine, guanine, and adenine
What are the four nitrogenous bases in RNA? Adenine, uracil, guanine, and cytosine
What is the function of ATP? It serves as the energy currency of cells.
What is the energy currency of the cell? Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
What are combined forms of molecules, like a lipid and a protein, called? Lipoproteins
What is a 'glycoprotein'? A molecule made of a carbohydrate and a protein.
What is the name of the chemical reactions that join simple sugars together? Dehydration synthesis
What type of nucleic acid is composed of a single, non-coiled chain of nucleotides? RNA
What process is central to anabolism and builds larger molecules? Dehydration synthesis
What protein structure is determined by the number, kind, and sequence of amino acids? Primary structure
What category of lipid is cholesterol found in? Steroids
What is the non-coding protective segment of DNA at the end of a chromosome? Telomere
What is the central idea of the cell theory? The cell is the fundamental organizational unit of life.
What are the three main components of a typical cell? Plasma membrane, cytoplasm, and nucleus
What separates the cell from its surrounding environment? The plasma membrane
What is the name of the gel-like substance inside the cell? Cytoplasm
What is the collective name for the small structures within the cell that perform specific functions? Organelles
What is the name of the membrane that encloses the nucleus? Nuclear envelope
The fluid mosaic model
What are the two layers of the cell membrane primarily composed of? Phospholipid molecules
What are the two types of endoplasmic reticulum? Rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) and smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)
What organelle is responsible for synthesizing proteins? Ribosomes
Where are ribosomes found in the cell? Attached to the rough ER and free in the cytoplasm
What organelle processes, packages, and secretes proteins and lipids? The Golgi apparatus
What organelle is known as the 'digestive system' of the cell? Lysosomes
What organelle is known as the 'power plant' of the cell? Mitochondrion
What is the primary function of the nucleus? To house the cell's genetic material (DNA) and control cell activities.
What are the three types of cell fibers that make up the cytoskeleton? Microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules
What is the function of microfilaments? They serve as cellular muscles, allowing for movement and shape changes.
What is the function of microtubules? They move things around inside the cell.
What is the main function of the centrosome? It coordinates the building and breaking of microtubules.
What are the finger-like projections on the surface of some cells that increase surface area for absorption? Microvilli
What are the hair-like projections that move substances along the cell surface? Cilia
What are the three main types of direct cell connections? Desmosomes, gap junctions, and tight junctions
What are desmosomes? Connections that act like 'spot welds' to hold adjacent cells together.
What are gap junctions? Membrane channels that join the cytoplasm of two cells, allowing for communication.
What are tight junctions? Collars of tightly fused material that prevent substances from passing between cells.
Ribosomes attached to its surface
Which organelle is primarily involved in detoxification and lipid synthesis? Smooth ER
What is chromatin? The thread-like mass of DNA and protein in the nucleus of a non-dividing cell.
What are the specialized proteins that act as molecular motors to move structures within the cell? Dynein, myosin, and kinesin
What is the fluid component of the cytoplasm? Cytosol
What is the term for all the chemical reactions that occur in a cell? Metabolism
What is the difference between catabolism and anabolism? Catabolism breaks down molecules and releases energy; anabolism builds molecules and consumes energy.
What are enzymes? Chemical catalysts that reduce the activation energy needed for a reaction.
What is the specific location on an enzyme where a substrate binds? The active site
What is the role of an enzyme in a chemical reaction? To speed up the rate of the reaction.
How is the name of an enzyme typically identified? By the suffix '-ase'.
What is the process of breaking down glucose to release energy called? Cellular respiration
What are the three main pathways of cellular respiration? Glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and the electron transport system
What is the process of moving substances through cell membranes without expending energy? Passive transport
What are the two main types of passive transport? Simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion
What is diffusion? The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.
What is osmosis? The diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane.
What is facilitated diffusion? The movement of molecules across a membrane with the help of channel or carrier proteins.
