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BIOL2210 Exam 2
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Fluid-mosaic model | The model that describes the nature of the plasma membrane; the "mosaic" portion describes the proteins embedded within the plasma membrane, and the "fluid" portion describes the fluidity of the plasma membrane. |
| Golgi body | The organelle that manufactures |
| Granum | Sacs within a chloroplast that contain photosynthetic enzymes. |
| Hydrophilic | "Water-loving" describes the phosphate portion of a phospholipid. |
| Hydrophobic | "Water-hating" describes the fatty acid portion of a phospholipid. |
| Intermediate filament | A type of cytoskeletal filament that anchors organelles. |
| Lysosome | A vesicle that contains digestive enzymes. |
| Matrix | The inner space of a mitochondrion formed by cristae. |
| Microtubule | A type of cytoskeletal filament, the component of centrioles |
| Mitochondrion | The power-house of the cell, contains the enzymes necessary for the oxidation of food into energy. |
| Nuclear envelope | The double membrane that surrounds the nucleus. |
| Nuclear pore | Tiny openings that stud the nuclear envelope. |
| Nucleoid | The region in a prokaryote where the cell's DNA is located. |
| Nucleolus | The darker region within the nucleolus where ribosomal subunits are manufactured. |
| Nucleus | The control center of a cell, contains the DNA. |
| Organelle | A membrane-bounded cellular "organ" that performs a specific set of functions within a eukaryotic cell. |
| Phospholipid | A molecule consisting of a phosphate head and two fatty acid chains that dangle from the head; the component of the plasma membrane. |
| Phospholipid bilayer | The double layer of phospholipids that compose the plasma membrane. |
| Photosynthesis | In plants |
| Pili | Short projections that assist bacteria in attaching to tissues. |
| Plasma membrane | The membrane of a cell. |
| Prokaryote | A cell without a true nucleus. |
| Ribonucleic acid | RNA, the molecule translated from DNA in the nucleus that directs protein synthesis in the cytoplasm; it is also the genetic material of many viruses. |
| Ribosome | A protein composed of two subunits that functions in protein synthesis. |
| Thylakoid | A membranous structure that bisects the interior of a chloroplast. |
| Transface | The side (or "face") of a Golgi body that releases macromolecule-filled vesicles for transport. |
| Tubulin | A protein that comprises microtubules. |
| Vesicle | membrane-bound sphere that contains a variety of substances in cells. |
| Actin filament | A type of cytoskeletal filament that has contractile properties. |
| Chloroplast | Green organelle in higher plants and algae in which photosynthesis occurs. |
| Chromoplast | A plant cell plastid that contains yellow and orange pigments. |
| Cilia | Short projections consisting of microtubules that cover the surface of some cells and provide for movement. |
| Cisface | The side (or "face") of the Golgi body that receives vesicles containing macromolecules. |
| Cytoplasm | All the protoplasm in a living cell that is located outside of the nucleus |
| Cytoskeleton | A network of assorted protein filaments attached to the cell membrane and to various organelles that makes up the framework for cell shape and movement. |
| Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) | The genetic material of a cell that contains encoded instructions for the synthesis of proteins |
| Endoplasmic reticulum | The network of membranes that extends throughout the cell; involved in protein synthesis and lipid metabolism |
| Endosymbiotic theory | mitochondria are the result of endocytosis of aerobic bacteria chloroplasts are the result of endocytosis of photosynthetic bacteria |
| Eukaryotic cell | A cell whose genetic material is carried on chromosomes inside a nucleus encased in a membrane. Eukaryotic cells also have organelles that perform specific metabolic tasks and are supported by a cytoskeleton which runs through the cytoplasm |
| Eukaryotic cells | Protists, Plants, Fungi and Animals, true nucleus with genetic material, has membrane bound organelles |
