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Immunity

QuestionAnswer
Which innate immune cell is primarily responsible for phagocytosis of bacteria? A. Neutrophils B. CD8+ T cells C. B lymphocytes D. Mast cells Correct Answer: A. Neutrophils Rationale: Neutrophils are the most abundant phagocytic cells; CD8+ T cells target infected host cells, B cells produce antibodies, and mast cells release histamine.
Which of the following distinguishes innate immunity from adaptive immunity? A. Innate immunity requires prior exposure to antigens. B. Adaptive immunity responds immediately. C. Innate immunity lacks memory. D. Adaptive immunity is non-specific Correct Answer: C. Innate immunity lacks memory Rationale: Innate immunity is fast but nonspecific and has no memory; adaptive immunity is slower initially but specific and memory-forming.
Which cell type is central to adaptive immunity through antigen recognition? A. Dendritic cells B. Natural killer cells C. T and B lymphocytes D. Neutrophils Correct Answer: C. T and B lymphocytes Rationale: Adaptive immunity depends on antigen-specific lymphocytes. Dendritic cells activate them but are part of innate defense.
Which type of vaccine uses a weakened form of the pathogen to stimulate immunity? A. Live-attenuated B. Inactivated C. Subunit D. Toxoid Correct Answer: A. Live-attenuated Rationale: Live-attenuated vaccines (e.g., MMR) provide strong, long-lasting immunity. Inactivated and subunit vaccines cannot replicate.
In which clinical scenario is a toxoid vaccine most appropriate? A. Protection against influenza B. Protection against tetanus C. Protection against hepatitis B D. Protection against measles Correct Answer: B. Protection against tetanus Rationale: Toxoid vaccines (tetanus, diphtheria) target bacterial toxins, not whole pathogens.
Why are live-attenuated vaccines contraindicated in immunocompromised patients? A. They cannot generate memory cells. B. They can revert to virulence. C. They require multiple booster doses. D. They lack antigen presentation. Correct Answer: B. They can revert to virulence. Rationale: Live-attenuated vaccines pose a risk of uncontrolled infection in immunocompromised hosts.
Which first-line defense mechanism prevents pathogen colonization in the gastrointestinal tract? A. Saliva enzymes B. Gastric acidity C. Interferon secretion D. Natural killer (NK) cells Correct Answer: B. Gastric acidity Rationale: Gastric acid creates a hostile environment for ingested microbes. Interferons and NK cells are part of secondary defenses, not first-line barriers.
Which hypersensitivity reaction is IgE-mediated? A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV Correct Answer: A. Type I Rationale: Type I reactions (allergies, anaphylaxis) are IgE-mediated; Type II involves IgG/IgM, Type III involves immune complexes, and Type IV is T-cell mediated.
A patient develops hemolytic anemia after receiving a mismatched blood transfusion. What type of hypersensitivity is this? A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV Correct Answer: B. Type II Rationale: Type II hypersensitivity involves antibodies binding to host cells, leading to complement activation and cell destruction.
Which mechanism drives Type III hypersensitivity? A. Mast cell degranulation B. Direct T-cell cytotoxicity C. Antigen-antibody immune complex deposition D. Antibody-mediated cell lysis Correct Answer: C. Antigen-antibody immune complex deposition Rationale: Type III involves immune complexes depositing in tissues, causing inflammation (e.g., SLE, serum sickness).
Contact dermatitis from poison ivy is which type of hypersensitivity? A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV Correct Answer: D. Type IV Rationale: Type IV is a delayed T-cell–mediated response, seen in contact dermatitis and TB testing.
Which lab test is most specific for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)? A. ANA (antinuclear antibody) B. Anti-dsDNA antibody C. Rheumatoid factor D. ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate) Correct Answer: B. Anti-dsDNA antibody Rationale: ANA is sensitive but nonspecific; anti-dsDNA is highly specific for SLE.
The hallmark immune dysfunction in SLE is: A. Deficiency of CD4+ T cells B. Excessive NK cell activity C. Autoantibody formation and immune complex deposition D. Loss of neutrophil function Correct Answer: C. Autoantibody formation and immune complex deposition Rationale: Autoantibodies against nuclear antigens form complexes that deposit in tissues, driving inflammation
Which immune cells are primarily targeted by HIV? A. CD4+ T cells B. CD8+ T cells C. B lymphocytes D. Natural killer cells Correct Answer: A. CD4+ T cells Rationale: HIV infects CD4+ T cells via CCR5/CXCR4 receptors, impairing adaptive immunity
Which laboratory marker is used to stage HIV progression? A. Total leukocyte count B. CD4+ T-cell count C. Serum IgG level D. Complement activity Correct Answer: B. CD4+ T-cell count Rationale: CD4 count guides HIV staging and therapy decisions.
Which opportunistic infection is most common in untreated AIDS patients with CD4 <200 cells/µL? A. Streptococcal pharyngitis B. Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia C. Influenza D. Tetanus Correct Answer: B. Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia Rationale: PCP is a hallmark opportunistic infection in AIDS
Which factor enhances immune defenses? A. Malnutrition B. Regular moderate exercise C. Chronic stress D. Advanced age Correct Answer: B. Regular moderate exercise Rationale: Exercise improves circulation and immune surveillance; malnutrition, stress, and age impair immunity.
Which factor most commonly impairs host defenses in hospitalized patients? A. High-protein diet B. Long-term corticosteroid use C. Immunization D. Regular sleep patterns Correct Answer: B. Long-term corticosteroid use Rationale: Corticosteroids suppress immune responses, increasing infection risk.
Older adults are more prone to infections because of: A. Increased neutrophil activity B. Enhanced thymic T-cell output C. Declining adaptive immune function D. Stronger vaccine response Correct Answer: C. Declining adaptive immune function Rationale: Thymic involution reduces T-cell production, weakening adaptive immunity.
A 28-year-old woman with lupus develops nephritis. What immune mechanism underlies this complication? A. Type I hypersensitivity reaction B. Type II hypersensitivity reaction C. Type III immune complex deposition D. Type IV delayed response Correct Answer: C. Type III immune complex deposition Rationale: Lupus nephritis is caused by immune complex deposition in glomeruli, activating complement and inflammation.
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