What type of cellular transport requires metabolic energy from the cell? Active transport
What are the two main types of vesicular transport? Endocytosis and exocytosis
What is the process of a cell engulfing large particles or other cells called? Phagocytosis
What is the process of a cell taking in liquids called? Pinocytosis
What is the process of expelling substances from the cell called? Exocytosis
What type of proteins are often referred to as 'pumps'? Membrane transporters that use energy for active transport.
What happens to a cell placed in a hypotonic solution? It swells as water flows into it.
What happens to a cell placed in a hypertonic solution? It shrivels as water flows out of it.
What happens to a cell placed in an isotonic solution? There is no net movement of water, and the cell volume remains stable.
What are the protein structures in the cell membrane that act as channels for water? Aquaporins
What are allosteric effectors? Chemicals or physical agents that affect enzyme action by changing the shape of the enzyme molecule.
How do cells get rid of abnormal or misfolded proteins? Through proteasomes, which break them down.
What is the primary role of the electron transport system? To transfer energy from electrons to ATP.
What is the term for the sum of the chemical reactions that break down complex compounds into simpler ones? Catabolism
What membrane protein allows certain large molecules to pass through the membrane when assisted by a specific protein? Carrier-mediated transport protein
The energy required for passive transport comes from what? The concentration gradient (or kinetic energy of molecules)
What molecule is produced during anaerobic respiration in the absence of oxygen? Lactate/Lactic Acid (or pyruvate)
What is the central anabolic pathway in cells? Protein synthesis
What is a gene? A segment of a DNA molecule that contains the code for synthesizing one RNA molecule.
What is the difference between coding RNA and non-coding RNA? Coding RNA (mRNA) is a transcript for a polypeptide; non-coding RNA (rRNA, tRNA) regulates processes.
What is the process of forming mRNA along a DNA strand called? Transcription
What is the process of creating a polypeptide chain from an mRNA template called? Translation
What structures are responsible for splicing mRNA transcripts? Spliceosomes
What are codons and anticodons? A codon is a three-base sequence on mRNA; an anticodon is a complementary three-base sequence on tRNA.
What is the function of a chaperone molecule? To help newly formed polypeptide chains fold into their correct shape.
What are telomeres, and what is their function? Non-coding protective segments of DNA at the ends of a chromosome.
What is the name of the enzyme that can rebuild telomeres? Telomerase
What is the growth phase of the cell cycle called? Interphase
What are the three sub-phases of interphase? First growth phase (G1), DNA synthesis phase (S), and second growth phase (G2)
What happens during the S phase of the cell cycle? The cell replicates its DNA.
What are the two new strands of DNA produced during replication called? Chromatids
What is the point of attachment for chromatids? The centromere
What are the four distinct phases of mitotic cell division? Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase
What happens during prophase? The nuclear envelope falls apart and chromatids coil up to form chromosomes.
What happens during metaphase? Chromosomes align at the equatorial plate of the cell.
What happens during anaphase? The centromere of each chromosome splits, and chromatids are pulled to opposite poles.
What happens during telophase? DNA returns to its original form, and the cell divides.
What are the enzymes that drive the cell through the phases of its life cycle? Cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs)
What are regulatory proteins that control these enzymes called? Cyclins
How does aging affect cell growth and development? It creates changes in cell numbers and their ability to function effectively.
What is the term for the loss of muscle mass that occurs with aging? Atrophy
What is the function of RNA interference (RNAi)? It protects the cell against viral infection by silencing gene expression.
What structure allows the impulse to move deep into the cell in muscle fibers? T-tubules
What is the process of gene duplication called? DNA replication
What part of the ribosome moves along the mRNA during translation? Ribosomal subunits (large and small)
What happens to organelles and the plasma membrane during the G1 phase? They are replicated/synthesized.
What is the final protein resulting from all synthesis steps called? Proteome
What is histology? The branch of microscopic anatomy that studies tissues.
What are the four principal types of tissue? Epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous tissue
What is the non-living material found between cells in a tissue called? Extracellular matrix (ECM)
What is the function of the extracellular matrix (ECM)? It provides structural support, binds tissues together, and allows for local communication.
