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Micro-U-8,9,10,11

TCC Microbiology (BIOL2164) Unit 3: Topic 8, 9, 10, and 11. Info from BB quizzes

QuestionAnswer
Which of the following is a group of single-celled eukaryotes that lack cell walls and utilize a variety of structures for motility? Protozoa
Which of the following groups is associated with the production of an important greenhouse gas? Methanogens
What is unusual about the mycoplasmas? They do not have cell walls.
___________ is a pathogenic spirochete responsible for syphilis. Treponema pallidium
A mass of entertwined fungal hyphae visible to the naked eye is called a(n): Mycelium
Groups of helminths Tapeworms, flukes, nematodes
Which of the following bacterial groups is known for its production of various toxins and endospores? Clostridia
Membrane lipids with branched hydrocarbon chains are associated with the: Archaea
Corynebacterium do not use... Budding
Which group of algae is most similar to plants in terms of their cell wall composition and the type of chlorophyll they possess? Green algae
Phosphate inclusions known as metachromatic granules are readily visible under the light microscope after staining and are characteristic of members of the genus _______________. Corynebacterium
The roots of vascular plants form associations with fungi called ________, which assist them with absorption of water and minerals from the soil. Mycorrhizae
Why are members of the bacterial genus Rhizobium important? They perform symbiotic nitrogen-fixation.
Agar is derived from the cell walls of which of the following? Red algae
Symbiotic nitrogen fixation is performed by members of the genus ___________, which form nodules in the roots of certain plants Rhizobium
Diseases such as scarlet fever, "flesh-eating" disease, and pharyngitis are associated with which of the following genera? Streptococcus
Which of the following statements accurately represents the defining characteristic that distinguishes protozoa from animals? Protozoa are single-celled organisms whereas animals are multicellular.
All members of the Phylum Proteobacteria are __________ bacteria. Gram-negative
Which of the following is a characteristic of algae? They can be unicellular or multicellular.
Endospores are associated with which of the following bacterial genera? Clostridium
Protozoan conjugation is a mechanism for: Sexual reproduction
Diatoms have cell walls composed of: Silica
Lichen are an association between fungi and which of the following? Green algae or cyanobacteria
Mushrooms (both edible and non-edible) and shelf fungi belong to the division: Basidiomycota
Which of the following bacterial genera is an important source of antibiotics? Streptomyces
Associations between fungi and photosynthetic microbes like cyanobacteria and green algae are called __________________ Lichens
Protozoan merozoites are produced asexually through a process known as: Schizogony
Clostridium does NOT include... Flesh-eating disease
The __________ are fungi that can reproduce via sexual spores sometimes found within fruiting bodies that we call "mushrooms." Basidiomycetes
Yeasts are _____ and classified as _________. Eukaryotic; fungi
The process by which some microbes convert atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia is called _________. Nitrogen fixation
Schizogony is an asexual reproductive process associated with some: Protozoa
A flexible, spiral-shaped bacterium is called a(n): Spirochete
Archaea are rarely pathogenic to... Humans and Animals
Which of the following staining procedures is diagnostic for members of the bacterial genus Mycobacterium? the acid-fast stain
Mycoplasmas are NOT... Extremophiles
A tapeworm's "head" is referred to as the ______. Scolex
What is unusual about the mycoplasmas? They do not have cell walls
Which of the following bacterial genera protects areas of the body such as the intestinal tract and the vagina from invasion by pathogens? Lactobacillus
E. coli is a member of the domain _________. Bacteria
All of the following are sexual spores of fungi EXCEPT: Conidiospores
A monolayer might be found in which of the following? An archaea
A fungus that has both single- and multicellular vegetative forms would be called ___________. Dimorphic
Fungal hyphae that lack walls between adjacent cells are referred to as: Coenocytic
Fragmentation is an asexual reproductive strategy employed by: Fungi
A macroscopic "mat" or "web" of interwoven fungal hyphae is called a(n): Mycelium
A palisades arrangement is associated with which of the following? Corynebacterium sp.
