What does the blood transport?

Nutrients from the digestive tract, metabolic waste to organs of excretion, oxyen from the lungs to tissues, CO2 from tissues to lungs, hormones from endrocrine glands. Also maintains normal body Ph and immune system.

What is the viscosity of blood?

4.5-5.5 comared to water which is 1. It therefore has solutes.

what is the Ph of blood?

7.35-7.45. Which is somewhat basic.

Arterial blood is bright red due to high concentration of oxyhemoglobin. Venous blood is darker red due to reduced amounts of oxyhemoglobin.

Define plasma and idenfity its components.

Plasma is the liquid portion of the blood. App. 55% of total blood volume and is golden-yellow in color. Contains sugars, fats, proteins, ions (ionic sodium), gases, nutrients, waste products, hormones.

What is the most common protein found in plasma?

Albumins comprise 60-80% of all blood proteins.

Name three proteins found in the plasma of blood.

Albumin, fibrinogen (blood clotting), gamma globulins (antibodies)

Define formed elements and identify its components.

Cellular portion of the blood. Contains Erythrocytes(red blood cells), leukocytes (white blood cells), and thrombocytes (platelets).

Define and describe erythrocytes.

Red blood cells are the most common blood cell. Biconcave in shape which provides greater surface area for gas exchange. Their shape and fluidity of plasma membrane allows them to deform as they pass through small capillaries.

What does an erythrocyte not have?

Nucleus or mitochondria. Therefore no aerobic respiration and short life span of 120 days.

What is a component of an erythrocyte?

280 million molecules of hemoglobin.

What gives blood is pigmentation?

Hemoglobin is made of 4 polypeptide chains (2 alpha, 2 beta). Their heme moiety contains iron which gives blood is pigmentation and binds to oxygen. 98% of oxygen is transported by hemoglobin.

Define and describe leukocytes.

White blood cells involved in the immune process. They squeeze through capillary pores (dipedesis) to traumatized tissue.

What types of leukocytes are there?

Granular (eosinophils, basophils, and neutrophils).Agranular leukocytes (lymphocytes, monocytes, plasma cells).

What happens to eosinophils (granular leukocytes) during staining?

Affinity for acidic stains and take on a dark red to pink appearance.

What is the volume of eosinophils (granular leukocytes)?

2%-4% of all white blood cells.

What is the volume of basophils (granular leukocytes)?

0.5% - 1% of all white blood cells.

What does a basophil (granular leukocyte) nucleus look like?

Bilobed nucleus. Granules are often so numerous that they obscure the nucleus.

What substances are released during inflammation by basophils (granular leukocyte)?

histamine, heparin, anaphylaxis.

Describe the nucleus of the neutrophils (granular leukocyte)?

polymorphonucleated with usually 5 lobes.

What is the group of chemicals released by neutrophils (granular leukocyte)?

Defensins. They have antibacterial and antiviral properties.

Primarily defunct neutrophils (granular leukocyte).

What is the smallest leukocyte?

Lymphocyte (agranular leukocyte) and is only slightly larger than a erythrocyte. It represents 20-25% of all white blood cells.

What are the two major types of lymphocytes?

B lymphocyte and T lymphocyte and both are involved in specific immunity.

Describe the mechanism of immunity of the B lymphocyte (agranular leukocyte).

Triggered by specific pathagon, transforms into a plasmoblast that divides to form plasma cells, plasma cells secrete antibodies for the specific pathogen.

Describe the mechanism of immunity of the T lymphocyte (agranular leukocyte).

Transforms into a lymphoblast which divides to produce activated T lymphocytes. T lymphocytes produce lymphokines that attract and activiate macrophages. Macrophages have increased phagocytic activity towards the pathogen.

Which lymphochyte (agranular leukocyte) is known as killer and why?

T lymphocytes, because they promote direct pathogenic destruction by invading pathogens and releasing cytotoxic chemicals.

How do leukocytes retain memory?

Activiated T lymphocytes remain in lymphoid tissue where they act as memory cells to elicit a more effective response to subsequent exposure.

What is the largest of the leukocytes?

Monocyte (agranular leukocyte -white blood cell).

What is unique about monocytes (agranular leukocyte)?

They are highly motile and can migrate into connective tissue where they transform into macrophages.

What is the function of a macrophage?

Phagocytosis of cellular debris from normal turnover of cells within tissues. Also important in protecting the body from bacterial infection.

What is the nuclear morphology of a monocyte?

Large eccentrically placed nucleus. Can be kidney shaped to a horseshoe shape.

What is a thrombocyte?

Found in the formed element of the blood. Also called platelets. They are cellular fragments with no nuclei and contain numerous granules.

What are two ways that platelets clot blood?

They accumulate to form a plug in cut blood vessels. They also release chemicals involved in blood coagulation.

Process by which blood cells are formed.

What is each blood cell derived from?

A single primitive cell type called a hemocytoblast (stem cells).

hemocytoblasts (stem cells) divide slowly and replicate to give rise to what five cell types?

Thromocytes (platelets), monocytes (agranular leukocyte), lymphocytes (agranular leukocyte), granular leukocytes, and erythroyctes.

How are thrombocytes (platelets) formed?

Hemocytoblast divides to create a megakaryoblast which divides to create a megakaryocyte which fragments into platelets.