What are the three primary germ layers from which all tissues develop? Endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm
What is the process of tissue development from germ layers called? Histogenesis
What is the difference between epithelial tissue and connective tissue in terms of cell arrangement? Epithelial cells are very close together; connective tissue cells are often far apart.
How does muscle tissue produce movement and heat? By contracting (shortening)
What is the function of nervous tissue? To communicate and integrate the various functions of the body.
What is the term for the growth of new tissue after an injury? Regeneration
What is the term for the dense, fibrous mass of tissue that replaces damaged tissue? Scar tissue
What is a keloid? An unusually thick scar.
Which tissue types have the greatest ability to regenerate? Epithelial and connective tissues
Which tissue types have a limited capacity to regenerate? Muscle and nervous tissues
What are body membranes? Thin tissue layers that cover surfaces, line cavities, and divide spaces or organs.
What are the two main types of body membranes? Epithelial membranes and connective tissue membranes
What is a cutaneous membrane? The skin
What are serous membranes? Membranes that line closed body cavities and cover visceral organs.
What are mucous membranes? Membranes that line and protect organs that are open to the exterior of the body.
What are synovial membranes? Connective tissue membranes that line the spaces between bones in joints.
What is the tough, flexible protein fiber found in the ECM? Collagen
What are glycoproteins? Proteins with a few carbohydrate attachments.
What is the function of integrins in the cell membrane? They help connect the ECM components to cells.
What is the function of the lamina propria? It is the fibrous connective tissue underlying mucous epithelium.
What is the function of mucins in mucous membranes? They are proteoglycans that form a double layer of protection against microbes.
What are the three types of epithelial membranes? Cutaneous, serous, and mucous membranes
What are the two layers of serous membranes? Parietal (lines cavity) and Visceral (covers organ)
What is the fluid secreted by serous membranes? Serous fluid
What is the primary component of the ECM that gives tissues resilience and elasticity? Elastin (elastic fibers)
What is the body's internal fluid environment, crucial for homeostasis, called? Extracellular matrix (ECM) or interstitial fluid
What are the two main types of epithelial tissue? Membranous epithelium and glandular epithelium
What are the four membrane cell shapes? Squamous, cuboidal, columnar, and pseudostratified columnar
What is the difference between simple and stratified epithelium? Simple has one cell layer; stratified has multiple layers.
What type of epithelium is a single layer of flat cells? Simple squamous epithelium
What type of epithelium lines many glands and ducts? Simple cuboidal epithelium
What type of epithelium is a single layer of tall, column-shaped cells? Simple columnar epithelium
What is the function of goblet cells? To secrete mucus
What type of epithelium is found lining the urinary bladder? Transitional epithelium
What are the three functional types of exocrine glands? Apocrine, holocrine, and merocrine glands
What is the difference between exocrine and endocrine glands? Exocrine glands have ducts; endocrine glands are ductless and secrete hormones into the blood.
What are the four main types of connective tissue? Fibrous, bone, cartilage, and blood
What is the most widely distributed type of fibrous connective tissue? Loose (areolar) connective tissue
What is the primary function of adipose tissue? To protect, insulate, support, and act as a food reserve.
What are the two types of bone tissue? Compact and cancellous (spongy)
What is the name for mature bone cells? Osteocytes
What are the three types of cartilage? Hyaline, fibrocartilage, and elastic
What is the strongest and most durable type of cartilage? Fibrocartilage
What is blood tissue composed of? A liquid matrix (plasma) and formed elements (red cells, white cells, and platelets)
What are the three types of muscle tissue? Skeletal, smooth, and cardiac
What is the difference between voluntary and involuntary muscle? Voluntary muscle can be controlled consciously; involuntary muscle cannot.
What is the unique characteristic of cardiac muscle cells? They have intercalated disks that connect them.
What is the name of the cells in nervous tissue that conduct impulses? Neurons
What are the supporting cells in nervous tissue called? Neuroglia
What are the two processes of a neuron? An axon and one or more dendrites
What is the myelin sheath? A fatty sheath that insulates the axon and speeds up nerve impulses.