| The cytoplasm. This includes the organelles and the cytosol. The cytosol is the fluid medium found in the cytoplasm | What is the space between the cell membrane and the nucleus called? |
| Envelope | double layered membrane that has pores for molecular transport |
| Chromatin | thin strand located within nucleus, DNA + protein complex of threadlike fibers that make up the eukaryotic chromosome. |
| Chromosome | Chromatin fibers condense into visible chromosomes during cell division |
| Modifies stores and routes products of ER Alters membrane phsopholipids Targets products for parts of the cell | Function of Golgi |
| Vacuoles | Larger than vessicles |
| Eukaryotic Cells | More complicated cells have: a nucleus, Membrane-bound organelles in cytoplasm, Flagella (if present) have 9+2 array of microtubules |
| Plant & Animal | Two main divisions of eukaryotic cells: |
| Cytoskeleton | Provides structural supportFunctions in motility and motion |
| Intermediate | ________filaments are ropelike assemblies of fibrous polypeptides that support the plasma membrane and nuclear envelope. |
| Microfilaments | Smaller than microtublues, participates in muscle contraction, support localized cell contractions |
| 6.0 to 8.0 pH | pH range of most microorganisms is |
| 6.5 to 7.5 pH- neutrophiles | pH range of most bacteria is |
| Acidophiles | can live in a high acid environment |
| Acidophiles (such as Euglena mirabilis) | lives in an acidic environment as low as 1.0 pH |
| Thermoplasma (Archaea) | lives in an environment 1.2-1.8 pH |
| Psychrophiles- | (cold-loving) can grow at 0 degrees C, and some even as low as -10 degrees C, their upper limit is often about 25 degrees C |
| Psychrotrophs- | (cold-loving) can grow at 0 degrees C to about 30 degrees C. These microbes can grow under refrigeration |
| Mesophiles- | grow in the moderate temperature range, from about 20 degrees C (or lower) to 45 degrees C |
| Thermophiles- | are heat-loving, with an optimum growth temperature of 50 degrees C or more, a maximum of up to 70 degrees C or more, and a minimum of about 20 degrees C |
| Hyperthermophiles- | have an optimum above 75 C & thus can grow at the highest temp tolerated by any organism. An extreme example is the genus Pyrodictium, found on geothermally heated areas of the seabed. It has a temp min of 82o, optimum of 105 C and growth maximum of 110 C |
| Halophiles- | can live in a high osmotic environment (high salt envirnment) |
| Facultative halophiles- | can live in an elevated osmotic environment |
| Barophiles- | Adaptations to High Pressurecan survive in a high pressure environment |
| Xenophiles | Adaptations to Dry Environmentscan live in a very dry environment |
| free radicals = are very dangerous and can have profound effects on any organism | Toxic forms of oxygen form what? |
| Obligate aerobes, Facultative anaerobes, Aerotolerant anaerobes, Microaerophiles | What are the categories for cells that can grow in the presence of Oxygen in Fluid Thioglycollate Media |
| 20 minutes | the generation time for E. coli cultured under ideal condition is |
| 1. Serial dilution 2. Plate count | Direct Method of Assessing Growth |
| Spectrophotometry -based on transmittance or absorption of light | Indirect Method of Assessing Growth |
| Facultative anaerobes, Obligate anaerobes, Aerotolerant anaerobes | What are the categories for cells that can grow in the absence of Oxygen in Fluid Thioglycollate Media |
| Obligate aerobes | The cells that require Oxygen to grow are called? |
| Facultative anaerobes | The cells that grow best with oxygen but can live without oxygen are called? |
| Obligate anaerobes | The cells that can not live in the presence of oxygen are called? |
| Aerotolerant anaerobes | The cells that do not need oxygen and if in the presence of oxygen can nullify the effects of the oxygen are called? |
| Microaerophiles | The cells that require oxygen but only in small amounts are called? |
| The increase in the number of cells, not in terms of cell size, which occurs by cell binary fission. | Because individual cells grow larger only to divide into new individuals,microbial growth is defined as... |
