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Module 6: Medical
GI - EMT+Cardiology - EMT+Endocrinology+Neurology - EMT
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What is considered the hallmark of an acute abdominal emergency? | Pain |
| What are the three main classifications of abdominal pain? | Visceral, Somatic & Referred |
| What type of abdominal pain originates in the walls of hollow organs such as the gallbladder or appendix? | Visceral |
| What are the three mechanisms that can produce Visceral abdominal pain? | Inflammation, Distention (being stretched out or inflated), and Ischemia (inadequate blood flow) |
| What type of abdominal pain is usually sharp and travels along definite neural routes? | Somatic Pain |
| What type of abdominal pain originates in a region other than it is felt? | Referred Pain |
| Upper GI bleeding is defined at bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract proximal to what structure? | Ligament of Treitz |
| What type of hemorrhage is usually associated with someone who induces vomiting? | Mallory-Weiss Syndrome |
| Vomiting up blood is known as: | Hematemesis |
| Dark, tarry, foul-smelling stool indicating the presence of partially digested blood is called? | Melena |
| For Melena to be present, how much blood must drain into the GI tract and remain there for 5-8 hours? | 150 mL |
| How much of a drop in B/P must you see to say someone is positive for orthostatic hypotension? | 10 mmHg |
| How much of an increase in a patient's heart rate must you see to say someone is positive for orthostatic hypotension? | 20 beats per minute |
| An _________________________ is a swollen vein of the esophagus. | Esophageal Varix |
| What is the most common cause of esophageal varices? | Alcoholic liver cirrhosis |
| Dehydration secondary to _____________________ is a common cause of death in developing nations but is seen far less frequently in the United States. | Diarrhea |
| Inflammation of the stomach and the intestines with associated sudden onset of vomiting and/or diarrhea is known as: | Acute Gastroenteritis |
| Bright red blood in the stool is known as: | Hematochezia |
| Inflammation of the GI mucosa marked by long-term mucosal changes or permanent mucosal damage is known as: | Chronic Gastroenteritis |
| An erosion that is caused by gastric acid is known as: | A peptic ulcer |
| Lower GI bleeding occurs in the GI tract distal to what ligament? | Ligament of Treitz |
| Small masses of swollen veins that occur in the anus (external) or rectum (internal) are known as: | Hemorrhoids |
| Inflammation of the gallbladder is known as: | Cholecystitis |
| What is the most common cause of Cholecystitis? | Gall stones |
| Inflammation of the pancreas is known as: | Pancreatitis |
| Small outpouchings in the mucosal lining of the intestinal tract is known as: | Diverticula |
| The presence of diverticula, with or without bleeding is known as: | Diverticulosis |
| Inflammation of intestinal diverticula is known as: | Diverticulitis |
| The common site of pain from an appendicitis, which is 1 to 2 inches above the anterior iliac crest in a direct line with the umbilicus is known as: | McBurney's Point |
| Pain caused when an inflamed gall-bladder is palpated by pressing under the right costal margin is known as: | Murphy's Sign |
| A condition that occurs when part of an intestine slips into the part just distal to itself is known as: | Intussusception |
| Twisting of the intestine on itself is known as: | Volvulus |
| Inflammation and damage to the liver hepatocytes is known as: | Hepatitis |
| Coughing up blood from the respiratory tree is known as: | Hemoptysis |
| Where in your GI tract is the most common place for a bowel obstruction to occur? | In the small intestine |
| The small intestine is broken down into three sections - what are they? | The Duodenum, Jejunum and the Ileum |
| Where does 90% of the nutrient absorption occur in the GI tract? | In the small intestine |
| What is the main job of the large intestine? | Water reabsorption |
| Superficial edema and bruising around the umbilicus is known as: | Cullen's Sign |
| Superficial edema and bruising that occurs to either the patients left or right lateral side is known as: | Grey Turner's Sign |
| What is a class 1 hemorrhage? | A blood loss of less than 15% |
| What is a class 2 hemorrhage? | Blood loss of 15-25% |