What type of gland secretes its product directly through the cell membrane without damaging the cell? Merocrine gland
What type of gland involves the entire cell rupturing to release its secretory product? Holocrine gland
What is the primary component of loose fibrous connective tissue's ECM? Collagen and elastic fibers
What is the dense, tough connective tissue that forms tendons and ligaments? Dense regular fibrous tissue
What type of epithelial cell lining appears to have multiple layers but actually has only one? Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
What is the largest organ of the body? The skin (integument)
What is the average size of the skin's surface area in adults? 1.6 to 1.9 square meters
What are the three main components of the integumentary system? Skin, hair, nails, and skin glands
What are the two primary layers of the skin? Epidermis and dermis
What layer lies beneath the dermis? The hypodermis (subcutaneous layer)
What is the outermost layer of the epidermis called? Stratum corneum
What are the main cells in the epidermis that produce keratin? Keratinocytes
What cells in the epidermis produce pigment? Melanocytes
What is the function of melanocytes? To produce melanin, which contributes to skin color and protects from UV light.
What is the name of the process that allows epidermal cells to migrate to the surface and be shed? Turnover or regeneration
What is a callus? A thickening of the stratum corneum due to increased cell turnover.
What is the primary function of the dermis? To give strength to the skin and serve as a reservoir for water and electrolytes.
What gives skin its toughness and stretchability? Collagen and elastic fibers in the dermis
What is the name of the pigment that can cause a yellowish skin tone? Beta-carotene
What is the bluish skin color caused by a lack of oxygen called? Cyanosis
What are the main functions of the skin? Protection, sensation, excretion, hormone production (vitamin D), immunity, and temperature regulation.
What is the function of sweat glands? To produce sweat for cooling and excretion of waste.
What is the function of sebaceous glands? To secrete sebum to lubricate hair and skin.
What is sebum? An oily substance secreted by sebaceous glands.
What is the name for the glands that produce earwax? Ceruminous glands
What are the two types of sweat glands? Eccrine and apocrine glands
What are the primary elements of hair? The hair follicle, papilla, root, and shaft
What is the part of the nail that is visible called? The nail body
What is the congenital absence of melanin called? Albinism
How is vitamin D produced in the skin? Exposure of skin to UV light converts 7-dehydrocholesterol to cholecalciferol, a precursor to vitamin D.
What is the primary method of heat loss from the skin in high environmental temperatures? Evaporation (of sweat)
What is the most common cell type in the epidermis? Keratinocytes
What layer of the skin is characterized by a high concentration of adipose tissue? Hypodermis (subcutaneous layer)
What is the waterproof protein that fills the cells of the stratum corneum? Keratin
What small muscles attach to hair follicles and cause goosebumps? Arrector pili muscles
What are the five main functions of bones? Support, protection, movement, mineral storage, and hematopoiesis (blood cell formation).
What is hematopoiesis? The process of blood cell formation.
What is the hard, solid tissue that makes up the outer shell of bones? Compact bone
What is the porous, spongy tissue found inside bones, especially at the ends? Cancellous bone (spongy bone)
What is the main shaft of a long bone called? Diaphysis
What are the ends of a long bone called? Epiphyses
What is the strong, fibrous membrane covering the outer surface of a bone? Periosteum
What is the hollow space within the diaphysis of a long bone? Medullary (marrow) cavity
What lines the medullary cavity of a long bone? Endosteum
What is the inorganic salt that contributes to bone's hardness and resistance to mechanical deformation? Hydroxyapatite
What are the mature, inactive bone cells located in the lacunae? Osteocytes
What are the bone cells responsible for building new bone matrix? Osteoblasts
What are the large, multinucleated cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue (resorption)? Osteoclasts
What is the basic structural unit of compact bone? Osteon (Haversian system)
What are the ring layers of bone matrix that make up an osteon? Lamellae
What are the spaces where osteocytes are housed? Lacunae
What connects the lacunae and central canal of an osteon? Canaliculi
What is the process of bone formation called? Osteogenesis (ossification)
What is intramembranous ossification? Bone formation that occurs within a fibrous membrane (e.g., flat bones of the skull).