The active feeding stage in the lifecycle of a protozoan is called the: Trophozoite
Hyphae are associated with which of the following? Molds
Which of the following reproductive methods is NOT utilized by molds? Budding
Helminths that have long, segmented, and flat bodies are called: Tapeworms
Which group of algae includes the giant kelp? Brown algae
Ulcers are associated with a species of: Helicobacter
Which of the following is an animal? Helminth
Differences in percent G+C in the genome can still be used to divide the ________into taxonomically coherent groups. Gram-positive bacteria
_______species of helminths have male and female genders. Dioecious
Why are the deeply branching bacteria so named? They represent the earliest evolutionary divergence from the LUCA
Helminths that are unsegmented, ovular, and have oral suckers called: Flukes
"Phages" are: Viruses that infect bacteria
Bacteriophages contain a gene encoding for lysozyme, an enzyme that damages bacterial..... Cell walls
Viral genomes are known to exist in all of the following forms EXCEPT: DNA/RNA hybrid
"Mad cow" disease is caused by a(n): Prion
The delta agent is a defective virus that is incapable of replication unless the host cell is already infected by the hepatitis B virus. The delta agent is thus considered to be a Satellite
Prions are infectious agents composed solely of: Protein
The overall morphology of a bacteriophage is: Complex
All of the following might be produced during the biosynthesis phase of a bacteriophage's replication cycle EXCEPT: An envelope
When entering the lysogenic cycle, bacteriophage replication stops after which of the following steps? Penetration
____ utilize antibodies to detect the presence of viruses in patient samples. EIAs
The clumping of red blood cells due to the presence of a virus is called: Hemagglutination
The first virus to be identified was isolated from a _____ Plant
A virus that infects bacteria is called a(n): Bacteriophage
The term ____ refers to viral specificity for a given type of host cell. Tropism
A virion that is surrounded by a "stolen" portion of membrane from a host cell is said to be: Enveloped
Which of the following is an example of a NAAT? Using PCR to detect the presence of a viral DNA in patient tissue
Clear areas on a seeded bacterial lawn resulting from bacteriophage activity are called: Plaques
Damage to DNA caused by exposure to UV light can sometimes cause a latent prophage to be excised from the bacterial chromosome and return to an active lytic cycle. This process is known as: Induction
A bacterium exhibits a phenotypic change after the genome of a prophage has been integrated into its chromosome. This phenomenon is known as: Lysogenic conversion
Which of the following viruses creates an intermediary DNA molecule reverse-transcribed from its RNA genome? Retrovirus
Antiviral treatments that lack side effects are difficult to develop primarily because ______ Viruses employ host cells for replication
Which of the following groups of viruses is replicated in the cell's nucleus? dsDNA viruses
The protective protein shell of a virus is called the: Capsid
Why do viruses have to infect host cells? They are dependent on the host cell's structures and enzymes for their replication.
Viruses were discovered by: Ivanovski
During the intracellular state, a virus exists solely as: Nucleic Acid
Prions cause disease because they interfere with which of the following phenomena? Protein folding
A virus that is unable to replicate within a host cell unless the cell is simultaneously infected with another specific virus is called a(n): Satellite
The name "Adenovirus" refers to a specific viral _______ Genus
____________ is the phase of the viral growth curve during which viruses have penetrated host cells, but no extracellular virions are yet detectable Eclipse
Animal viruses such as chickenpox and herpes viruses can become dormant in infected cells; this phenomenon is known as __________________ Latency
The enzyme lysozyme is critical for which of the stage of the bacteriophage replication cycle? Lysis
During the lysogenic cycle of bacteriophages, viral DNA is integrated into the host cell's chromosome. This integrated viral DNA is referred to as a: Prophage
Viruses belong to which of the three domains? Viruses are not classified within a domain
Viral spikes are ligands that bind to specific receptors on host cells during the attachment phase of the replication cycle. The spikes of an enveloped animal virus are found on the viral ____________ Envelope
Which type of virus requires reverse transcriptase during its replication cycle? Retrovirus
The genome of which type of virus can act directly as mRNA and be translated to yield protein +ssRNA
Why is lysogeny advantageous to a bacteriophage The genetic material of the phage can be passed on to future generations of cells
Using PCR to detect viral DNA in host tissue is an example of a(n) NAAT
Which of the following would NOT be found as a component of a bacteriophage Envelope
Cold sores reappear periodically whenever the infected human host comes under some form of stress. This is because cold sores are caused by a _________ virus Latent
Observable cellular abnormalities due to viral infection are called Cytopathic effects
The process by which some viruses can inadvertently transfer host DNA from one cell to another is called ____________________ Transduction
The term __________ refers to the number of virions released from an infected host cell when it lyses Burst size
_________ viruses are among the largest known, approaching the size of the smallest prokaryotic cells Pox
Taxonomic groupings of closely-related viral genera are called ____________________, and are given names ending with the suffix -viridae Families
Animal viruses can be cultured in the laboratory using all of the following EXCEPT: Sterile agar plates
Betadine is an example of which of the following? Halogen
A ________ treatment would temporarily inhibit growth of bacteria. Bacteristatic
An experimental disinfectant has a phenol coefficient of 10 against Staphylococcus aureus. What is the most accurate interpretation of this data? The disinfectant is 10 times more effective than phenol.