| What is a class 3 hemorrhage? | Blood loss of 25-35% |
| What is a class 4 hemorrhage? | Blood loss greater than 35% - Patient survival is unlikely |
| If you were to auscultate the abdomen, what is the recommend amount of time to listen to each quadrant? | 2 minutes |
| Pain that originates in the abdomen but is felt in the shoulder is known as: | Kehr's Sign |
| Persistent abdominal pain lasting longer than _______ hours is classified as a surgical emergency. | 6 |
| What are the two major components of the cardiovascular system? | The heart and the peripheral blood vessels |
| What are the three layers of the heart? | The Endocardium, Myocardium and the Pericardium |
| How much pericardial fluid does the heart contain in the pericardial sac on a normal healthy individual? | 25-50ml |
| _______________ is the volume of blood that the heart pumps in one minute. | Cardiac Output |
| What is the first phase of the cardiac cycle? | Diastole - this is when the heart is at rest |
| What is the second phase of the cardiac cycle? | Systole - this is when the heart is pumping |
| What is afterload? | Afterload is the resistance which the ventricle must contract against |
| What is Starling's Law of the Heart? | Starling's Law states the more the myocardial muscle is stretched, the greater its force of contraction will be - up till a certain point. In other words, the more blood that fills the ventricle, the more forceful the next cardiac contraction will be. |
| The sympathetic nervous system has two principal types of receptors, they are _____ and _____. | Alpha and Beta |
| ________ receptors are located in the peripheral blood vessels and are responsible for vasoconstriction. | Alpha |
| ________ receptors, primarily located in the heart, increase the heart rate and contractility. | Beta 1 |
| ________ receptors, principally located in the lungs and peripheral blood vessels, cause bronchodilation and peripheral vasodilation. | Beta 2 |
| Parasympathetic control of the heart occurs through the ________ nerve. | Vagus nerve (Cranial Nerve 10) |
| The term __________ refers to heart rate. Something that has a positive affect to this term will increase the patient's heart rate. | Chronotropy |
| _____________refers to the strength of a cardiac muscular contraction. Something that has a positive affect to this term will strengthen the cardiac contraction. | Inotropy |
| What is the inherit rate of the SA Node? | 60-100 beats per minute. |
| What is the inherit rate of the AV Node? | 40-60 beats per minute. |
| What is the inherit rate of the Purkinje System? | 15-40 beats per minute. |
| The right atrium and right ventricle is separated by what valve? | Tricuspid |
| The right ventricle and the pulmonary artery are separated by what valve? | Pulmonic |
| The left atrium and left ventricle are separated by what valve? | Mitral - other wise known as the bicuspid valve |
| The left ventricle and the aorta are separated by what valve? | Aortic |
| The coronary vessels receive their blood supply during what part of the cardiac cycle? | Diastole |
| What are anastomoses? | Communications between two or more vessels |
| The inner layer of a blood vessel is termed the __________. | Tunica intima |
| The middle layer of a blood vessel is termed the __________. | Tunica media |
| The outer layer of a blood vessel is termed the ___________. | Tunica adventitia |
| What are the three primary factors that affect the stroke volume? | Preload, Cardiac Contractility & Afterload |
| What are the three primary factors that affect the blood pressure? | Stroke Volume, Heart Rate & Systemic Vascular Resistance (SVR) |
| The ___________ is the ratio of blood pumped from the ventricle to the amount remaining at the end of diastole. | Ejection Fraction |
| The amount of blood ejected by the heart in one cardiac contraction is known as the __________. | Stroke Volume |
| ____________ is the pressure within the ventricles at the end of diastole; it is commonly called the end-diastolic volume. | Preload |
| Snuggly enclosed within the mediastinum, the heart extends obliquely from the ____ rib to the _____ intercostal space. | 2nd, 5th |
| The ability for pacemaker cells in the heart to self-depolarize is called __________. | Automaticity |
| A group of cardiac cells that physiologically function as a unit is called __________. | Syncytium |