| microbial population, environmental factors, exposure time, microbial characteristics | What are the factors influencing the Effectiveness of Antimicrobial Treatments |
| thermal death point (TDP) | What is the name known as the lowest temperature at which all microorganisms in a solution are killed in 10 min |
| thermal death time (TDT) | What is the name known as the minimal length of time for all bacteria in a solution to be killed. |
| decimal reduction time (DRT) | What is the name for the time, in minutes, in which 90% of all microorganisms are killed at a given temperature |
| boiling, autoclave, pasteurization, dry heat, filtration, low temp, lyophilization, high pressure, desiccation, osmotic pressure, radiation | What are the 11 methods of the Control of Microbial Growth |
| denatures proteins - lethal to bacteria, fungi and viruses after 10 min but some spores may take up to 20 hours to kill -used in restaurants | Boiling control of microbial growth |
| (pressure cooker)-denatures proteins -15 psi at 121 degrees C for 15 min -sterilizes media, glassware, solutions, utensils, equipment -an industrial autoclave is called a retort | Autoclave control of microbial growth |
| -denatures proteins | Pasteurization control of microbial growth |
| (does not sterilize) heat to 63 degrees C for 30 min | Pasteurization-classical method control of microbial growth |
| (does not sterilize) high temperature-short time: 72 degrees C for 15 sec | Pasteurization-HTST control of microbial growth |
| (sterilizes) ultra high temperature: involves heating milk or cream to 138ￂﾰto 150ￂﾰ C for 1 or 2 seconds | Pasteurization-UHT control of microbial growth |
| direct flame, incineration, hot-air sterilization, heat in oven at 170 degrees C for 2 hours | dry heat control of microbial growth |
| sterilization by filtration | filtration control of microbial growth |
| refrigeration (slows growth of bacteria), deep freeze (slows growth to nothing) | low temperatures (do not sterilize) control of microbial growth |
| freeze-drying process of a material & then reducing the surrounding pressure & adding enough heat to allow the frozen water in the material to sublime directly from the solid phase to gas, freeze dry for transport | lyophilization control of microbial growth |
| (kills bacteria), use in a vacuum to preserve the colors and flavors of juices | high pressure control of microbial growth |
| removes water (& let dry out) from microorganisms | desiccation control of microbial growth |
| (salt solution to kill bacteria) used to cause plasmolysis in microorganisms | osmotic pressure control of microbial growth |
| X-rays & UV radiation | radiation control of microbial growth |
| Pyrimidine Dimer (genetic abnormality) | Many microorganisms get destroyed by UV light (interacts with DNA mutation) is known as |
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| lag, log, stationary, death phases | The phases of microbial growth are |
| c. elevated salt levels | Facultative halophiles are adapted to: a. environments with a pH of 1 b. deep sea hydrothermal vents c. elevated salt levels d. alkaline environments e. high pressure environments |
| f. grow in a low oxygen environment | Microaerophiles: a. cannot grow in the presence of oxygen b. die in the presence of oxygen c. are anaerobic organisms d. can grow in the presence of oxygen but do not require it for life e. are strict anaerobe f. grow in a low oxygen environment |
| e. thermophiles | Microorganisms living compost piles where temperatures may reach 60 degrees Celsius are: a. acidophiles b. cold loving microbes c. alkalinophiles d. mesophiles e. thermophiles f. barophiles |
| d. exponential phase | The phase of bacterial growth called the log phase is also called the: a. decline phase b. phase bacteria multiply very little c. death phase d. exponential phase e. stationary phase |
| a. grow only in the presence of oxygen | Obligate aerobes: a. grow only in the presence of oxygen b. grow with a reduced quantity of oxygen c. grow best in the presence of oxygen but can grow without oxygen d. cannot grow in the presence of oxygen e. are all barophiles |