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Animal Physiology II

Edinboro: Dr. Kosko. Final exam

Question	Answer
What does the blood transport?	Nutrients from the digestive tract, metabolic waste to organs of excretion, oxyen from the lungs to tissues, CO2 from tissues to lungs, hormones from endrocrine glands. Also maintains normal body Ph and immune system.
What percent of a human's body weight is made up of blood?	8-10% (5leters in humans)
What is the viscosity of blood?	4.5-5.5 comared to water which is 1. It therefore has solutes.
what is the Ph of blood?	7.35-7.45. Which is somewhat basic.
What color is blood?	Arterial blood is bright red due to high concentration of oxyhemoglobin. Venous blood is darker red due to reduced amounts of oxyhemoglobin.
When centrifued blood separates into what two components?	Plasma and formed elements
Define plasma and idenfity its components.	Plasma is the liquid portion of the blood. App. 55% of total blood volume and is golden-yellow in color. Contains sugars, fats, proteins, ions (ionic sodium), gases, nutrients, waste products, hormones.
What is the most common protein found in plasma?	Albumins comprise 60-80% of all blood proteins.
Which plasma protein is involved in blood clotting?	Fibrinogen.
Name three proteins found in the plasma of blood.	Albumin, fibrinogen (blood clotting), gamma globulins (antibodies)
Define formed elements and identify its components.	Cellular portion of the blood. Contains Erythrocytes(red blood cells), leukocytes (white blood cells), and thrombocytes (platelets).
Define and describe erythrocytes.	Red blood cells are the most common blood cell. Biconcave in shape which provides greater surface area for gas exchange. Their shape and fluidity of plasma membrane allows them to deform as they pass through small capillaries.
What does an erythrocyte not have?	Nucleus or mitochondria. Therefore no aerobic respiration and short life span of 120 days.
What is a component of an erythrocyte?	280 million molecules of hemoglobin.
What gives blood is pigmentation?	Hemoglobin is made of 4 polypeptide chains (2 alpha, 2 beta). Their heme moiety contains iron which gives blood is pigmentation and binds to oxygen. 98% of oxygen is transported by hemoglobin.
Define and describe leukocytes.	White blood cells involved in the immune process. They squeeze through capillary pores (dipedesis) to traumatized tissue.
True or false. Leukocytes are nucleated blood cells that contain mitochondria.	True
What types of leukocytes are there?	Granular (eosinophils, basophils, and neutrophils).Agranular leukocytes (lymphocytes, monocytes, plasma cells).
What does an eosinophil (granular leukocyte) nucleus look like?	It contains two lobes.
What happens to eosinophils (granular leukocytes) during staining?	Affinity for acidic stains and take on a dark red to pink appearance.
What is the volume of eosinophils (granular leukocytes)?	2%-4% of all white blood cells.
What is the volume of basophils (granular leukocytes)?	0.5% - 1% of all white blood cells.
What does a basophil (granular leukocyte) nucleus look like?	Bilobed nucleus. Granules are often so numerous that they obscure the nucleus.
what does the basophil (granular leukocyte) look like when stained?	dark blue.
Which granulated leukocyte is the the least phagocytic?	Basophils
What substances are released during inflammation by basophils (granular leukocyte)?	histamine, heparin, anaphylaxis.
What is the volume of neutrophils (granular leukocyte)?	60-80% of all leukocytes.
Describe the nucleus of the neutrophils (granular leukocyte)?	polymorphonucleated with usually 5 lobes.
True or False. Neutrophils (granular leukocyte) has a poor affinity for stain.	True
What is the group of chemicals released by neutrophils (granular leukocyte)?	Defensins. They have antibacterial and antiviral properties.
Which granular leukocyte is the principal cells involved in the inflammatory process?	Neutrophils
What is pus made of?	Primarily defunct neutrophils (granular leukocyte).
What is the smallest leukocyte?	Lymphocyte (agranular leukocyte) and is only slightly larger than a erythrocyte. It represents 20-25% of all white blood cells.
what takes up the most volume in a lymphocyte?	Round nucleus.
What are the two major types of lymphocytes?	B lymphocyte and T lymphocyte and both are involved in specific immunity.
Describe the mechanism of immunity of the B lymphocyte (agranular leukocyte).	Triggered by specific pathagon, transforms into a plasmoblast that divides to form plasma cells, plasma cells secrete antibodies for the specific pathogen.
Describe the mechanism of immunity of the T lymphocyte (agranular leukocyte).	Transforms into a lymphoblast which divides to produce activated T lymphocytes. T lymphocytes produce lymphokines that attract and activiate macrophages. Macrophages have increased phagocytic activity towards the pathogen.
Which lymphochyte (agranular leukocyte) is known as killer and why?	T lymphocytes, because they promote direct pathogenic destruction by invading pathogens and releasing cytotoxic chemicals.
How do leukocytes retain memory?	Activiated T lymphocytes remain in lymphoid tissue where they act as memory cells to elicit a more effective response to subsequent exposure.
What is the largest of the leukocytes?	Monocyte (agranular leukocyte -white blood cell).
What is unique about monocytes (agranular leukocyte)?	They are highly motile and can migrate into connective tissue where they transform into macrophages.
What is the function of a macrophage?	Phagocytosis of cellular debris from normal turnover of cells within tissues. Also important in protecting the body from bacterial infection.
What is the nuclear morphology of a monocyte?	Large eccentrically placed nucleus. Can be kidney shaped to a horseshoe shape.
What is a thrombocyte?	Found in the formed element of the blood. Also called platelets. They are cellular fragments with no nuclei and contain numerous granules.
True or False. Platelets (thromocytes) have no nucleus but many granules and mitochondria.	True
True or False. Platelets are involved in the process of blood clotting.	True
What are two ways that platelets clot blood?	They accumulate to form a plug in cut blood vessels. They also release chemicals involved in blood coagulation.
Define hemopoiesis.	Process by which blood cells are formed.
What is each blood cell derived from?	A single primitive cell type called a hemocytoblast (stem cells).
hemocytoblasts (stem cells) divide slowly and replicate to give rise to what five cell types?	Thromocytes (platelets), monocytes (agranular leukocyte), lymphocytes (agranular leukocyte), granular leukocytes, and erythroyctes.
How are thrombocytes (platelets) formed?	Hemocytoblast divides to create a megakaryoblast which divides to create a megakaryocyte which fragments into platelets.
Where does the formation of erythrocytes (red blood cells), granular leukocytes (white blood cells), and platelets occur?	Marrow of mainly flat bones such as skull, ribs, sternum, vertebral column, pelvis, and end of long bones.
Where does the formation of agranular leukocytes (white blood cells called lymphocytes and monocytes) occur?	Primarily in the lymphoid tissue, such as the tonsils, thymus, spleen, tissue surrounding digestive tract, and lymph nodes.
Define erythropoiesis.	Formation of erythrocytes (red blood cells). Confinded to the red bone marrow.
Where does erythropoiesis occur?	Red bone marrow. Iron is required for the production of heme.
Where is iron found in the body?	66% is foudn in hemoglobin with the remaining stored in the liver, spleen, red bone marrow, intestine and other tissues.
Define gastroferritan	A gastric protein that combines ferrous iron and transports it to the small intestine where it is absorbed.
Define transferrin	A plasma protein that readily combines with ferrous iron and transports it to the red bone marrow, liver, spleen and other tissues.
Define apoferritan	protein that binds to ferrous iron found in the liver (ferritan) forming a iron-aporferritan complex called ferritan.
Define hemopoietins	Hormones that regulate spcecific blood cell production. Erythropoietin is the hormone responsible for regulating the synthesis of erythrocytes.
What is reponsible for the stimulation of erythropoiesis (red blood cell formation)?	Hormone erythropoietin and male sex hormones (which is why males have more red blood cells).
How are degraded erythroyctes removed?	They become spherical in shape due to osmosis and they leave the body through the liver and spleen. Cell fragments are phagocytized by macrophages. Hemoglobin is degraded into globin and heme.
Define hemostasis	Cessation of blood
What are the three physiological events that constitute hemostasis?	vasular spasm (local vasoconstriction), platelet plug formation, and coagulation
What is the Von Willebrand factor (Factor VIII)?	Factor VII is sticky and coats exposed collagen fibers of a cut blood vessel. The now sticky collagen fibers catch platelets and other blood cells leaving the wound to create the primary platelet aggregation.
Define platelet release reaction	Platelets trapped by the Factor VIII release numerous chemicals at a wound site.
What two chemicals are responsible for the vascular spasm at the wound site that reduces bleeding from the injured vessel?	Thromboxan A2 and serotonin
What is the function of adenosine diphosphate during an injury?	Adenosine diphosphate, sticky like Factor VIII, coats a wound and causes more platelets to aggregate (secondary platelet aggregation).
Define platelet plug?	Created when a blood vessel is cut to stop bleeding (hemostasis). Occurs after primary and secondary platelet aggregration. Factor VII creates the primary aggregation. Adenosine diphosphate creates the secondary aggregation.
Define coagulation	A series of ensymatic reactions in the blood that results in the formation of stabilized fibrin strands at the site of an injured vessel.
What are the two pathways of coagulation?	Extrinsic and intrinsic pathways. Both pathways feed into a common pathway that results in the formation of stabilized fibrin.
How is coagulation initiated in the extrinsic pathway?	Coagulation is initiated by thromboplasatin secreted by tissue cells outside of the blood vessel.
How is coagulation initiated in the intrinsic pathway?	Coagulation is initiated by factors found in the blood vessel.
Describe the common pathway of coagulation.	Each molecule of prothrominase converts prothrombin into thrombin. Each molecule of thrombin converts many molecules of fibrinogen (soluble) to fibrin monomers (insoluble). Fibrin monomers spontaneously polymerize to form long strains of fibrin in plug
What is the most important ion involved in coagulation?	Calcium. Every step of the instrinsic and extrinsic and common pathway involves calcium ions. Enzymes won't work without calsium.
What vitamin is crucial in coagulation?	Vitamin K must be presnt in the liver in order for proteins to function properly.
What happesn after the clot is formed?	Fibrin contracts over a period of several hours. The retraction brings the wall of the cut vessel closer together, tightens platelet plug, and opens the vessel if it has been occluded.
What initiates clot retraction?	Thrombosthenin that is released by platelets.
What is serum?	Plasma without fibrinogen that is extruded from the clot.