Which of the following would NOT be bacteriostatic? Autoclaving
Zones of inhibition observed on agar plates are associated with: Disk-diffusion assays
Which of the following are protected when using a class I BSC? Choose ALL correct answers: The environment and the researcher
All of the following are examples of ionizing radiation EXCEPT: Ultraviolet light
Lysol is an example of which of the following groups of chemical antimicrobial agents? Phenolics
All of the following can achieve sterilization EXCEPT: Lyophilization
All of the following have modes of action involving protein denaturation EXCEPT: Surfactants
Pressurized steam is used to kill microbes in a(n) ____________. Autoclave
The D-value for an antimicrobial treatment indicates The time required to reduce the microbial population by 90%
Which of the following procedures is used to test the effectiveness of disinfectants applied to surfaces? Use-dilution test
The lowest temperature required to kill all cells in a broth suspension in 10 minutes is the: Thermal death point
Which of the following could be safely utilized as an antiseptic? 70% ethanol
Ethyl alcohol (ethanol) is most effective as an antimicrobial agent when used at a concentration of: 70%
Liquid nitrogen has a temperature of: -196oC
Sterilization using dry heat requires ______ time and/or ______ temperature as compared to moist-heat sterilization methods. more; higher
A nurse prepares an area of skin for injection by wiping it with an alcohol-soaked pad. Which of the following decontamination strategies is being employed? Degerming
scCO2 is lethal to cells because: They lower ph
Laboratory and home refrigerators have temperatures in the range of: 0 to 7* C
Which of the following is NOT a reliable means of achieving sterilization? Sonication
Chemical agents that are capable of killing most vegetative microbes on a fomite are called: Disinfectants
High temperatures are associated with all of the following microbial control methods EXCEPT: Lyophilization
Which of the following devices is used to sterilize items by exposure to moist heat? An Autoclave
Which of the following are commonly used to disinfect air? HEPA filters and UV light
Membrane filters used to eliminate bacteria 9and larger microbes) have a pore size of ______uM 0.2
Gamma irradiation is a _____method of decontamination Physical
All of the following antimicrobial agents are capable of disrupting the cell membrane EXCEPT: Halogens
All of the following microbial control methods are microbiostatic EXCEPT: Ionizing radiation
All of the following can achieve sterilization EXCEPT: Lyophilization
Soaps and detergents are capable of killing some m microbes by disrupting the structure(s) of __________. membranes
All of the following statements concerning autoclaving are true EXCEPT: Containers should be tightly sealed during autoclaving to ensure their contents are sterilized.