| c. pH 7.0 | Most bacteria grow best at pH: a. pH 0 b. pH 3 c. pH 7.0 d. pH 8.0 e. pH 14 |
| b. grow only without oxygen | Obligate anaerobes: a. grow only in a low oxygen environment b. grow only without oxygen c. grow best in the presence of oxygen but can grow when oxygen is not present d. must require oxygen for respiration |
| c. acidophiles | Acid-loving bacteria are called: a. facultative aerobes b. mesophiles c. acidophiles d. halophiles e. thermophiles |
| c. mesophiles | Most pathogens belong to which group? a. hyperthermophiles b. extreme halophiles c. mesophiles d. psychrophiles e. facultatve halophiles f. halophile |
| b. acidophile | Helicobacter pylori is best placed into which group? a. halophile b. acidophile c. hyperthermophile d. photoautotroph e. alkalinophile |
| c. 20 minutes | Under ideal growth conditions, Escherichia coli has a generation time of about: a. 20 seconds b. 10 minutes c. 20 minutes d. 10 hours e. 20 hours |
| d. under refrigeration | Psychrotrophs grow best in which environment? a. hot springs b. hydrothermal vents c. compost piles d. under refrigeration e. body temperature |
| c. causing plasmolysis | High salt environments have this effect on most bacteria: a. hypertonic b. causes cytolysis c. causing plasmolysis d. causing osmotic lysis e. both a and c f. both b and d |
| b. halophiles | Which group of microorganisms is most likely to spoil tuna preserved with salt? a. psychrophiles b. halophiles c. thermophiles d. acidophiles e. barophiles |
| b. grow in the presence of oxygen, and when oxygen is not present, they grow slower | Facultative anaerobes: a. grow only in the presence of oxygen b. grow in the presence of oxygen, and when oxygen is not present, they grow slower c. can grow in the presence of oxygen, but when oxygen is not present, they die |
| e. mesophiles | Which group of bacteria would pose the greatest risk of disease to humans? a. thermophiles b. psychrophiles c. acidophiles d. hyperthermophiles e. mesophiles |
| c. hyperthermophile | A type of Archaea was isolated from a deep ocean hydrothermal vent. It was classified as a(n): a. psychotroph b. mesophille c. hyperthermophile d. psychophile e. alkalinophile f. autotroph |
| a. facultative Halophiles | Staphylococcus aureus can grow in a 10% salt solution but prefers to grow in a much lower salt concentration. Bacteria with this unique property are called: a. facultative Halophiles b. hyperthermophiles c. microaerphiles d. facultative anaerobes |
| c. spectrophotometer | An instrument used to indirectly establish microbial growth is called the: a. autoclave b. stroodlemeter c. spectrophotometer d. vortex mixer e. heating block |
| d. autoclave | Which method best exemplifies moist heat sterilization? a. filtration b. incineration c. direct flaming d. autoclave e. oven |
| a. classical Pasteurization | The least effective method to sterilize is: a. classical Pasteurization b. direct flaming c. autoclave d. heating in oven at 170 degrees Celsius for two hours e. incineration |
| b. a phenolic | O-phenylphenol is: a. an organic acid b. a phenolic c. a food preservative d. an alcohol e. a halogen |
| b. heavy metals | Oligodynamic action is best illustrated by the use of: a. rubbing alcohol b. heavy metals c. phenolics d. desiccation e. incineration |
| b. iodine | A halogen effective as an antimicrobial agent is: a. 70 % ethyl alcohol b. iodine c. ethylene oxide d. any heavy metal e. organic acids |
| d. o-phenylphenol | The active ingredient in the disinfectant Lysol is: a. nitrates b. surfactant c. organic acid d. o-phenylphenol e. iodine |
| c. a surfactant | An agent that removes bacteria by releasing oily film from the skin is: a. chlorine b. iodine c. a surfactant d. nitrates e. formaldehyde |
| c. kills most bacteria except thermophilic bacteria | Commercial sterilization used in the food industry is best illustrated by which statement? a. kills all microorganism b. use heavy metals to sterilize c. kills most bacteria except thermophilic bacteria d. is the best method of sterilization |
| b. a gaseous chemosterilizer | Ethylene oxide is a type of antimicrobial agent classified as: a. an alcohol b. a gaseous chemosterilizer c. organic acid d. halogen e. food preserver |