What is endochondral ossification? Bone formation that occurs by replacing a cartilage model (e.g., long bones).
What is the area where long bone growth in length occurs? Epiphyseal plate
How is the diameter (width) of a bone increased? Appositional growth (adding new bone to the outside)
What is the tough, pliable supportive structure found at bone ends? Articular cartilage (Hyaline cartilage)
What is the primary function of Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) in bone? To stimulate osteoclasts, increasing blood calcium levels.
What is the primary form of marrow found in the medullary cavity of adult long bones? Yellow marrow (fat)
What type of bone formation starts with the differentiation of mesenchymal cells into osteoblasts? Intramembranous ossification
What is the process of increasing calcium and phosphate salts in the bone matrix called? Calcification
What is the spongy, soft connective tissue found in the spaces of cancellous bone? Red marrow (myeloid tissue)
What two main structures protect the bone and contain blood vessels for survival? Periosteum and endosteum
What effect does calcitonin have on blood calcium levels? It lowers blood calcium levels by inhibiting osteoclasts.
What are the three main sections of the axial skeleton? The skull, the vertebral column, and the thoracic cage
Cranial bones (8) and facial bones (14)
What bone is often called the 'keystone' of the cranium because it connects all other cranial bones? Sphenoid bone
What is the only bone in the body that does not articulate with any other bone? The hyoid bone
What part of the vertebral column is composed of 7 bones? Cervical vertebrae
What part of the vertebral column is composed of 12 bones and articulates with the ribs? Thoracic vertebrae
What part of the vertebral column is composed of 5 bones and supports most of the body's weight? Lumbar vertebrae
What is the large, triangular bone formed by the fusion of five vertebrae? Sacrum
What is the scientific name for the tailbone? Coccyx
What type of joint connects the bodies of adjacent vertebrae? Intervertebral discs (symphyses/cartilaginous joints)
What is the inner, gelatinous core of an intervertebral disc called? Nucleus pulposus
What are the main two bones of the thoracic cage? Sternum (breastbone) and ribs
What is the superior portion of the sternum? Manubrium
How many pairs of ribs are there? 12 pairs
What are 'true ribs'? The first 7 pairs of ribs that attach directly to the sternum via costal cartilage.
What are 'false ribs'? Ribs 8–12, which do not attach directly to the sternum.
What are 'floating ribs'? Ribs 11 and 12, which have no anterior attachment to the sternum or costal cartilage.
What are the four curves of the vertebral column? Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, and sacral
What is the condition of an exaggerated thoracic curvature (hunchback)? Kyphosis
What is the condition of an exaggerated lumbar curvature (swayback)? Lordosis
What is the bone that contains the external auditory meatus and the mastoid process? Temporal bone
What is the large opening in the occipital bone that allows the spinal cord to connect to the brain? Foramen magnum
What is the common name for the bone that forms the forehead? Frontal bone
What is the only movable bone of the skull? The mandible
What bone forms the posterior/inferior part of the nasal septum? Vomer bone
What are the membrane-filled spaces between the cranial bones of a newborn called? Fontanels (soft spots)
What condition is characterized by a lateral curvature of the spine? Scoliosis
What three bones fuse together to form the sternum? Manubrium, body, and xiphoid process
What two bones form the cheekbone and part of the orbit? Zygomatic bones
What is the second cervical vertebra, which allows head rotation? Axis (C2)
How many bones are in the appendicular skeleton? 126 bones
What two bones form the shoulder girdle? Clavicle (collarbone) and Scapula (shoulder blade)
What is the function of the shoulder girdle? To connect the upper limb to the axial skeleton.