| How many pulmonary arteries and pulmonary veins are located in the human body? | 2 Pulmonary Arteries, 4 Pulmonary Veins |
| When during the cardiac cycle is the heart fed blood through the coronary vessels? | During diastole |
| What heart valves are opened during diastole? | Tricuspid and mitral valves |
| What coronary vessel feeds blood to the anterior portion of the left ventricle? | Left Anterior Descending (LAD) |
| What coronary vessel feeds blood to the majority of the right ventricle? | Right Coronary Artery (RCA) |
| What heart valves are open during systole? | Aortic & Pulmonary |
| ____________ control of the heart occurs through the vagus nerve. | Parasympathetic |
| The resistance against which the heart must pump against is known as _________. | Afterload |
| During the systolic phase, what valves inside of the heart are open? | Pulmonic & Aortic |
| What is the function of the Chordae Tendineae? | The chordae tendineae are cord-like tendons that connect the papillary muscles to the tricuspid and mitral valve in the heart – they prevent the valves from prolapsing back into the atriums. |
| Which of the heart valves are called the “semi-lunar” valves? | Pulmonic and Aortic |
| Blood entering the left atrium arrives via the _________. | Pulmonary Veins (There are 4 of them) |
| The coronary vessels are not fed blood during what part of the cardiac cycle? | Systole |
| What are the contraindications for the administration of Nitroglycerin? | Hypotension below 90mmHg, Bradycardia below 50 beats per minute, Drop in systolic pressure greater than 30 mmHg, Use of ED medications within the last 48hours. |
| What coronary vessel feeds the majority of the left ventricle muscle? | LAD |
| What are the 5 Korotkoff Sounds when auscultating a blood pressure? | Snapping, Swooshing, Tapping, Thumping or Muting, & Silence |
| What is the correct dose of nitroglycerin? | 0.4 mg |
| How do you administer nitroglycerin? | Sublingually |
| What is considered the structural units of the endocrine system? | The endocrine glands |
| What is the difference between how the nervous and the endocrine systems communicate with the body? | The Nervous system communicates by means of electrical impulses and neurotransmitters - which the body responds to within milliseconds. The Endocrine system communicates by means of hormones that are circulated via the bloodstream - which reacts more s |
| How do endocrine glands differ from exocrine glands? | Endocrine glands are ductless - they secrete hormones directly into capillaries to circulate in the blood which usually has a wide spread system response. Exocrine glands have ducts that they release products that usually have only a direct local effec |
| What is the definition of metabolism? | It is the cellular process that produces the energy and molecules needed for growth and/or repair. |
| What are the eight major endocrine glands found in the human body? | Hypothalamus (Brain), Pituitary (Brain), Thyroid (Throat), Parathyroid (Throat), Thymus (Chest), Pancreas (Abdomen), Adrenal glands (Abdomen), Gonads (Pelvis) |
| Where is the hypothalamus located at? | It is located deep within the cerebrum of the brain |
| What hormones are secreted by the hypothalamus? | Growth releasing hormone, Growth inhibiting hormone, Corticotropin releasing hormone, Thyrotropin releasing hormone, Gonadotropin releasing hormone, Prolactin releasing hormone, Prolactin inhibiting hormone |
| How does the hypothalamus communicate to the anterior pituitary gland? | By hypothalamic hormones from the hypothalamus |
| How does the hypothalamus communicate to the posterior pituitary gland? | By electrical impulses from the hypothalamus |
| What hormones are released by the posterior pituitary gland? | Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) also known as Vasopressin & Oxytocin |
| What effects does the release of ADH have on the body? | It causes a retention of body water |
| What effect(s) does the release of Oxytocin have on the body? | It causes uterine contractions and lactation |
| What is diabetes insipidus? | A disorder marked by large volumes of urine being lost by the patient, due to inadequate ADH secretion relative to blood volume. |