Define chelation	The combining of ions with certain heterocylic ring structures so that the ion is held by chemcial bonds from each of the participating rings.
What are examples of chelators?	citrate and EDTA are both divalent chelators.
What is the function of citrate and EDTA divalent chelators?	When mixed with blood they bind up the calcium ions involved in coagulation preventing the formation of fibrin. Anticoagulant
What produces thromoplastin (precursor to the extrinsic pathway)?	Platelets
Define Heparin	A polysaccharide that has been isolated from the liver, lung and other tissues. Produced by mast cells of the liver and basophil leukocytes. Prevents the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin and therefor prevents formation of fibrin. Anticoagulant.
Name four anticoagulants?	Citrate and EDTA (bind up calcium), Heparin (Antithrombin III), Coumarins (restricts vitamin K uptake).
Define coumarin	An anticoagulant with a molecular shape similar to vitamin K. Comarin (warfarin or coumadin) competes with Vitamin K uptake.
What happens when you remove prothrombin from the coagulation process?	Hemorrhaging.
What is an example of a coumarin?	Warfarin or coumadin
Which anticoagulate competes with Vitamin K uptake?	Coumarin
which anitcoagulate binds calcium?	Chelators such as citrate and EDTA
Where is the vitamin K found that is used in the formation of prothrombin and other enzymes involved in the coagulation process?	The Liver.
What are the four phenotypic blood types	A, B, AB, and O
Blood type A has what agglutinogen (antigen) on the membrane surface and what agglutinins (antibodies) in their plasma of their erythrocytes?	Antigen A and Antibody B
Blood type B has what agglutinogen (antigen) on the membrane surface and what agglutinins (antibodies) in their plasma of the erythrocytes?	Antigen B and Antibody A
Blood type AB has what agglutinogen (antigen) on the membrane surface and what agglutinins (antibodies) in their plasma of their erythrocytes?	Both A and B Antigen. Lack A and B antibodies
Blood type O has what agglutinogen (antigen) on the membrane surface and what agglutinins (antibodies) in their plasma of their erythrocytes?	Lack A and B antigens. Both A and B antibodies
What percent of the population has the Rh factor?	85% are Rh + and have the Rh factor on the surface of their erythrocytes
Define erythrobastosis fetalis	Condition in which the erythrocytes of a phenotypic Rh+ fetus are hemolyzed by agglutinins (antibodies) produced by an Rh- female.
What happens to the baby when erythrobastosis fetalis occurs?	The mother produces Rh antibodies that cross the placenta and bind fetal erythrocytes causing hemolytic anemia.
Define polycythemia	Condition in which the blood contains too many erythrocytes. common count is 6 million to 8 million cells per cubic millimeter. Increases blood viscocity and that increases vascular resistence and therfore increases blood pressure.
When does polycythemia occur?	When body tissues become hypoxic because of too little oxygen in the air (high altitude) or because of failure to deviver oxygen to tissues (cardiac failure) blood forming organs produce large quantitites of erythroytes.
True or False. Anemia is a disease.	False. Anemia is not a disease but instead is a symptom of various diseases.
What causes anemia?	Lack of erythrocytes and/or hemoglobin.
What are the symptoms of anemia?	weakness, vertigo, headache, drowsiness, sore tongue, general malaise, dyspnea, tachycardia, palpitation, angina, amenorrhea, loss of libido, and a slight fever.
What are the types of anemia?	Nutritional (iron deficient), pernicious anemia, aplastic anemia, hemolytic anema, hemorragic anemia.
Describe nutritional (iron deficient) anemia.	Most common chronic disease of humankind. Caused by great demand of stored iron than supplied.
What vitamin is required for erythrocyte production?	B12
What are the causes of nutrintional anemia?	inadequate iron intake, malabsorption of iron from the digestive tract, chronic blood loss, pregnancy and lactation, intravascular hemolysis. Treated with oral iron supplements
Describe Pernicious anemia	Caused by the inability of the stomach to secrete intrinsic factor thus reducing the amount of available B12 needed for erythrocyte production. Absorption of Vit. B12 requires the intrinsic factor in the stomach. shot of vit. B12 into the muscles.
Describe aplastic anemia	Caused by the destruction of bone marrow. Causes are chemical agents such as benzene, arsenic, and nitrogen mustards. X-rays and radiation are also causes.
Describe hemolytic anemia	Caused by the rupture of erythrocytes. Caused by defective hemoglobin, defective erythrocyte membranes, parasitic infections, toxins, and antigen and antibody incompatibility.
Describe hemorrhagic anemia	Caused by the serve loss of blood, sever wounds, bleeding stomach ulcers, or heavy menstrual bleeding.
True or false. Iron is always bound to a protein and not found free.	True. Fee form of iron is very toxic.
What causes jaundice?	A build up of biliruben due to immature livers that do not flush this from the system. bilibrun is created during the degredation of hemoglobin in erythrocytes.
What are the steps of erythrocytes degredation?	hemoglobin degrades into globin and heme. Heme degrades into bilibrun when then degrades into urobilogin. All products leave the body through the liver. Urobilogen colors our feces and urine.
Define fibrinolysis	Breakdown of fibrin and clot. Plasminogen (enzyme) activated by tissue plasminogen activator to form plasmin.
What is agglutination?	Clogging of blood vessels.
What is the name of the double membraneous fibroserous sac enclosing the heart and the origins of the great vessels?	Pericardium
What are the functions of the pericardium?	anchoring the heart to surrounding tissue, preventing over-extension of the heart, protection
What is the outer layer of the pericardium called?	parietal pericardium
What is the inner layer of the pericardium called?	visceral pericardium (epicardium)
what is the pericardial space filled with?	pericardial fluid that holds the membranes together and prevents friction.
What are the three layers of the heart wall?	epicardium, myocardium, and the endocardium.
Whate is epicardium made of?	thin outer layer of the heart wall composed of serous and meothelial tissues.
What is the myocardium made of?	cardiac muscle tissue and is very think in the ventricles as compared to the atrias.
What does the endocardium cover?	the valves of the heart and the tendons that hold them
What are the two superior chambers of the heart called?	Left and right atrium
Define auricles	Appendages surrounding the atrial chamber.
What are the two inferior chambers of the heart called?	Left and right ventricle.
Which chambers makes up 2/3 mass of the heart?	Ventricles
What is the name of the wall of muscle that separates the ventricular chambers from each other?	interventricular septum
The coronary sulcus externally encircles the heart and separates whate?	The atrias from the ventricles
What are the sulci of the heart filled with?	fat and coronary blood vessels
What separates the right and left ventricles on the surface ofthe heart?	The anterior and posterior interventricular sulcus
Where is the tricuspid valvue located in the heart?	Has three flaps and is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle.
Where is the bicuspid (mitral) valvue located in the heart?	Has two flaps and is located between the left atrium and the left ventricle.
The tricuspid and bicuspid valves togehter are called what?	atrioventricular (AV) valves.
What are chordae tendinae?	Thin white filaments that connect valvue flaps to ventricular papillary muscles.
What flows through the tricuspid valvue of the right and the bicuspid valvue of the left?	Blood flows from atrial chamber into respective ventricular chamber.
Define trabeculae carneae cordis	irregular folds of the mycardium of the ventricles.
Where are the semilunar valves located?	Between the ventricular chambers and the arteries.
Where is the pulmonary semilunar valve located?	Between the Right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk.
Where is the aortic semilunar valve located?	Between the left ventricle and the aorta.
The right atrium receives oxygenated or deoxygenated blood?	Deoxygenated blood is received from three vessels. superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and the coronary sinus
What is the function of the superior and inferior vena cava?	Superior bring deoxygenated blood from areas superior to the heart to the right atrium. the inferior brings deoxygenated blood from areas inferior to the heart to the right atrium. They are both veins.
What is the function o fthe coronary sinus?	Brings deoxygenated blood from the heart itself back to the right atrium.
Oxygenated blood from the right lung goes where in the heart?	Transported back to the left atrium by two right pulmonary veins.
Oxygenated blood from the left lung goes where in the heart?	Transported to the left atrium by two left pulmonary veins.
Where does oxygenated blood in the left atrium go?	Blood in the left atrium is transported into the left ventricle and then into the aorta.
Where is the left coronary artery located?	Under the left atrium in the coronary sulcus dividing the left atrium from the left ventricle. It divides into the circumflex branch and the descending branch.
Coronary artery divides into what two branches?	circumflex and the descending branches
Where is the circumflex branch of the left coronary artery located?	within the coronary sulcus between the left atrium and the left ventricle.
The circumflex branch of the left coronary artery is responsible for taking blood where?	Left and right atriums.
Where is the descending branch of the left coronary artery located?	Within the anterior interventricular sulcus between the right and left ventricles.
The descending branch of the left coronary artery is responsible for taking blood where?	Left and right ventricles.
Where is the right coronary artery located?	In the coronary sulcus between the right atrium and the righ ventricle.
What are the two branches of the right coronary artery?	posterior interventricular branch and the marginal branch.
Where is the posterior interventricular branch of the right coronary artery located and where is it responsible for carrying blood?	Located within the posterior interventricular sulcus separating the right and left ventricles. It supplies blood to the right and left ventricles.
Where is the marginal branch of the right coronary artery located and where is it responsible for transporting blood?	Located on the anterior surface of the right ventricle. Transports blood to the myocardium of the right ventricle.
Where is the middle cardiac vein located and where does it collect deoxygenated blood from?	the middle cardiac vein is located on the posterior interventricular sulcus and collects deoxygenated blood from the posterior areas of the heart.
Where is the great cardiac vein located and where does it collect deoxygenated blood from?	The great cardiac vein is located on the anterior interventricular sulcus and collects deoxygenated blood from the anterior areas of the heart.
Where is the coronary sinus located and where does it collect deoxygenated blood from?	The coronary sinus is located in the coronary sulcus of the posterior side of the heart. It collects deoxygentated blood from the heart and empties it into the right atrium.