Which of the following processes would be stringent enough to eliminate bacterial endospores? Sterilization
Which of the following chemical agents is associated with the embalming of human remains? Formaldehyde
The time required to kill all microbes suspended in a broth at a given temperature is called the ____________. Thermal death time
Many food preservatives are: Organic acids
Cell lysis due to cavitation is associated with which of the following treatments? Sonication
Ultra-high temperature pasteurization
All of the following antimicrobial agents function by chemically cross-linking and inactivating proteins and nucleic acids EXCEPT: Peracetic acid
Which of the following are protected when using a class II BSC? Choose ALL correct answers: The product, the environment, the researcher
Which form of radiation results in the formation of pyrimidine dimers? UV
The term "sterilization" applies to the removal of all of the following EXCEPT: Prions
Which of the following antimicrobial agents is the most toxic to humans? Alkylating agents
Which of the following would likely be the BEST choice for sterilizing a mattress? Ethylene oxide
Ultra-low freezers used for cryogenic storage of microbes have temperatures less than: -70*
An antimicrobial agent that disrupts cellular membranes would also damage ___________> The viral envelope
Penicillin's mode of action is: Interference with cell wall synthesis
Which of the following drugs is used to treat fungal infections? Nystatin
Beta-lactam antibiotics have an effect on which of the following types of microbes? Bacteria
Which of the following drugs is used to treat helminth infections? Ivermectin
The "magic bullets" developed by Ehrlich for the treatment of syphilis were actually: Arsenic compounds
All of the following are mechanisms by which a resistance gene could be spread throughout a bacterial population EXCEPT: Amination
It is inappropriate to prescribe antibacterial agents to treat colds or flu because: These diseases are caused by viruses
Paul Ehrlich was responsible for initiating which of the following sub disciplines of microbiology? Chemotherapy
The majority of naturally-occurring antibiotics have been discovered from microbes found in________. Soil
Which of the following can contribute to antimicrobial drug resistance? Not finishing a prescription for an antimicrobial Self-prescribing an antimicrobial Skipping doses of an antimicrobial (All of the above)
A series of broth dilution tests is used in which of the following? MIC
All of the following drugs affect the proper function of the ribosome EXCEPT: Polymyxin
Scientist who discovered the first antibiotic, penicillin. Fleming
Which of the following antimicrobials is an anti fungal agent that interferes with membrane structure? Amphotericin B
The majority of antimicrobial agents are _________. Antibacterial
The first widely used synthetic antimicrobial agent was: Sulfanilamide
Which of the following classes of antimicrobial drugs interferes with folic acid biosynthesis in bacteria? Sulfonamides
Which of the following routes of administration produces the highest sustained blood concentration of a drug? Intravenous
Which of the following are microbes commonly involved in superinfections? Candida albican and Clostridium difficile
Which of the following results from the action of cell wall-inhibiting antimicrobials? Cells become more susceptible to osmotic pressure
The E-test determines which of the following? Susceptibility and MIC
Which of the following "superbugs" is resistant to rifampin and isoniazid? MDR-TB
Beta-lactamases are an example of which of the following mechanisms of resistance? Deactivation of an antimicrobial drug
Which of the following drugs is used to treat protozoan infections? Chloroquine
All of the following drugs inhibit protein synthesis EXCEPT: Ciprofloxacin
AZT is used to treat HIV. This drug acts by: Inhibiting nuclei acid synthesis
An MBC test is performed to determine: The minimum drug concentration required to kill a pathogen
The type of antimicrobial drug that would be least toxic to humans is a drug that: inhibits cell wall synthesis
If a patient is immunocompromised, it is important that a ________ drug be prescribed to treat a bacterial infection. Bacteriocidal
The term "resistant" is used to describe the ___________. Pathogen
Which of the following events could be responsible for the acquisition of an antibiotic resistance gene by a bacterium? Conjugation Transformation Transduction (All of the Above)
A patient develops a severe intestinal infection as a result of antibiotic therapy for a respiratory infection. Which of the following is the best explanation for why this occurred? The antibiotic has disrupted the normal microbiota of the intestine.
If you are given a single injection of an antibiotic in your upper arm near your shoulder to treat an infection, then you have been administered an antimicrobial drug via the ______route. Intramuscular
The bacterial enzyme DNA gyros is a target of which of the following drugs? Fluoroquinolones
Which of the following antimicrobial targets is most similar in both bacteria and humans? DNA
AZT is used to treat HIV. This drug acts by: Inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis
Which of the following bacteria are responsible for a superinfection called pseudomembranous colitis? Clostridium difficile
Some drugs that inhibit protein synthesis in bacteria can also be harmful to humans. Why? Eukaryotic mitochondria have 70s ribosomes
Which of the following is NOT an ESKAPE pathogen? Escherichia coli
Tetracycline's mode-of-action is: Interferes with protein synthesis
The majority of naturally-occurring antibiotics have been discovered from microbes found in ________. Soil
Which of the following results from action of cell wall-inhibiting antimicrobials? Cells become more susceptible to osmotic pressure
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