| What hormones are released by the anterior pituitary gland? | Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) - targets adrenal cortexes, Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) - targets thyroid, Follicle-stimulating hormone FSH) - targets gonads, or sex organs, Luteinizing hormone (LH) - targets gonads, Prolactin (PRL) - |
| What three hormones are produced by the thyroid? | Thyroxine (T4) - stimulates cell metabolism, Triiodothyronine (T3) - stimulates cell metabolism, Calcitonin - lowers blood calcium levels |
| What hormone is produced by the parathyroid? | Parathyroid hormone (PTH) - increases blood calcium levels |
| What hormone is secreted by the thymus gland during childhood? | Thymosin - promotes the maturation of T lymphocytes, responsible for cell mediated immunity. |
| Does the pancreas contain endocrine or exocrine tissue? | Both, Exocrine tissues secrete digestive enzymes, Endocrine tissues is found in the islets of langerhans which only makes up about 2% of the pancreas total mass. |
| What do alpha cells in the islets of Langerhans produce and secrete? | Glucagon - which promotes an increase in the patient's blood sugar |
| What do beta cells in the islets of Langerhans produce and secrete? | Insulin - which is an antagonist of glucagon - will lower the patient's blood sugar by allowing sugar to enter the cells. |
| What do delta cells in the islets of Langerhans produce and secrete? | Somatostatin - inhibits the secretion of glucagon and insulin |
| What hormones are secreted by the adrenal medulla? | Catecholamine hormones (epinephrine & norepinephrine) |
| What hormones are secreted by the adrenal cortex? | It secretes 3 classes of steroidal hormones that differ only slightly in chemical composition (Glucocorticoids, Mineralocorticoids & Androgenic) |
| What hormones are produced by the ovaries? | Estrogen & Progesterone |
| What is produced by the male gonads? | Sperm cells |
| What hormone is produced by the testes? | Testosterone |
| Where is the pineal gland located at? | It is located in the roof of the thalamus in the brain |
| What hormone is released by the pineal gland? | Melatonin |
| What is anabolism? | It is the building process within a cell |
| What is catabolism? | It is the breakdown process within a cell |
| The presence of glucose in the urine is called ______________. | Glycosuria |
| What is polydipsia? | Constant thurst |
| What is polyuria? | It is excessive urination |
| What is polyphagia? | It is a ravenous appetite |
| The presence of excess thyroid hormones found in a patient's blood is termed _____________. | Hyperthyroidism |
| The presence of inadequate thyroid hormones in a patient's blood is termed _____________. | Hypothyroidism |
| The long-term exposure to inadequate levels of thyroid hormones that results in a change of the patient's skin, causes swelling around the lips and nose, an altered mental status and a subnormal metabolic rate is termed _____________. | Myxedema |
| Is Graves' disease more common in women or men? | Women - 6 times as much |
| A patient with Graves' disease may present with the protrusion of their eyeballs from their sockets - this is termed _______________. | Exophthalmos |
| Glucose is transported from the bloodstream to inside of the cell with the help of what? | Insulin |
| Graves' disease is an immune system disorder that results in the ____________ of thyroid hormones. | Overproduction (hyperthyroidism) |
| __________ syndrome is caused by excessive adrenocortical activity. | Cushing's |
| __________ disease is cause by a deficient in adrenocortical activity. | Addison's |
| What are some signs/symptoms of a patient with Cushing's syndrome? | Weight gain (especially to the face/eyes/neck area), a moon face appearance, an accumulation of fat on the upper back referred to as a "buffalo hump" |
| What affect does ADH have in the body? | It causes retention of body water |
| What affect does Oxytocin have in the body? | It causes uterine contraction and lactation |
| What affect does Thyroxine (T4) have in the body? | It stimulates cell metabolism |
| What affect does Triiodothryonine (T3) have in the body? | It stimulates cell metabolsim |
| What affect does Calcitonin have in the body? | It lowers blood calcium levels |
| What affect does Parathyroid hormone have in the body? | It increases blood calcium levels |
| What affect does Thymosin have in the body? | It promotes the maturation of T lymphocytes |