What are the four major parts of the electrical conduction system?	sinoatrial node, atrioventricular node, atrioventricular bundle, and the pukinje fibers
What is the electrical conduction system of the heart?	Specialized cardiac muscle tissue that generates and transmits cardiac action potentials throughout the heart.
What is another name for the sinoatrial node (SA)?	Pacemaker
Where is the sinoatrial node or the pacemaker located?	The SA is in the wall of the right atrium below and lateral to the superior vena cava.
What is the function of the sinoatrial node or pacemaker?	The SA is responsible for the rhythmical generation of cardiac action potentials and for controlling cardiac rate.
Where does action potentials travel once leaving the sinoatrial node?	Action potentials leave the SA node and enter into surrounding muscle fibers and then spread into both atriums and from there to the AV node.
Where is the atrioventricular node (AV) located?	An area of specialized cardiac muscle tissue in the posterior wall of the righ atrium immediately behind the tricuspid valvue and adjacent to the opening of the coronary sinus.
What is the function of the atrioventricular node (AV)?	The function of the AV node is to decrease the conduction velocity of cardiac action potentials prior to entering the AV bundle. The AV node allows the ventricles to contract after the atriums.
Where is the atrioventricular bundle (AV) located?	The AV bundle is located in the superior portion of the interventricular septum, which divides the left and right ventricles. The bundle branches and travels to the apex of the heart and around lateral borders of the ventricles.
What is the function of the atrioventricular bundle?	The atrioventricular bundle and its branches transmit cardiac action potentials to the ventricles.
Where are the purkinji fibers located?	The purkinji fibers branch off the atrioventricular bundle and branches. They innervate the ventricular muscle tissue.
What is the function of the purkinje fibers?	The purkinje fibers transmit cardiac action potentials directly into the ventricular muscle tissue.
What is the sequence of action potentials in the heart?	Sinoatrial (SA) node, Atrioventricular (AV) node, Atrioventricular (AV) bundle, purkinje fibers.
Define Systole	Systole is the period of time when contraction is occuring. There is an atrial and then ventricular systole for each heartbeat. This represents when the atrial and ventricular chambers are contracting.
Define diastole	Diastole is the time when relaxation is occuring. Each heartbeat has an atrial diastole and then a ventricular diastole.
What is the cardiac cycle?	All the mechanical and electrical events that occur in the heart in one heartbeat. The cardiac cycle can be divided into five phases.
What are the five phases of the cardiac cycle?	diastole, atrial systole, isovolumetric ventricular systole, ventricular ejection, and isovolumentric ventricular diastole.
What occcurs during diastole?	All heart chambers are at rest. BP of atrials is higher than BP of ventricles. The AV valves (tricuspid and bicuspid) are open and the ventricles are filling with blood. Semilunar valves are closed since BP is greater in the arteries.
What occurs during atrial systole?	Both atriums contracting. AV valves stay open. *Semilunar valves reamin closed since artery BP is more than ventricle BP.
What occurs during isovolumetric ventricular systole?	Ventricles begin to relax and blood cannot enter or leave the ventricles. AV valves are closed. Ventricular BP exceeds atrium BP. semilunar valves still remain closed since arterial BP is higher than ventricle BP.
What occurs during ventricular ejection?	Blood is ejected from the ventricles into their prespective arteries. The semilunar valvues are now open. *less than 50% of total blood volume ejected from left ventricle.
What occurs during iosvolumentric vengtricular diastole?	Ventricles start to relax and blood cannot enter or leave them. Semilunar valves have closed since ventricle BP is now lower than arterial BP. *The AV valveas are also closed because ventricle BP is higher than atrium BP.
What causes the first and second sound you hear in a heartbeat?	The first sound of a heartbeat is caused by the closing of the AV valves. The second sound is caused by the closing of the semilunar valves.
What are the three different types of membrane channels found on the cardiac muscle fiber resposible for cardiac action potential?	Fast sodium ion channels, slow calcium-sodium ion channels, potassium ion channels.
What is the function of the fast sodium ion channels?	The fast sodium ion channels are responsible for an abrupt increase in membrane potential due to rapid influx of ionic sodium into the muscle fiber.
What is the function of the slow calcium-sodium ion channels?	The slow calcium-sodium ion channels cause the plateau of the cardiac action potential.
What is the function of the potassium ion channels?	the pottasium ion channels open and cause repolarization of the cardiac muscle fibers.
What slows the conduction of cardiac action potentials?	AV nodes and AV bundles slow the cardiac action potentials.
How do the AV nodes and AV bundles slow the cardiac action potentials?	Resting membrane potential of the AV node and AV bundle are more negative than resting potential of other cardiac muscle fibers. Few electrical junctions connect fibers in these pathways which leads to great resistance to the conduction of ions.
Why are cardiac action potentials concentrated at the AV node?	The atrial and ventricular muscles are separated by a fibrous barrier. The barrier prevents the passage of cardiac action potentials except through the AV node.
Where does cardiac action potential travel the fastest?	Purkinje fibers. They have an increased permeability at the gap junctions between cells which increases velocity of transmission. Almost immediate depolariztion of both ventricles allows for simultaneous ventricular contraction.
What is an electrocardiogram or EKG?	Recording of the electrical events of the heart on the surface of the body. Recording of the electrical potentials.
Define P wave	P wave is the period of time when atrial depolarization is occuring.
Define QRS complex	QRS complex is the period of time when depolariztion of the ventricles is occuring.QR - depolarization has spread into the interventricular septum. RS - Depolarization passes from the interventricular septum inot the ventricular muscle mass.
Define T wave	T wave is the time when ventricular repolariztion is occuring.
Define PR (PQ) interval	PR(PQ) interval is the period of time from the beginning of the atrial depolarization to the onset of ventricular depolariztion.
Define PR (PQ) segment	The PR (PQ) segment is the period of time fromt the end of the atrial depolariztion to the onset of the venricular depolarization.
Define ST segment	The ST segment is the period of time from the end of ventricular depolariztion to the onset of ventricular repolarization.
Define arrhythmia	An irregular heartbeat caused by physiological or pathological disturbances in the creation and/or transmission of action potentials through the electrical conduction system of the heart.
What is the sequence of an EKG?	P wave - PR (PQ) interval that includes the PR (PQ) segment - QR - RS - ST segment - T wave
Define bradycardia	A resting cardiac rate lower than 60 beats/min.
Define Tachycardia	A resting cardiac rate greater than 100 beats/min.
What are causes of tachycardia?	Toxic conditions of the heart, excessive sympathetic stimulation of the heart, increased body temperature, hypovolemic shock, weakened myocardium.
If you body increases in temperature by one degree F what happens to your heart rate?	Increases by 10 beats/min
Define atrioventricular (AV) block	Problem conducting action potentials through the AV node.
Define a first order AV block	conduction velocity of action potentials through the AV node is slowed below normal.
Define a second order AV block	Some but not all action potetials pass through the AV node. Dropped beats show up on the EKG.
Define a third order AV block	No action potentials pass through the AV node. The rates of atrial and ventricular contractions become disassociated.
Define fibrillation	Condition in which different groups of myocardial cells are contracting at different times so there is no coordinated pumping action.
Define Ectopic foci	When groups of myocardial cells other than SA node create electrical excitation and contract in respose.
which fibrillation is survivable?	Atrial fibrillation with loss of coordinated atrial contractions. 70% of ventricular filling occurs during diastole before atrial systole even occurs. However, ventricular fibrillation is lethal. Blood is not ejected.
Define cardiac (minute) output	volume of blood ejected from the left ventricle in one minute.
Define stroke volume	volume of blood ejected from the left ventricle per contraction.
Define cardiac rate	The number of heartbeats per minute.
How do you calculate cardiac output?	Stroke volume (ml blood/contraction) X Cardiac Rate (Contraction/minute) = ml blood/minute
What is the average cardiac output?	5250ml/min = (70ml/contraction X 75 contractions/min).
What is end dioastolic volume?	Volume of blood in the left ventricle prior to ventricular ejection.
What is end systolic volume?	Volume of blood in the left ventricle remaining after ventricular ejection.
Is end diostolic volume directly or inversely related to stroke volume?	Directly
Is end systolic volume directly or inversely related to stroke volume?	Inversely. Increased end systolic volume means a lower stroke volume and lower cardiac output.
What is the force of ventricular contraction?	Strength by which the left ventricle ejects blood into the aorta. The force of ventricular contraction is related to stroke volume and cardiac output.
Frank-Starling's law of the heart states that the greater the stretch on a cardiac muscle fiber the...	...Stronger the force of the contraction.
Describe the aortic arch-carotid sinus reflex	Arterial autonomic reflex used to maintain the cardiac rate within normal parameters.
Define laminar flow	Blood normally flowing through all vessels of the cardiovascular system in a streamline manner.
Does the total cross sectional area of vessel segments increase or decrease from the aorta to the capillaries?	Increases
Does the total cross sectional area of vessel segements increase or decrease from the capillaries to the vena cavas?	Decreases
Does velocity of blood flow increase or decrease as total cross sectional area of vessel segments increases?	Decreases.
Where is the velocity of blood flow the slowest and why?	The capillaries because they have the greatest total cross sectional area of vessel segments. This allows for gas exchange.
What creates turbulent flow?	Narrowing of a blood vessel disrupts the laminar flow creating turbulent flow distal to the constriction.
What are korotkoff sounds?	Sounds of disturbed or turbulent blood flow in vessels.
Is mean blood pressure greater in the aorta or the vena cavas?	Aorta.
where is the greatest decrease in mean blood pressure?	Arterioles because they provide a large resistance to blood flow.
Blood pressure is too low in the veins to force blood back to the heart without what?	Skeletal muscle pump with valve system in the veins. The pump is particularly found in medium sized veins.