| c. filtration | Sterilization of fluids without using heat is best-accomplished by: a. autoclave b. Pasteurization c. filtration d. freezing to 0 degrees Celsius e. none of the above |
| d. dry heat sterilization | Use of the Bunsen burner on an inoculating loop to kill microorganisms is an example of: a. moist heat sterilization b. Pasteurization c. oligodynamics d. dry heat sterilization e. both c and d |
| a. nitrates | Meats are preserved with: a. nitrates b. gaseous sterilizers c. formaldehyde d. chlorine e. tincture of iodine f. phenol |
| c. formaldehyde | Biological specimens are sometimes preserved with: a. heavy metals b. phenol c. formaldehyde d. iodine e. nitrosamines |
| c. Helicobacter pylori | Which bacteria is a human stomach stomach pathogen? a. Staphylococcus aureaus b. Serratia marcescens c. Helicobacter pylori d. Bacillus subtilis e. Staphylococcus epidermidis |
| c. microaerophiles | These microorganisms require low concentrations of oxygen for optimum growth: a. obligate anaerobes b. obligate areobes c. microaerophiles d. acidophiles |
| c. free radicals | Why is super oxide is dangerous because it leads to th e formation of: a. antigens b. stomach ulcers c. free radicals d. food poisoning e. tetanus |
| b. penicillin | Which antibiotic would be the least effective to treat an individual infected with E. coli? a. tetracycline b. penicillin c. streptomycin d. all are effective against E. coli |
| b. lack peptidoglycan in their cell walls | Fungi are not affected by penicillin because they: a. have 80S ribosomes b. lack peptidoglycan in their cell walls c. are nucleated d. have mitochondria |
| b. rifampin | A type of drug effective against nucleic acids is: a. streptomycin b. rifampin c. erythromycin d. gentamycin e. bacitracin |
| c. have an outer wall membrane | Gram negative bacteria are more resistant to penicillin than gram positive bacteria because gram negative bacteria: a. have eukaryotic ribosomes b. are more motile c. have an outer wall membrane d. have RNA as their genetic material |
| d. Sir Alexander Fleming | The individual who discovered penicillin was: a. John Needham b. Louis Pasteur c. Robert Koch d. Sir Alexander Fleming |
| d. streptomycin | If a bacterial ribosome was not permitted to make proteins, which of the following antimicrobial agents would you expect to be involved? a. penicillin b. sulfanilamide c. quinolones d. streptomycin e. phenolics |
| d. changes the shape of 30S portion of the ribosomes | Streptomycin: a. prevents the synthesis of cell wall b. interferes with the synthesis of metabolites c. inhibits DNA synthesis d. changes the shape of 30S portion of the ribosomes |
| d. mimic substrate structure and compete for a place on the active site of enzymes and render the enzyme useless | Sulfanilimides: a. cause injury to plasma membranes b. interfere with the making of RNA by DNA c. inhibit protein synthesis d. mimic substrate structure and compete for a place on the active site of enzymes and render the enzyme useless |
| c. all antibiotics are equally effective against all bacteria | Which statement is not true concerning antibiotics? a. some antibiotics inhibit cell wall synthesis b. antibiotics are antimicrobial agents c. all antibiotics are equally effective against all bacteria d. some antibiotics inhibit protein synthesis |
| d. 38 | When one molecule of glucose undergoes aerobic respiration in bacteria, how many ATP molecules are produced in bacteria? a. 6 b. 24 c. 32 d. 38 |
| b. ATP synthase | The ATP making machine of respiration is: a. proton pump b. ATP synthase c. substrate level phosphorylation d. redox |
| b. remove electrons away from the electron transport system | The role of oxygen during aerobic respiration is to: a. synthesize ATP by substrate level phpsphorylation b. remove electrons away from the electron transport system c. pump protons across the membrane during electron transport d. begin glycolysis |
| a. to bring the acetyl molecule into the Krebs cycle | Coenzyme A is required during respiration for this reason: a. to bring the acetyl molecule into the Krebs cycle b. to make FADH2 c. to pump protons through the electron transport membrane d. to begin glycolysis |