What is the upper arm bone called? Humerus
What two bones make up the forearm? Radius and Ulna
What is the wrist composed of (bone group)? Carpal bones (8 carpal bones)
What group of bones forms the palm of the hand? Metacarpals (5 metacarpal bones)
What bones form the fingers and toes? Phalanges (14 per hand/foot)
What is the largest, strongest bone of the human body? Femur (thigh bone)
What is the scientific name for the kneecap? Patella
What two bones make up the lower leg? Tibia (shin bone) and Fibula
What bone is the weight-bearing bone of the lower leg? Tibia
What is the ankle and upper foot composed of (bone group)? Tarsal bones (7 tarsal bones)
What bone forms the heel? Calcaneus
What bone articulates with the tibia and fibula to form the ankle joint? Talus
What group of bones forms the sole of the foot? Metatarsals (5 metatarsal bones)
What are the two bones that form the pelvic girdle? The two coxal (hip) bones.
What are the three fused bones that form one coxal bone? Ilium, ischium, and pubis
What is the hip socket that articulates with the head of the femur? Acetabulum
What is the key difference in the overall shape of the male pelvis compared to the female pelvis? The female pelvis is generally wider, shallower, and has a larger pelvic inlet/outlet.
What curve is characteristic of the spine in the neck region? Cervical curve
What happens to the skeleton with advancing age? There is a gradual loss of bone density and strength (osteoporosis).
What is the common bone fractured when falling on an outstretched hand? Clavicle
What is the large, triangular bone that forms the prominent part of the shoulder blade? Scapula
What group of bones in the hand is analogous to the metatarsals in the foot? Metacarpals
What bone forms the elbow joint with the humerus? Ulna (specifically the olecranon process)
What bone in the forearm is on the thumb side and rotates during supination/pronation? Radius
What bone is suspended from the clavicle and rib cage and provides the only bony attachment of the arm to the axial skeleton? Clavicle
What is the primary function of the arches in the foot? To provide shock absorption and support the body's weight.
What bone articulates with the sacrum to complete the pelvic girdle? Ilium (part of the coxal bone)
What is a joint (articulation)? A point of contact between bones.
How are joints structurally classified? By the type of connective tissue that joins the bones (fibrous, cartilaginous, or synovial).
How are joints functionally classified? By the degree of movement allowed (synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, or diarthrosis).
What is a synarthrosis joint? An immovable joint (e.g., sutures of the skull).
What is an amphiarthrosis joint? A slightly movable joint (e.g., intervertebral discs).
What is a diarthrosis joint? A freely movable joint (e.g., the shoulder joint).
What is the strongest joint type that allows no movement, like those between cranial bones? Fibrous joints (specifically, sutures)
What are the two types of cartilaginous joints? Synchondrosis (hyaline cartilage) and symphysis (fibrocartilage).
What is the most common and structurally complex joint type? Synovial joints
What are the six structural features common to all synovial joints? Joint capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage, joint cavity, menisci (or articular discs), and ligaments.
What fluid lubricates the articulating surfaces of synovial joints? Synovial fluid
What type of angular movement decreases the angle between two bones? Flexion
What type of angular movement increases the angle between two bones? Extension
What is the movement of a limb away from the midline of the body? Abduction
What is the movement of a limb toward the midline of the body? Adduction
What is the pivoting of a bone on its own axis? Rotation
What is the circular motion that combines flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction? Circumduction
What special movement involves turning the sole of the foot inward? Inversion
What special movement involves turning the hand palm-side up? Supination
What type of joint is the knee joint classified as? A complex diarthrotic hinge joint.
What is the function of the menisci (articular discs) in the knee? To absorb shock and improve the fit between the bones.
What type of joint is the elbow joint? A hinge joint.
What type of joint is the shoulder joint? A ball-and-socket joint.
What type of joint is the joint between the carpals and metacarpal of the thumb? A saddle joint (a highly mobile biaxial joint).