What causes varicose veins?	Valves in the veins become stretched and do not close properly allowing blood to pool in the veins.
Is there a branching or convergent effect from the aorta to the capillaries?	Branching. The size of the vessels (internal diamter) decreases from the aorta to the capillaries. Capillaries are the smallest vessels.
Is there a branching or convergent effect from the capillaries to the venae cavae?	Convergent. Diameter of vessels increases from the capillaries to the venae cavae.
Where is the velocity of blood flow the slowest?	In the capillaries.
What are the resistance vessels?	Arteries and arterioles. They have very thick walls compared to internal diameter.
Are there more capillaries or arterioles?	Capillaries which is why there is more resistance to blood flow in the arterioles.
Define total peripheral resistance?	the cardiovascular variable that indicates the overall resistance to blood flow through the entire vascular system. The vascular resistance of each organ contributes to the total.
True or false. The total peripheral resistance is always less than that of any organ.	True
Do veins or arteries have valves?	Veins
Where is most of the blood volume carried?	60% of the total systemic blood volume is found in veins. Veins surrounding organs act as a reservoir for blood.
Which are more compliant vessels - veins or arteries?	Veins because they have thinner walls and lack elastic lamina. Veins therefore act as a blood resevoir.
Describe large elastic arteries	Aorta, carotid. Tunica interna with alot of collagen fibers and few elastic fibers. Tunica media with many layers of smooth muscle cells and alot of elastic fibers. Tunica externa with bundles of collagen fibers.
Describe muscular distributing arteries	Well defined internal elastic lamina in the tunica interna (intima) and a diffuse external elastic lamina in the tunica externa. Few elastic fibers in the tunica media.
Describe arterioles	Thin tunica interna with a thin internal elastic lamina. Tunica media has one to six layers of smooth muscle cells and NO elastic fibers.
Describe venules	Tunica interna has NO elastic fibers. Thin tunica media. Poorly defined tunica externa.
Describe collecting vein	Tunica interna is defined and can fold when vein is empty. Tunica media is very thin and consists of one to two layers of smooth muscle cells. Tunica externa is thick and filled with collagen fibers.
Why are venules and veins more compliant than arteries?	The lack of elasticity in their walls allows them to undergo significant volume changes in response to slight changes in blood pressure.
Describe large muscular veins	Thin tunica interna with occasional elastic fibers. Tunica media with several circular layers of smooth muscle separated by collagenous connective tissue and few elastic fibers.
Define microcirculation	The portion of the cardiovascular system concerned with the exchange of gases, fluids, nutrients, and metabolic waste products between the blood and the tissues.
What do precapillary sphincter muslces do and where are they located?	They regulate blood flow within the capillary bed and are located at the juction of the arterioles and the capillaries.
What are the vessels in order from the left ventricle to the right ventricle?	left ventricle, aorta, arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins, venae cavae, right ventricle
Where do you find continuous capillaries?	muscle tissue, adipose tissue, CNS.
What are three classifications of capillaries?	continuous, fenestrated, discontinuous (sinusoidal)
Where do you find fenestrated capillaries?	endocrine glands and kidneys. Are great for moving things in and out of blood since they contain pores.
Where do you find discontinuous (sinudoidal) capillaries?	Liver and spleen
Does a capillary have smooth muscle tissue?	No, smooth muscle is only located at the base of capillary coming off the arteriole where the precapillary sphincter muscle is located.
Define autoregulation	Adjustment of blood flow in the capillary beds in a given region in response to the particular needs of tissues.
What is Frank-Starling's Law of the Heart?	The greater the stretch on a cardiac muscle fiber the stronger the force of the contraction.
Where is filtration the greatest in a capillary bed?	At the arterial end of the capillary.
Where is reabsorption the greatest in a capillary bed?	At the venous end of the capillary.
Define transcapillary filtration	Movement of fluid and dissolved substances from the blood, across the capillary membrane to the space between the interstitial cells.
Define transcapillary reabsorption	Movement of fluid and dissolved substances from the spaces between interstitial cells, across the capillary membrane, into the blood.
Define intracapillary hydrostatic pressure (ICHP)	force that blood under pressure exerts against the capillary wall. 35 mm Hg of pressure at the arterial end of a capillary and 15 mm Hg of pressure at the venous end.
Define interstitial hydrostatic pressure (IHP)	The force that hemolymph (interstitial fluide between cells) under pressure exerts against the capillary wall. Very low pressure = 1 mm hg.
Define plasma osmotic pressure (POP)	Strength of attraction by which blood draws hemolymph from the interstitium, across the capillary membrane, into the blood. Ave. 28 to 30 mm Hg.
Define interstitial osmotic pressure (IOP)	Strenght of attraction by which the hemolymph pulls fluids and dissolved substances from the blood across the capillary membrane inot the interstitium. App. 4 mm Hg.
How can you calculate the net effective filtration pressure (NEFP)	(ICHP + IOP) - (POP + IHP)
Relaxation of the precapillary sphincter muscle increases or decreases the intracapillary hydrostatic pressure?	Increases which allows for filtration along the capillary.
Contraction of the precapillary sphincter muscle increases or decreases the intracapillary hydrostatic pressure?	Decreases which allows for reabsorption along the capillary.
Define Edema	A local or generalized condition in which the body tissues conatin an excessive amount of hemolymph (tissue fluid).
When does reabsorption begin in blood vessels?	When we see a negative net effective filtration pressure.
What causes systemic edema?	High blood pressure which leads to higher intercapillary hydrostatic pressure which leads to little or no reabsorption and therefore excessive filtration.
Define the respiratory system	The organs involved in the exchange of gases between the organism and the atmosphere.
The anterior portion of the nasal septum is made of...	hyaline cartilage. The rest of the septum is made of bone.
What are nasal conchae?	scroll like bones and include the superior, middle and inferior conchae.
Where are the superior, middle and inferior concha located?	Superior and middle extend from the lateral side of the ethmoid bone. The inferior is a facial bone.
What are the four paranasal sinuses?	frontal, sphenoidal, maxillary, ethmoidal.
What tissue type makes up the nasal mucosa?	pseudostratified ciliated columnar with numerous goblet cells.
What is the pharynx?	A respiratory passage that starts inferior to the internal nose and extends to the larnyx.
How is the pharynx divided?	nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx.
Which parts of the pharynx serve as common passageway for both food and air?	oropharynx and laryngopharynx.
What is the order of pharynx sections from top to bottom?	nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx.
Where is the nasopharynx located?	Posterior to the internal nasal cavity and extends to the level of the soft palate. It exposed to the external environment. Adenoids and tonsils are attached to the posterior wall.
Where is the oropharynx located?	Posterior to the oral cavity and between the soft palate and hyoid bone.
Where is the laryngopharynx located?	Lies between the hyoid bone and the esophagus.
What is the larynx?	Short passageway that connects the pharynx to the trachea. composed of nine pieces of cartilage.
What is the largest piece of cartilage in the larynx?	The thyroid cartilage. More distinct in males than in females.
Where is the epiglotis of the larynx?	Leaf shaped piece of cartilage lying on top of the larynx. Part of the epiglotis is attached to the thyroid cartilage.
What are the names of the larynx cartilages?	Thyroid, cricoid, arytenoid (2), corniculate (2), cuniform (2), and epiglottis
What is the function of the epiglottis?	A portion of the epiglottis is attached to the thyroid cartilage. A free portion can then move. Swallowing elevates the larynx and the epiglottis forms a cap over the larynx.
where are the vocal cords located?	In the larynx.
which part of the lower respiratory tract is not lined with pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium?	The vocal cords are lined with stratifed squamous which is better suited to handle the frictional stress.
Do vocal cords help to protect the lower respiratory tract from foreign bodies?	yes, they block entry.
Which larynx cartilage forms a ring?	cricoid cartilage is a ring of cartilage froming the inferior walls of the larynx.
Define the trachea	Tubular passageway for air that starts inferior to the larynx and goes to where the airway branches into the right primary bronchus and the left primary bronchus. The trachea is located immediately anterior to the esophogus
What keeps the trachea airway open?	hyaline cartilage rings that are incomplete on their posterior side?
Why are the hyaline cartilage rings incomplete in the trachea?	This allows for the esophugus to expand into the trachea during deglutition. Trachealis muscles contract and reduce the tracheal diameter therfore increasing the intrathoracic pressure during coughing.
Where and what is the carina?	An internal ridge in the airway where the trachea branches into the right and left primary bronchus. The mucous of the carina is sensitive to irritation and is associated with the cough reflex.
The left or right lung has the cardiac notch where the heart is located?	Left.
What is the hilus of the lungs?	Located on the mediastinal surface it is the area where all vessels and nerves exit and enter the lungs.
What separates the left superior and inferior lobe of the left lung?	Oblique fissure.
What are lobes called in the right lung of humans?	Superior, medial and inferior
What separates the superior and medial lobe of the right lung?	The horizonatal fissure
What separates the medial lobe and the inferior lobe of the right lung?	Oblique fissure
What is the parietal pleura?	Inner lining of the thoracic wall.
What is the visceral pleura?	Outer lining of the lungs.
True or False? The visceral pleura has fibrous connective tisse with a lot of collagena and elastic fibers.	True
What is the pleural space?	Fluid filled space that separates the parietal and visceral pleura. Movement of the thoracic wall results in contaction and expansion of the lungs.
How many generations does each lung have?	23 generations.
What is a lung generation?	When an airway branches into two airways.
What are the two zones of the lung airways?	Conduction zone (generation 1-16) and the respiratory zone (generations 17-23).
What is the purpose of the lung conduction zone?	Generations 1-16 serve to conduct air to the deeper respiratory passages.
What is the purpose of the lung respiratory zone?	Generations 17-23 are where gas exchange occcurs between the atmoshphere and the blood.