| d. oxygen | The final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain is: a. NAD+ b. carbon dioxide c. glucose d. oxygen |
| d. combined with its coenzyme | A holoenzyme is an enzyme: a. without its coenzyme b. that has been inhibited by a competitive inhibitor c. that does not need a coenzyme d. combined with its coenzyme |
| b. a reaction that breaks down | A catabolic reaction is: a. any synthesis reaction b. a reaction that breaks down c. photosynthesis d. any build up reaction |
| c. a type of coenzyme | All are true about ATP excepta. composed of three phosphate groups b. high energy compound c. a type of coenzyme d. universal energy compound |
| b. three | How many ATPs are produced from one NADH? a. two b. three c. four d. six |
| c. substrate in an enzymatic reaction | The active site of an enzyme recognizes the: a. product in an enzymatic reaction b. noncompetitive inhibitor in an enzymatic reaction c. substrate in an enzymatic reaction d. organic catalyst in an enzymatic reaction |
| b. two | How many ATP molecules are produced from lactic acid fermentation? a. one b. two c. three d. none |
| b. two | What is the net gain of ATP during glycolysis? a. one b. two c. three d. four |
| c. 38 ATP are produced | All are connected to ethyl alcohol production except: a. anaerobic respiration b. fermentation c. 38 ATP are produced d. carbon dioxide is produced |
| b. two | How many ATPs are produced during the Krebs cycle by substrate level phosphorylation when one molecule of glucose undergoes respiration? a. one b. two c. three d. four |
| c. nucleotides | The DNA of microorganisms is made up of subunits called:ￂﾠa.ￂﾠhistones b.ￂﾠamino acids c.ￂﾠnucleotides d.ￂﾠmRNA |
| a. only found in DNA, not in RNA | Which is incorrect about purines?ￂﾠ a.ￂﾠonly found in DNA, not in RNA b.ￂﾠare bases of nucleotides c.ￂﾠalways paired with a specific pyrimidine d.ￂﾠinclude adenine and guanine |
| b. replication | The duplication of a cell's DNA is called: a.ￂﾠmitosis b.ￂﾠreplication c.ￂﾠtranscription d.ￂﾠtranslation e.ￂﾠmutation |
| b. allow DNA polymerase to add the Okazaki fragment to it | The RNA primer required during the replication of DNA on the lagging strand functions to: a. allow DNA polymerase to make DNA in the 3￢ﾀﾙ to 5￢ﾀﾙ direction b. allow DNA polymerase to add the Okazaki fragment to it c. seal gaps on the lagging |
| b. making of RNA by DNA | Transcription is thea. replication of DNA b. making of RNA by DNA c. the synthesis of proteins d. translation of the genetic code |
| b. DNA polymerase | Okazaki fragments are attached to the growing end of the lagging strand by: a.ￂﾠDNA ligase b.ￂﾠDNA polymerase c.ￂﾠDNA helicase d.ￂﾠRNA polymerase |
| d. replication fork | The site where the old DNA strands separate and new DNA strands will be synthesized is called the: a.ￂﾠprimer primer b.ￂﾠOkazaki fragment c.ￂﾠrolling circle d.ￂﾠreplication fork |
| b. guanine pairs with uracil | All of the following pertain to nitrogenous bases except they: a.ￂﾠform pairs by hydrogen bonding b.ￂﾠguanine pairs with uracil c.ￂﾠadenine pairs with thymine d.ￂﾠcytosine and thymine are pyrimidines |
| c. transfer RNA | The RNA molecules that carry amino acids to the ribosomes during protein synthesis are called: a.ￂﾠribosomal RNA b.ￂﾠmessenger RNA c.ￂﾠtransfer RNA d.ￂﾠprimer RNA e.ￂﾠribozymes |
| b. messenger RNA | This molecule is synthesized as a copy of a gene on the DNA template strand: a.ￂﾠribosomal RNA b.ￂﾠmessenger RNA c.ￂﾠtransfer RNA d.ￂﾠprimer RNA e.ￂﾠribozymes |
| e. All of the choices are correct | RNA molecules differ from DNA molecules because only RNA:ￂﾠa.ￂﾠhas ribose b.ￂﾠhas uracil c.ￂﾠis typically one strand of nucleotides d.ￂﾠdoes not have thymine e.ￂﾠAll of the choices are correct |
| e. is part of the process of protein synthesis | All of the following pertain to transcription except it: a.ￂﾠoccurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm b.ￂﾠoccurs before translation c.ￂﾠrequires RNA polymerase d.ￂﾠrequires a template DNA strand e.ￂﾠis part of the process of protein synthesis |