What is the term for the measurement of the range of motion (ROM) of a joint? Goniometry
What three main types of synovial joints are based on the number of axes of movement? Uniaxial (one axis), Biaxial (two axes), and Multiaxial (three or more axes)
What are the fibrous connections that join adjacent bones in the skull? Sutures
What type of joint is characterized by a fluid-filled joint cavity? Synovial joint
What are the specialized fluid-filled sacs that cushion joints and facilitate tendon movement? Bursae
What special movement occurs when the sole of the foot turns outward? Eversion
What percentage of total body weight is skeletal muscle? 40% to 50%
What are the three layers of connective tissue covering skeletal muscles? Epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium
What tough connective tissue covers the entire muscle? Epimysium
What connective tissue surrounds bundles of muscle fibers (fascicles)? Perimysium
What delicate connective tissue surrounds individual muscle fibers? Endomysium
What is the less movable point of muscle attachment? Origin
What is the more movable point of muscle attachment? Insertion
What is the primary muscle that directly performs a specific movement? Prime mover (agonist)
What muscle opposes the prime mover? Antagonist
What muscle group stabilizes a joint to make the primary movement more efficient? Synergists
What muscle is responsible for smiling? Zygomaticus major
What muscle is responsible for closing the eye? Orbicularis oculi
What are the four main muscles involved in mastication (chewing)? Masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid, and lateral pterygoid
What are the main muscles responsible for moving the head/neck? Sternocleidomastoid and trapezius
What is the largest muscle of the thoracic cage, aiding in inspiration? Diaphragm
What axial muscles are involved in forced expiration and trunk rotation/flexion? External and internal oblique muscles
What muscle runs vertically down the anterior abdomen and is a key flexor of the trunk? Rectus abdominis
What muscle group is crucial for maintaining proper posture and spinal extension? Erector spinae group
What type of movement is described by a third-class lever? Rapid and extensive movement
In a third-class lever system, where is the pull (effort) exerted? Between the fulcrum (joint) and the load
What class of lever is most common in the human body? Third-class lever
What type of lever is exemplified by the nodding movement of the head on the neck? First-class lever
What muscles form the pelvic floor and support the pelvic organs? Levator ani and coccygeus (pelvic floor muscles)
What are muscles named according to? Location, function, shape, direction of fibers, number of heads, size, or attachment points.
What is the function of the external intercostal muscles? To elevate the ribs, aiding in inhalation (inspiration).
What is the function of the internal intercostal muscles? To depress the ribs, aiding in exhalation (expiration).
What is the main action of the rectus abdominis? Flexion of the vertebral column (bending forward).
What muscles are responsible for rotating the trunk and bending the torso laterally? The oblique muscles (internal and external)
What muscle originates on the sternum and clavicle and inserts on the mastoid process? Sternocleidomastoid
What three muscles make up the erector spinae group? Iliocostalis, Longissimus, and Spinalis
What is the primary role of appendicular muscles? To move the upper and lower extremities (locomotion and manipulation).
What are the four muscles of the rotator cuff? Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis (SITS muscles)
What is the function of the rotator cuff muscles? To stabilize and rotate the head of the humerus in the shoulder joint.
What large back muscle is responsible for adduction, extension, and internal rotation of the arm? Latissimus dorsi
What muscle forms the rounded contour of the shoulder and is a major abductor of the arm? Deltoid
Biceps brachii, brachialis, and brachioradialis
What muscle is the primary extensor of the elbow? Triceps brachii
What are the general actions of the anterior forearm muscles? Flexion of the wrist, hand, and fingers.
What are the general actions of the posterior forearm muscles? Extension of the wrist, hand, and fingers.
What is the powerful hip flexor muscle group found deep in the pelvis and thigh? Iliopsoas (Iliacus and Psoas major)
What are the four muscles that make up the quadriceps femoris group? Rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, and vastus intermedius.
What is the action of the quadriceps femoris group? Extension of the leg at the knee.
What three muscles make up the hamstring group? Biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus.
What is the action of the hamstring group? Flexion of the leg at the knee and extension of the thigh at the hip.
What muscle is the main antagonist to the hamstring group? Quadriceps femoris group
What is the large, powerful muscle forming the buttocks, responsible for thigh extension? Gluteus maximus
What calf muscle is a powerful plantar flexor and plays a key role in walking and running? Gastrocnemius
What is the largest tendon in the body? Calcaneal tendon (Achilles tendon)
What is the action of the tibialis anterior muscle? Dorsiflexion (lifting the foot) and inversion of the foot.