What generation do the bronchi comprise?	Generation 1-4 of the conduction zone. As the generation number increases the epithelium decreases in height. Bands of hyaline cartilage surround each bronchus.
What generation do the bronchioles comprise?	Generation 5 through 16 of the conduction zone. As the generation number increases the bronchioles diameter decreases.
What is the terminal bronchioles?	Generation 16 and the end of the conduction zone.
What cells comprise the mucous membrane of the bronchioles?	simple columnar epithelium that changes to simple cuboidal as the generation increases. Globet cells decrease as generation number increases.
What generation do the respiratory bronchioles comprise?	Generation 17-19 of the respiratory zone. The epithelium is simple cuboidal with more noncilieated cells.
What generation do the alveolar ducts comprise?	Generation 20 through 22 of the respiratory zone. The ducts open into alveolar sacs. Made of smooth muscle cells with collagen and elastic fibers.
What generation do the alveolar sacs comprise?	Generation 23 of the respiratory zone.
What are the alveolar sacs?	Distended spaces that give rise to several alveoli.
What are the cell types that make up the alveolar epithelium?	Type I alveolar cells (squamous) and Type II alveolar cells (surfactant secreting cells).
what covers the external surace of the alveolus?	A network of pulmonary cappillaries.
Type II alveolar (surfactact) cells in the alveolar epithelium are responsible for what?	The secreted surfactant is responsible for reducing alveolar surface tension.
What are the names of the branches from generation 1 to 23.	Bronchi (Generation 1-4), Bronchioles (Generation 5-16), Respiratory bronchioles (Generation 17-19), Alveolar ducts (Generations 20-22), Alveolar sacs (generation 23).
What is the respiratory membrane?	Tissue separating the lumen of the pulmonary capillary from the alveolar lumen.
What is the average thickness of the respiratory membrane?	0.5 micrometers. This thin membrane easily allows diffusion of gases between the atmosphere and the blood.
What is pulmonary circulation?	Flow of blood from the right ventricle of the heart, to the lungs, and back to the left ventricle of the heart.
Pulmonary circulation can be divided into what types of circulation?	Arterial circulation, capillary circulation, and venous circulation.
What is pulmonary arterial circulation?	Flow of the blood from the right ventricle of the heart to the pulmonary capillary beds surrounding the alveoli
What is the pathway of blood flow in the pulmonary arterial circulation?	Deoxygentated blood is pumped from the right ventricle, into the pulmonary trunk, and into the right and left pulmonary artery, the pulmonary arteries divide into branches that follow the airways and terminate in a dense capillary network on the alveoli.
Where are the pulmonary capillaries?	A network that surrounds the walls of the alveoli. The pulmonary capillary network is the site of external respiration. Pulmonary capillaries collected into pulmonary veins.
What returns oxygenated blood to the left atrium of the heart?	Two large pulmonary veins.
Where can you find the right pulmonary artery?	Runs horizontally outward behind the ascending aorta and the superior vena cava where it divides into two branches. The lower branch supplies blood to the middle and inferior lobes of the right lung. The higher branch supplies blood to superior lobe.
Where can you find the left pulmonary artery?	Passes horizontally in front of the descending aorta to the root of the left lung where it branches.
Define compliance	A measure of the ease with which a structure can be deformed in response to a force, only to recoil back to its original shape when the force is removed.
Define elasticity	The ability of the lung to return to its initial size after distension. The greater the elasticity the greater the lung compliance. Elastic fibers found in the visceral pleura of the lung cause the lung to be elastic.
Define surface tension	A condition at a liquid-air interface that causes the surface to act as a stretched rubber membrane. A water-air interface is present on each alveolus. Increased surface tension lowers lung compliance.
What causes surface tension?	Mutual attraction of the liquid molecules to each other that produces a cohesive state that causes the liquid to assume a shape presenting the smallest surface area to the surrounding medium.
What is surfactant?	Type II alveolar cells produce surfactant (lipoprotein). Reduces alveolar surface tension and therefore increases lung compliance. Surfactant is produced at eight months of gestation.
What is respiration?	Exchange of gases between an organism and the medium in which it lives.
What are the four basic processes of respiration?	Pulmonary ventilation, external respiration, internal respiration, and cellular respiration.
Define pulmonary ventilation	Process of breathing, the ability to inspire and expire air from the lungs.
What pressures account for pulmonary ventilation?	intrapulmonary pressure, intrapleural pressure, and atmosheric pressure.
Define intrapulmonary pressure	Pressure inside the lung. Inspiration - Pressure must be less than surrounding atmosphere. Expiration - pressure must be greater than surrounding atmospheric pressure.
Define intrapleural pressure	Pressure in the thoracic cavity.
True of False intrapleural pressure is always subatmospheric in intact animals.	True. The intrapleural pressue is less than intrapulmonary pressure allowing the lungs to expand and fill most of the thoracic cavity.
What does a pneumothorax (hole in the chest wall) cause to the intrapleural pressure?	The intrapleural pressure rises to atmpospheric pressure. As a result the lungs collapse.
What does Boyle's Law state?	The intrapulmonary pressure is inversely proportional to the volume of the lung.
What muscles are used during inspiration?	Contraction of the diaphragm and the external intercostal muscles. Lung volume increases, Pulmonary pressure is less than atmospheric pressure and air rushes in.
Is normal expiration a passive or active process?	Passive.
Is normal inspiration a passive or active process?	Active
What part of the brain regulates pulmonary ventilation?	Medulla oblongata and pons.
What are the areas of the medulla oblongata involved in pulmonary ventilation?	Inspiratory area and expiratory area
What are the two centers of the pons involved in pulmonary ventilation?	Pneumotaxic center and apneustic center
What is the function of the pneumotaxic center of the pons?	Helps coordinate the transition between inspiration and expiration. Transmits neural info. that inhibits the inspiratory area of the medulla before the lungs become too extended.
What is the function of the apneustic center of the pons?	Sends stimulatory information to eh inspiratory area of the medulla that helps activate and prolong inspiration as long as the pneumotaxic center is inactive.
Does the pneumotaxic or apneusitc center override the other?	The pneumotaxic center overrides the apneustic center.
What kind of receptors found in the bronchi and bronchioles neural information for the medulla and pons?	Stretch receptors located in the walls of the brochi and bronchioles.
What happens when stretch receptors are activiated in bronchi and brochioles?	Inhibitory neural info is transmitted to inspiratory area of the medulla and the apneustic center of the pons preventing overinflation of the lungs.
True or false. The cerebrum can voluntarily inhibit or alter the activity of the inspiratory area or change the rate in which it generates stimulatory info.	True
How is the respiratory center of the brain controlled?	Stretch receptors and chemical regulatory mechanisms (chemoreceptors).
Are the aortic and carotid bodies sensitive to increases in CO2 or O2 partial pressures?	CO2.
What are aortic and carotid bodies	Chemoreceptors that monitor the partial pressure of CO2, H, and O2. They are more sensitive to partial pressure increases of CO2.
What activates the aortic and carotid bodies?	A large drop in O2 partial pressure in the blood.
Define hypercapnia	Excessive amounts of carbon dioxide in the blood.
The chemosenstive area of the medulla oblongat is sensitive to..,.	only to the parial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood.
What occurs when chemoreceptors detect large amounts of CO2 in the blood	Hyperventilation.
Define external respiration	Exchange of gases between the atmosphere and the blood. This occurs across the respiratory membrane separating the lumen of the pulmonary capillary and the alveolar lumen.
Which is more soluable CO2 or O2?	CO2
why is a greater partial pressure gradient between the blood and the alveolar lumen needed for O2.	O2 is less soluble.
Most oxygen in that blood is transported attached to what?	Hemoglobin
What can cause the oxygen dissociation curve to shift to the right?	Increase in temperature of the blood, increase in partial pressure of CO2 in the blood, decrease in the pH of blood.
What is promoted when the oxygen dissociation curve is shifted to the right?	Unloading of oxygen from hemoglobin.
What can cause the oxygen dissociation curve to shift to the left?	Decrease in blood temperature, decrease in partial pressure of CO2 in the blood, increase in blood PH.
What is promoted when the oxygen dissociation curve is shifted to the left?	Loading of oxygen to hemoglobin.
What forms carbonic acid?	In the pulmonary capillary ionic bicarbonate diffuses from the plasma into the erythrocyte combining with ionic hydrogen.
What is internal respiration?	Exchange of gases between the blood and the tissues.
What is the aortic arch-carotid sinus reflex respective to the heart?	arterial autonomic reflex used to maintain the cardiac rate within normal parameters.
The cardioaccelerator center of what part of the brain can be stimulated to increase cardiac rate?	Medulla oblongata (sympathetic nervous system).
Neurons from the cardioaccelerator center of the medulla oblongata release what chemical to increase the resting membrane potential of the SA and AV node?	Norepinephrine
What does norepinephrine do the heart?	Increases the firing rate of the SA node and increases the conduction velocity of the action potentials through the AV node.
What in the brain is stimulated to decrease the cardiac rate?	cardioinhibitory center of the medulla oblongata.
What chemical is released by the cardioinhibitory center of the medulla oblongata?	acetylcholine
How does the carotid sinus-aortic reflex of the medulla oblongata work?	Baroreceptors, located in the vessel walls of the aortic arch and carotid sinus send neural information to the medulla oblongata.
What effect does ionic potassium have on the heart?	Decrease in the force of ventricular contraction and decrease in cardiac rate. Can lead to arrhythmia and death.
What effect does ionic calcium have on the heart?	The heart goes into spastic contraction. A decrease in ionic calcium decreases the force of contraction and the cardiac rate.
What is the effect of pilocarpine on the heart?	Mimic parasympathetic NS. Attaches to muscarinic cholinergic receptors and decreases the cardiac rate.
What is the effect of atropine on the heart?	Blocks muscarinic acetylcholine receptors and inhibits the parasympathetic stimulation. The cardiac rate and force of contraction increases.
what is the effect of epiniphrine on the heart?	Mimics the sympathetic nervous system. Increases the force of contraction and the cardiac rate.