| anabolism | build up process |
| catabolism | break down process |
| ATP Cycle | Transfer of Energy in Reactions |
| special proteins are organic catalysts, reusable structure, does not change, speeds up reactions lowering the activation energy of a reaction, specific in their reaction: (1 enz 1 react), have an active site specific for a given substrate | Enzyme Characteristics |
| apoenzymes | are enzymes that require coenzymes |
| holoenzymes | are enzymes combined with their coenzyme |
| NAD+ nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide, niacin FAD | Coenzymes used during respiration are flavin, adenine, dinucleotide-riboflavin, FMN flavin mononucleotide, riboflavin coenzyme A, pantothenic acid |
| temp, Ph, substrate concentration | Factors influencing reaction rate of coenzyme |
| 254 nanometers | The most damaging frequency of UV to DNA is |
| Thymine and Cytosine | Pyrimidine bases are |
| Thymine Dimers | What is the most common type of pyrimidine dimer |
| Between two adjascent pyrimidine bases | Where do Pyrimidine dimers form |
| Excision repair | A cell can prevent unwanted mutations by removing the vast majority of UV-induced DNA damage at its pyrimidine base. |
| exonucleases | What is the name of the enzyme that cuts DNA at the end of a polynucleotide chain during excision. |
| endonucleases | What is the name of the enzyme that cuts DNA at the begining of a polynucleotide chain during excision. |
| Endonuclease, Exonuclease, DNA Polymerase, DNA Ligase | The process of excision repair is |
| The first break of the backbone where the pyrimidine dimer exists | What is Endonuclease |
| The second break of the backbone where the pyrimidine dimer exists to remove the damaged section | What is Exonuclease |
| Recreates the DNA section | What does DNA Polymerase do |
| Fuses the two free ends of the DNA strand together | What does DNA Ligase do |
| 1. Excision Repair 2. Photo Reactivation 3. SOS Repair | What are the three types of DNA Repair from UV damage? |
| The DNA is replaced but may not be the correct pairing, causing a mutation | What occurs in SOS Repair? |
| Converts dimers back to Thymine in a single step | What does photolyase do in prokaryatic cells |
| 1. UV 2. X-Rays 3. Gamma Rays | What are the three damaging types of radiation |
| A Disinfectant is used on inanament objects where an Anticeptic is used on tissue | What is the difference between a Disinfectant and an Antiseptic? |
| Destroys membranes | How does chemical control of microbial growth work with Phenols? |
| Destroys membranes, but not as distructive as Phenols (used on skin, mucos membranes, and environmental surfaces) ex: O-phyenylphenol | How does chemical control of microbial growth work with Phenolics? |
| Destroys membranes, but not as distructive as Phenols. Used in soaps, toothpaste, hand lotions. ex: hexaclorophene & triclosan | How does chemical control of microbial growth work with Bisphenols? |
| Oxidizing agent that destroys proteins. (Ends in "ine") ex: iodine (topical use for cuts) & clorine. | How does chemical control of microbial growth work with Halogens? |
| Destroys proteins. A degerming agent often used as a swab. ex: isopropyl alcohol & ethenol | How does chemical control of microbial growth work with Alcohols? |
| Destroys proteins, kills microorganisms by Oligodynamic action. ex: silver, mercury, copper, zinc | How does chemical control of microbial growth work with Heavy Metals? |
| Mechanical removal of microorganisms, used to degerm, surface active agents such as soaps and detergents. | How does chemical control of microbial growth work with Surfactants? |
| Protein denaturization, destroys membranes. Used on skin, instruments, utensils, rubber goods | How does chemical control of microbial growth work with Quaternary Ammonium compounds (QUATS)? |
| 1. Organic acids 2. nitrates & nitrites | What are the two types of chemical food preservers? |
| Metabolic inhibitors (usually against mold) ex: sorbic acid, benzoic acid, calcium propionate | How does chemical control of microbial growth work with Organic Acids? |