What is the medical term for muscle wasting due to aging? Sarcopenia
What are the deep muscles of the back that are vital for maintaining the upright posture of the spine? Erector spinae
What term describes the muscles that are entirely contained within the structure being moved (e.g., small hand muscles)? Intrinsic muscles
What term describes the muscles that originate outside the structure being moved (e.g., forearm muscles moving the fingers)? Extrinsic muscles
What is the clinical significance of maintaining muscle mass in older age? It helps counteract degenerative changes and reduce the risk of falls/fractures.
What is the function of the vastus lateralis, medialis, and intermedius? To extend the leg at the knee (three of the four quadriceps muscles).
What superficial thigh muscle is the longest muscle in the body and allows us to sit cross-legged? Sartorius
What is the muscle group on the medial side of the thigh responsible for drawing the thighs together? Adductor group (magnus, longus, brevis, etc.)
What muscles are primarily responsible for rotating the arm inward (medial rotation)? Subscapularis and pectoralis major
What two calf muscles are primarily responsible for plantar flexion? Gastrocnemius and Soleus
What muscle is the primary abductor of the thigh? Gluteus medius
What are the three main characteristics of muscle tissue? Excitability (irritability), contractility, and extensibility.
What is the scientific name for the plasma membrane of a muscle fiber? Sarcolemma
What is the internal network of tubules and sacs within the muscle fiber? Sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)
What structures allow the electrical impulse to travel deep into the muscle fiber? T-tubules (transverse tubules)
What is the contractile unit of a muscle fiber? Sarcomere
What are the thick and thin filaments primarily composed of? Thick: Myosin; Thin: Actin
What is the theory describing muscle contraction called? The sliding filament model
What structure is responsible for storing and releasing calcium ions in a resting muscle fiber? Sarcoplasmic reticulum
What is the role of calcium ions (Ca 2+) in muscle contraction? They bind to troponin, causing tropomyosin to shift and expose active sites on actin.
What are the two regulatory proteins found on the thin (actin) filament? Troponin and tropomyosin
What are the projections from the thick (myosin) filaments that attach to the thin filaments? Myosin heads (cross-bridges)
What provides the energy necessary for the myosin head to detach and reset for the next stroke? Hydrolysis of ATP
What is the brief, all-or-none contraction of a muscle fiber in response to a single stimulus called? A twitch contraction
What is wave summation? The increasing force of muscle contraction due to rapid, successive stimuli (twitches merge).
What is the sustained contraction caused by very rapid stimulation with no relaxation between twitches? Tetanus (or complete tetanus)
What is muscle tone? A continuous, partial contraction of a muscle, even at rest.
What is an isotonic contraction? A contraction where muscle tension remains the same while the muscle length changes (movement occurs).
What is an isometric contraction? A contraction where muscle length remains the same while muscle tension increases (no movement).
What is the difference between concentric and eccentric isotonic contractions? Concentric: muscle shortens; Eccentric: muscle lengthens while contracting.
What unique structures electrically couple cardiac muscle cells, allowing them to contract as a unit? Intercalated discs
What prevents cardiac muscle from being able to enter a state of complete tetanus? Its prolonged refractory period
What is the molecule that calcium binds to in smooth muscle to initiate contraction? Calmodulin (instead of troponin)
What term is used to describe muscles that are 'flaccid'? They have less tone than normal.
What two major chemical components are required for muscle contraction and relaxation? Calcium (Ca 2+) and ATP
What is the role of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase at the neuromuscular junction? To break down acetylcholine, stopping the nerve impulse.
What is the space between the motor neuron and the muscle fiber called? Synaptic cleft (or neuromuscular junction)
What neurotransmitter is released at the neuromuscular junction to stimulate a muscle fiber? Acetylcholine (ACh)
What is the smooth, sustained contraction seen during normal motor activity called? Complete tetanus
What is the phenomenon where the strength of a muscle contraction increases with repeated stimulation (staircase effect)? Treppe
What type of muscle is characterized by a single nucleus and a lack of striations? Smooth muscle
Created by: amarron
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