What is the effect of digitalis?	Increasing cardiac output by increasing the force of ventricular contraction. Increases ionic sodium and therefore ionic calcium available. Used in treatment of heart failure.
What is the effect of caffeine on the heart?	Stimulates the CNS and is a diuretic. Magnifies the effects of NE. Increases cardiac rate, the force of contraction, and formation of ectopic foci.
True or False: The aortic and carotid bodies are chemoreceptors located in the aortic arch and carotid sinus.	True
What ions do the aortic and carotid bodies detect?	carbon dioxide and hydrogen ions.
When does circulatory shock occur?	When there is inadequate blood flow/oxygen utilization by the tissues.
What are the symptoms of circulatory shock?	drop in BP, weak and rapid pulse, cool and clammy skin, sweating, reduced urine output, acidosis, thirst and tachycardia.
Describe hypovolemic shock	Severe drop in blood pressure in response to severe blood loss or dehydration.
Describe anaphylactic shock	Severe drop in BP caused by systemic vasodilation in response to an allergic reaction.
Describe neurogenic shock	rapid drop in BP in response to a decrease in sympathetic tone as a result of spinal damage or improper spinal anesthesia.
Describe cardiogenic shock	Drop in BP in response to cardiac failure.
Does mild or severe shock cause its own progression?	Severe
What is the normal PH of arterial blood?	7.35-7.45
Which organs regulate the blood concentration of bicarbonate and partial pressure of carbon dioxide respectively?	Kidney and the lungs
Is the partial pressure of carbon dioxide going up or down during respiratory acidosis?	Increasing.
How is respiratory acidosis corrected?	Renal nephrons reasorb ionic bicarbonate increasing the plasma level of bicarbonate (buffer).
Is the partial pressure of carbon dioxide going up or down during respiratory alkalosis?	Decreasing
how is respiratory alkalosis corrected?	Kidneys excrete ionic bicarbonate and reduce plasma level of bicarbonate.
What is metabolic acidosis?	Blood pH < 7.35 caused by decrease in plasma ionic bicarbonate. Diabetes mellitus metabolizes fats and releases acids. Severe diarrhea is also a cause.
What is metabolic alkalosis?	When blood pH is > 7.45 cuased by an increase in ionic bicarbonate in the plasma. Vomitting results in a loss of stomach acids.
What is the major effect of acidosis?	Depression of the CNS. A pH below 7.0 and an individual can become disoriented and lapse into a coma.
What is the major effect of alkalosis?	Excitation of the CNS and PNS. Extreme nervousness and convulsions.
What are the accessory organs of the digestive system?	Teeth, tongue, oral cavity, salivary glands, liver and pancreas.
What makes up the gastrointestinal tract (GI) or alimentary canal?	oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine and large intestine.
What are the four major layers of the GI tract?	Mucosa (inner adjacent to lumen), submucosa (layer of connective tissue), muscularis (circular layer of smooth muscle surrounded by longitudinal layer), serosa (tough connective tissue).
What is included within the mucosa of the GI tract?	Inner layer adjacent to the lumen. Includes epithelial lining, connective tissue layer called lamina propria, and thin layer of smooth muscle called mucosa muscularis.
What are the layers of the GI tract from the inside towards the outside?	Mucosa, Submucosa, Circular muscalaris, longitudinal muscularis, serosa.
The submucosa contains what types of vessels?	Blood and lymphatic vessels.
In the muscularis layer of the GI tract where is the smooth muscle located in respect to the longitudinal muscle?	The smooth muscle is surrounded by the longitudinal muscle.
What is mastication?	Chewing
What is the fauces?	Posterior opening of the oral cavity into the throat.
What are the salivary glands?	Three exocrine glands that secrete saliva into the oral cavity.
What are the three exocrine salivary glands?	parotid gland, submandibular gland, cublingual gland.
Define the urinary system	Organs and ducts participating in the production, secretion and eliminatiuon of urine.
Is the right or left kidney slightly lower than the other?	The right kidney is slightly lower than the left.
Where do you find the hilus in the urinary system?	Concave border of each kidney.
What is the renal capsule?	Connective tissue surrounding the kidney.
What makes up the renal medulla?	Renal pyramids and renal columns.
What are the renal calyces?	renal sinuses that collect urine excreted from the renal pyramids.
Urine collects in minor calyces and then in major calyces to then drain into an expanded sinus called what?	renal pelvis
what is a nephron?	functional units of the kidney made up of a "ball-like" structure called the renal corpuscle and a convoluted tubles called the renal tubule.
Is the renal corpuscle located in the renal medulla or the cortex?	Renal cortex.
What makes up the renal corpuscle?	glomerular (bowman's) capsule and the glomerulus.
Where is the glomerulus located in the renal corpuscle?	It is a fenestrated capillary plexus in the center of the renal corpuscle.
What are the two layers of the glomerular capsule called?	parietal and visceral
Describe the visceral layer of the glomerular capsule.	composed of podocytes that surround the glomerulus. The podocytes have cytoplasmic appendages called pedicels. Between the pedicels are filtration slits.
What are the four segments of the renal tubule?	proximal convoluted tubule, descending loop of henle, ascending loop of henle, distal convoluted tuble, and collecting ducts
Where is the proximal convoluted tubule located and what type of cells is it made of?	Located in the renal cortex. The epithelium is simple cuboidal.
Where is the loop of henle located and what type of cells is it made of?	Located in the renal medulla pyramid. Descending (thin) is simple squamous. Ascending (thick) is simple cuboidal
Where is the distal convoluted tubule located and what type of cells is it made of?	Located in renal cortex and simple cuboidal.
Where is the collecting duct located and what type of cells is it made of?	Pass down the medulla of the renal pyramid and simple cuboidal.
What are the two types of kidney nephrons?	Cortical and juxtameduallary nephrons
Describe cortical nephrons	Have short loops of Henle that slip slightly down into the renal medulla or may never enter the renal medulla at all.
Describe juxtamedullary nephrons	Have long loops of henle that extend to the apex of the renal pyramid. They maintain the renal interstitial solute concentration gradient.
Which arteriole is bigger in the renal corpuscle?	Afferent is bigger than efferent. This helps to maintain systemic blood pressure.
What is the order of artery branching from the aorta into the kideny?	Aorta, renal artery, segmental arteries, interlobar arteries, arcuate arteries, interlobular arteries
which kidney arteries travel down the renal columns and which arteries invade the renal cortex?	Interlobar and Interlobular
What branches off the interlobular arteries and enters the renal corpuscle giving rise tro the glomerulus?	afferent arterioles
What carries blood away from the renal corpuscles?	Efferent arterioles
Where can you find peritubular capillaries?	They branch from the efferent arterioles and surround the renal tubles of the nephrons.
What are vasa recta?	Capillaries that branch off the efferent arterioles and surround renal tubules of juxtamedullary nephrons.
Where does blood in the peritubular capillaries and the vasa recta go?	Leaves the kidney by entering interlobular veins.
What is the sequence of the kideny veins from the efferent arteriole?	Interlobular veins, arcuate veins, interlobar veins, segmental veins, renal vein, inferior vena cava.
What is the juxtaglomerular apparatus?	A structure formed when the distal convoluted tubule of a nephron comes in close association to the afferent and efferent arterioles entering and leaving its renal corpuscle, respectively.
What are juxtaglomerular cells?	Modified muscle cells of the afferent and efferent arterioles adjacent to the distal convoluted tubule.
What are macula densa?	Slender epithelial cells of the distal convoluted tubule adjacent to the afferent and efferent arterioles. A part of the juxtaglomerular apparatus.
What are ureters?	Tubes that transport urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder.
What is the composition of each ureter?	Inner mucosal lining, muscularis, outer serosa.
Describe the mucosal lining of the ureter	folds that contain transitional epithelium
Describe the muscularis of the ureter	Inner longitudinal layer of smooth muscle surrounded by a circular layer of smooth muscle. The last one third of the ureter closest to the bladder contains an extra layer of longitudinal muscle outside the circular smooth muscle.
what are the tissues of the urinary bladder from the inside towards outside.	Mucosal lining, submucosa, muscularis (inner layer of longitudinal muscle surrounding by circular layer and then longitudinal layer again), serosa.
What is the urethra?	Tube that transports urine from the bladder to the external environment.
Describe the urethra muscularis.	Inner longitudinal layer of smooth muscle surrounded by an outer layer of circular smooth muscle.
What are the divisions of the male urethra?	Prostatic, membranous, penile (spongy).
Describe the different divisions of the male urethra?	Prostatic(inferior to urinary bladder into the prostrate gland, transitional epithelium) Membranous (Travels through the floor of the pelvic cavity, stratified columnar) Penile (15 cm long passes through penis to external env., stratified squamous.
What the functions of the kidney nephrons?	Regulate blood solute concentrations, blood volume and acid-base balance of blood, also remove toxic waste products including CO2, urea, sulphates, phosphates, NACl.
What are the three processes of urine formation?	Glomerular filtration, tubular reabsoption, tubular secretion.
What is glomerular filtration?	Process by which a plasma-like filtrate is produced by the renal corpuscle.
How much is glomerular hydrostatic pressure?	60 mm Hg
How much is capsular hydrostatic pressure?	20 mm Hg
How much is plasma osmotic pressure?	30 mm Hg
How much is glomerular filtrate osmotic pressure?	Close to 0 mm Hg.
How do you calculate the net effective filtration pressure?	(GHP + GFOP) - (POP + CHP)
Which pressures in the glomerular filtration are absorption pressures and which are filtration pressures?	Reabsorption: POP and CHPFiltration: GHP and GFOP
What is glomerular filtration rate?	filtrate produced by all functional nephrons in both kidneys in one minute. Average is 125 ml/min or 180 L/day
What is tubular reabsorption?	Removal of useful solutes and water from the filtrate and returning them to the blood.
What solutes are reabsorbed in the proximal convultued tubule?	glucose, amino acids, small peptides, bicarbonate, sodium, chloride, water
How is glucose reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule?	sodium symport from lumen to tubule cell, facilitated diffusion from cell to interstitium, passive diffusion from interstitium into blood. This is also true for amino acids.
How are small peptides reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule?	Pinocytosis from lumen to tubule cell, small peptides break into amino acids and through facilitated diffusion move into interstitium, passive diffusion from interstitium into blood