| Inhibit enzyme action of anaerobes. Forms nitrosamines when cooked which may be carcinogenic | How does chemical control of microbial growth work with Nitrates & Nitrites? |
| Destroys proteins. ex: gluteralderhyde & formaldehyde | How does chemical control of microbial growth work with Aldahydes? |
| Protein denaturization. ex:ethylene oxide | How does chemical control of microbial growth work with Gaseous Chemosterilizers? |
| Causes oxidation by ozone | How does chemical control of microbial growth work with peroxygenes? |
| it has the beta-lactam ring to break down the peptidoglycan wall | Why are penicillins most effective against gram positive bacteria? |
| breaks the beta-lactam ring open, deactivating the antimicrobial properties | What does beta-lactamase do? |
| 1. Penicillin G (injection) 2. Penicillin V (oral) 3. oxacillin, ampicillin, & amoxicillin (semisynthetic) | What are the three types of penicillin? |
| Cephalosporins | What are simillar to penicillins but are more resistant to beta-lactamase? |
| Chloramphenicol | Binds to 50S portion of ribosomes and inhibits formation of peptide bonds |
| Erythromycin | Binds to 50S portion of ribosomes and prevents movement of ribosome along mRNA |
| Tetracyclines | Interferes with attachment of tRNA to mRNA-ribosome complex |
| Streptomycin | Changes shape of 30S portion of ribosome causing the code to be read wrong |
| Polymyxin & ketoconazole (fungal deseases) | Used for injuries to the plasma membrane |
| Quinolones | Inhibits DNA synthesis |
| Rifampin | Inhibits mRNA synthesis |
| NAD+, FAD, FMN, & Coenzyme A | What are the B vitamins used in respiration |
| Compete for the active site of an exzyme and the inhibitor locks out the enzyme and prevents it from producing its normal product | What do competitive inhibitors do |
| Attaches to the active site of an enzyme and changes the shape of the active site preventing the attachment of the normal substrate and threrfore the generation of the product | What do noncompetitive inhibitors do |
| In the mitochondria | Where does glycolysis, krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain take place? |
| top - CsO2, middle - virus, bottom - bacteria | After centerfuge, What order would the CsO2, virus, and bateria be located in the test tube? |
| James Watson & Francis Crick | Who crated the first model of DNA |
| Adinine & Guanine | Which DNA bases are Purines? |
| Thymine & cyticine | Which DNA bases are Pyrimidines? |
| Topoisomerase | What enzyme breaks the backbone of DNA to allow helicase to continue to unwind the DNA for the replication fork? |
| Helicase | What enzyme unwinds the parent DNA? |
| The part of the DNA prior to it splitting for replication | What is the parent strand of DNA/ |
| Proteins | What stabilizes the unwound parental DNA? |
| RNA Polymerase | What creates the RNA Primer from scratch? |
| The leading strand | Which strand is synthesized continuously by DNA Polymerase? |
| The lagging strand | Which strand is synthesized in segments by DNA Polymerase? |
| Okazaki fragment | What is the name of the segments that are a complete sequence that get added to the RNA primers? |
| Three | The tRNA codon is made up of how mand base codes? |
| AUG | What is the start code |
| UAA, UAG, & UGA | What are the three stop codes? |
| Translation | What is the name for the process from DNA to mRNA to protein? |
| Leader Sequence | What is located just ahead of the start codon? |
| The pairings of the DNA codon in the tRNA | What is the anticodon |
| P Site and A site | What are the two sites within the ribosome? |
| A peptide bond | What connects the tRNA in the P site to the tRNA in the A site? |
| 1. DNA coding strand, 2. Transcription into mRNA, 3. Translation to Amino Acid sequence | What is the order of the process for a normal DNA molecule? |
| When the process gets one or more of the amino acids wrong. | What is Missense? |
| When the process gets an amino acid wrong and puts a stop conon. | What is a nonsense? |
| When one block shifts to the end and therefore changes the amino acids and the protein. | What is frameshift Mutation? |
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brian.belson
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