| What affect does Glucagon have in the body? | It increases blood glucose levels |
| What affect does Insulin have in the body? | It decreases blood glucose levels |
| What affect does Somatostatin have in the body? | It inhibits the secretion of both glucagon and insulin |
| What is Glycogenolysis? | It is the break down of glycogen into glucose |
| What is Gluconeogenesis? | It is the production of new glucose molecules from nonsugar sources in the body |
| The nervous system is anatomically and functionally split into two divisions - What are they called? | The Central and Peripheral nervous systems |
| What two things make up the Central Nervous System (CNS)? | The Brain and Spinal Cord |
| What makes up the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)? | A complex network of nerves |
| Based on the direction in which a nerve cell conducts action potential, neurons split the PNS into two different divisions - what are they? | Sensory (afferent) & Motor (efferent) |
| Which way does sensory (afferent) send impulses? | They conduct action potential toward the CNS |
| Which way does Motor (efferent) send impulses? | They conduct action potential away from the CNS |
| What is the fundamental unit of the nervous system? | The neuron |
| What are the four parts of a neuron? | The Dendrites, Soma, Axon, and Synaptic Terminals |
| What are the two major divisions of the Efferent PNS? | Autonomic and Somatic |
| What are the two major divisions of the Autonomic Nervous System? | Sympathetic and Parasympathetic |
| What is considered to be the cell body of the neuron? | The Soma |
| What part of the neuron conducts impulses toward the Soma? | The Dendrites |
| What part of the neuron conducts impulses away from the Soma? | The Axon |
| A neuron joins with other neurons at junctions called? | Synapses |
| Neurons never come in direct contact with one another, instead they communicate via what? | Neurotransmitters |
| What is the primary neurotransmitter for the post synaptic terminals of the sympathetic nerves? | Norepinphrine |
| What is the primary neurotransmitter for the parasympathetic nerves? | Acetylcholine |
| How many bones make up the spinal column? | 33 |
| What are the protective membranes that cover the entire CNS? | The meninges |
| What is the outermost layer of the meninges? | The Dura Mater |
| What is the middle weblike layer of the meninges? | The Arachnoid Membrane |
| What is the innermost layer of the meninges? | The Pia Mater |
| The space between the Pia Mater and the Arachnoid Membrane is known as the: | Subarachnoid Space |
| The space between the Dura Mater and the Arachnoid Membrane is known as the: | Subdural Space |
| The space outside of the Dura Mater is known as the: | Epidural Space |
| What are the six major parts of the brain? | The Cerebrum, Diencephalon, Mesencephalon, Pons, Medulla Oblongata, and the Cerebellum |
| The Mesencephalon is also known as the: | Midbrain |
| The Diencephalon is also known as the: | Interbrain |
| Where is the area of speech located at in the cerebrum? | Temporal lobe |
| Where is the vision of speech located at in the cerebrum? | Occipital |
| Where is the personality of speech located at in the cerebrum? | Frontal lobes |
| Where is the area of balance and coordination located at in the brain? | Cerebellum |
| Where is the area of sensory located at in the cerebrum? | Parietal lobes |
| Where is the area of motor located at in the cerebrum? | Frontal lobes |
| The brain receives about _____ % of the body's total blood flow per minute. | 20 |
| The brain consumes approximately _____% of the body's available glucose. | 25 |
| What two vascular supply systems provide blood flow to the Circle of Willis? | The carotid and vertebrobasilar systems |
| What part of the brain coordinates fine motor movement, posture, equilibrium and muscle tone? | The cerebellum |
| The spinal cord leaves the brain at the medulla and proceeds through an opening called the __________________. | Foramen Magnum |
| How many pairs of nerve fibers exit the spinal cord as it descends and enters the peripheral nervous system? | 31 |
| Dorsal roots of the spinal cord contain what type of nerve fibers? | Afferent (sensory) |
| Ventral roots of the spinal cord contain what type of nerve fibers? | Efferent (motor) |
| Each nerve root has a corresponding area of skin, called a __________________, to which it supplies sensation. | Dermatone |
| How man cranial nerves are there? | 12 |
| What are the four categories of peripheral nerves? | Somatic sensory, somatic motor, visceral sensory, and visceral motor. |
| A malfunction or damage of the peripheral nerves is termed: | Peripheral neuropathy |
| What is a "Structural Lesion" in the CNS? | It is a tumor |
| What is the maximum number of points that can be awarded using the Glasgow Coma Scale? | 15 |
| What is the minimum number of points that can be awarded using the Glasgow Coma Scale? | 3 |
| The Glasgow Coma Scale is broken down into what different parts? | Eye Opening, Best Verbal Response, and Best Motor Response |
| What is the maximum amount of points that can be awarded to the "Eye Opening" category of the Glasgow Coma Scale? | 4 |
| What is the maximum amount of points that can be awarded to the "Best Verbal Response" category of the Glasgow Coma Scale? | 5 |
| What is the maximum amount of points that can be awarded to the "Best Motor Response" category of the Glasgow Coma Scale? | 6 |
| What is a "Brain Attack?" | It is another word/phrase for a stroke |
| What are the two types of strokes? | Ischemic (infarction) and Hemorrhage |
| Of the two types of strokes, which one is more common? | Ischemic (About 85% of all strokes) |
| What are the two types of Ischemic strokes? | Embolic and Thrombotic |
| What does the Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen include that the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale doesn't? | Glucose monitoring |
| Symptoms of a TIA usually last how long? | Usually a few minutes or for several hours, but usually resolve completely within 24 hours. |
| A __________________ is a temporary alteration in behavior due to a massive electrical discharge of one or more groups of neurons in the brain. | Seizure |
| A Tonic-Clonic seizure is also known as a: | Grand mal seizure |
| An absence seizure is also known as a: | Petit mal seizure |
| What type of seizures is also known as a "hysterical seizure" and stems from psychological disorders? | Pseudoseizures |
| What type of seizure occurs very briefly (10-30 seconds) and results in loss of awareness, eye or muscle fluttering, and occasionally loss of muscle tone? | Absence |
| The period after a seizure where the patient my be awake but is very confused is known as: | Postictal |
| The phase of a Grand Mal seizure characterized by the tensing of the muscles is known as? | Tonic phase |
| The phase of a Grand Mal seizure characterized by the rhythmic muscle spasms/movement is known as? | Clonic phase |
| The phase of a Grand Mal seizure characterized by extreme muscular rigidity, including the hyperextension of the patients back is known as? | Hypertonic phase |
| A seizure characterized by chaotic movement of dysfunction to one are of the body is known as a _________________ seizure. | Simple partial seizure (also known as a focal motor seizure or a Jacksonian seizure) |
| An ________________ is a subjective sensation that might precede a seizure. | Aura |
| A series of two or more generalized motor seizures without an intervening return of consciousness is known as? | Status Epilepticus |
| Headaches that usually occur one-sided the are sudden and severe and may continue for 15 minutes to 4 hours are known as: | Cluster headaches |
| A vascular headache that can last from several minutes to several days and presents with intense, throbbing pain, photosensitivity, nausea, vomiting and sweats is known as a: | Migraine |
| A headache that patients often awake with and gets worse throughout the day is termed a: | Tension headache |
| A headache that is brought on by a tumor, an infection, or a disease of the brain is known as a: | Organic headache |
| Trigeminal neuralgia is also known as: | Tic doloureux |
| Neoplasm is a term used to describe what? | The growth of a tumor |
| A condition that results from damage or injury to the brain, brainstem or spinal cord and is characterized by burning, aching, tingling, or a "pins and needles" sensation is known as: | Central Pain Syndrome |
| A neural defect that results from the failure of one or more of the fetal vertebrae to close properly during pregnancy is known as: | Spina Bifida (SB) |
Created by:
Krista.anthony
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