How is ionic bicarbonate reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule?	It must first combine with ionic Hydrogen to form carbonic acid. Carbonic anhydrase then breaks down the acid into CO2 and H2O. CO2 and H2O passively diffuse into the cell from the lumen. carbonic acid and bicarbonate then passively diffuse.
Where are ionic sodium and ionic chlorine reabsorbed?	Proximal convoluted tubule and ascending loop of henle. Cl is passive diffusion the whole way. Na needs sodium pump to leave the cell and enter the interstitium.
How is sodium reabsorbed in the ascending loop of Henle?	The same as in the proximal convoluted tubule. Passive diffusion except from the cell into the renel interstitium where a Na pump is needed.
How is chlorine reabsorbed in the ascending loop of Henle?	An active symport transport from the lumen into the cell. Facilitated diffusion from the cell into the renal interstitium and passive diffusion from the interstitium into the blood.
Where can water be reabsorbed?	Proxmal convoluted tubule, descending limb of the loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule, collecting duct.
Where does 80% of all water reabsorption occur?	Proximal convoluted tubule.
What is obligatory water reabsorption?	Reabsorption of water at a constant reat in the proximal convoluted tubule. m
What is facultative reabsorption?	Reabsorption of water in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct accounting for 20% of all water reabsorbed by the kidney.
What does the antidiuretic hormone secreted by the posterior pituitary gland affect?	Attaches to cells of the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct making them more permeable to water. Water then moves by osmosis from the filtrate, to the renal interstitium, and eventually into the blood.
Do nephrons reabsorb urea?	Yes, app. 50-60% is reabsorbed.
Is creatinine reabsorbed by the kidney?	NO, it is excreted in the urine.
What is tubular secretion?	Process by which the nephron extracts chemicals fromt the blood and excrete them in the filtrate. Rids the body of urea, uric acid, bile salts, catecholamines, and creatinine. Also rids the body of antibiotics, aspirin and other drugs.
How do kidneys regulate blood Ph?	excretomg ionic hydrogen into the urine.
What are the three processes of urinary acidification?	reabsorption of filtered bicarbonate, formation of titrable acid, and excretion of ammonia.
Where does reabsorption of filtered bicarbonate mostly take place?	Proximal convoluted tubule.
What is the chemical reaction in order to reabsorb filtered bicarbonate?	HCO3 + H = H2CO3 (takes place in the lumen)H2CO3 = H2O + CO2 (filters into the cell)CO2 + H2O = H2CO3 (within the tubule cell)H2CO3 = HCO3 + HSodium antiport moves H back into LumenSodium coupled transport moves HC03 into interstitium
Where does the formation of titrable acid occur?	In the collecting duct
What is the chemical difference between reabsorption of filtered bicarbonate and the formation of titrable acid?	They are the exact same chemcial equations except that hydrogen ions entering the collecting duct lumen (filtrate) titrate various buffers. Basic form of phosphate is turned into an acid.
Where does excretion of ammonia occur?	Proximal convoluted tubule.
How is ammonia excreted into the filtrate?	Ammonium ions break down into ammonia and Hydrogen. Ammonia diffuses into the filtrate and reacts with H to produce ammonium. For each ion of hydrogen secreted in the filtrate in the form of ammonium, a bicarbonate is reabsorbed by the blood.
How does bicarbonate move from the tubule into the interstitium?	Sodium coupled transport.
How are hydrogen ions transported from the tubule cell into the lumen filtrate?	Sodium antiport.
During acidosis is more or less hydrogen excreted into the filtrate?	More
During alkalosis is more or less hydrogen excreted into the filtrate?	Less
True of False: To buffer the filtrate, the renal tubules secrete more ammonia to buffer the added ionic hydrogen	True
What is the function of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone pathway?	Series of chemical reactions in the blood that the kidney uses to regulate systemic blood pressure and influence glomerular hydrostatic pressure thus insuring urine production.
What secretes the enzyme renin into the blood?	kidney juxtaglomerular cells
What stimulates the kidney (juxtaglomerular cells) to produce renin?	Decrease in arterial BP detecteb by barorecpters in the afferent arteriole, sympathetic stimulation of juxtaglomerular cells, decreased NaCl to and by macula densa cells.
Describe the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone pathway	Renin from kideny catalyzes angiotensionogen (liver) into angiotensin I. Angiotensin I is convereted to angiotensin II by ACE through the lungs, Angiotensin II stimulates the zona glomerulos of the adrenal cortex to produce aldosterone into blood.
What does angiotensin II do?	Vasoconstriction (increases BP), Stimulates zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex to produce more aldosterone, stimulates ionic Na reabsorption by the proximal convoluted tubule which increases BP. Stimulates thirst centers and release of ADH
What does ADH do?	Antidiuretic hormone increases water reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct, therefore; resulting in increased blood volume, blood pressure, and concentrated urine.
What does aldosterone do?	Stimulates the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct to reabsorb more ionic sodium and water. This increases blood volume and blood pressure.
What is renal autoregulation?	The ability of the kidneys to maintain a relatively stable glomerular filtration rate despite changes in arterial blood pressure
What are the two mechanisms responsible for renal autoregulation?	myogenic mechanism, tubuloglomerular feedback
Describe how myogenic renal autoregulation works?	Dependent on contractile properies of smooth muscles and influences glomerular hydrostatic pressure.
How does the myogenic mechanism work if BP has increased?	Afferent arteriole smooth muscles stretch. The smooth muscles therefore contract, the vessel increases resistance, glomerular blood flow is reduced, glomerular hydrostatic pressure is reduced.
what is the function of adenosine?	It causes constriction of the afferent arteriole thus reducing blood flow into the glomerulius and decreasing glomerular hydrostatic pressure.
What causes the macula densa need in order for adenosine to be produced?	Increased BP, increased glomerular hydrostatic pressure, increased glomerular filtration rate, increased rate of filtrate flow in the renal tubule, increased ionic sodium and chlorine concentration in the filtrate.
What is the normal osmolality of most biological fluids?	300 mOsm/leter
Does total solute concentration increase or decrease in the interstitium from the renal cortex into the renal medulla?	Increases
What is the principal cause of the solute concentration gradient in the renal medulla?	Absorption of ionic sodium and ionic chlorine from the ascending limb of the loop of henle into the renal interstitium.
What is the second and third reason for the concentration gradient in the renal medulla?	Absorption of small quantities of ionic sodium and ionic chlorine from the collecting ducts into the renal interstitium. Third reason is the passive diffusion of large amounts of urea fromt he collecting ducts into the interstitial tissue.
what maintains the solute concentration in the renal interstitium?	Countercurrent exchange mechanism in the vasa recta.
The production of concentration urine is dependent on what hormone?	Antidiuretic
What does anitdiuretic do?	Makes distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct more permeable to water. Water moves by osmosis from the filtrate into the renal interstitium and eventually in the blood.
To produce dilute urine the distal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts absorb more what than what?	More solutes than water
What occurs during peristalis in the ureter?	Contraction of circular smooth muscle behind an area of the ureter distension, contraction of longitudinal smooth muscle in front of the area of ureter distension shortens the segment creating room for forward momentum in the urine.
What is micturation?	Process by which urine is voided fromt the urinary bladder to the external environment.
Does the process of micturation include autonomic or somatic control?	Both autonomic and somatic control are involved.
Is neural information during micturation sympathetic or parasympathetic in nature?	Parasympathetic
What part of the micturation process is under involuntary control?	Contraction of the bladder and relaxation of the internal urethral sphincter.
What part of the micturation process is under voluntary control?	Relaxation of the external urethral sphincter.
What causes neural information to pass from the sacral region of the brain and result in bladder contraction?	Stimulation of stretch receptors in the bladder.
The presence of what chemicals in urine may indicate malfuction of kidneys?	protein, glucose, mucin
Are there more organic or inorganic waste products in urine?	organic (35 grams) vs. inorganic (25 grams)
What are the most important organic waste substances in urine?	urea, uric acid, and creatinine.
95% if nitrogen in urine is in the form of what?	urea and uric acid. urea is formed by the liver from ammonia and carbon dioxide.
What are the principal inorganic constituents of urine?	chlorides, phosphates, sulfates and ammonia. NaCl makes up half of the inorganic substances in urine.
Cloudy urine is evidence of what?	Presense of phosphates, pus, mucous, bacteria, epithelial cells, or fat
What is the cause for the normal color of urine?	Urobilogen that is an end product of hemoglobin breakdown.
What do different colors in the urine tell us?	reddish amber (liver cirrhosis, jaundice, addison's disease), brownish yellow or green (excessive bile pigments), red or smokey (blood). Carrots, beets, rhubarb make change the color of urine.
What is the specific gravity of urine?	Amount of solids in solution. Individuals with chronic nephritis or diabetes insipidus produce urine with low specific gravity. Acute nephritis, diabetes mellitus or high fever produces high specific gravity.
What is the normal pH of urine?	4.5-7.5 Usually 6 Indivduals with acidosis, high fever, or high protein diet have more acidic urine. However, chronic systitrus, anemia, obstructing gastric ulcers, retention of urine in bladder leads to alkaline urine.
How much protein is usually found in urine?	Trace amounts.
Should normal urin samples contain mucin?	NO
How much glucose is usually present in urine?	Small amounts. Indivduials with diabetes mellitus have high levels of glucose in their urine. Insulin is necessary for the entrace of glucose into blood cells. Without proper levels of insulin glucose is not properly reabsorbed and secreted.
What indicates disease of the urinary tract?	Excessive levels of red blood cells, epithelial cells, casts, crystals, bacteria, yeast, and parasites.
When do crystals form in normal urine?	As the sample cools crystals form.
What crystals are found in acidic urine?	uric acid and calcium oxylate
What crystals are found in alkaline urine?	Calcium carbonate, triple phosphate
What crystals are found in abnormal urine?	cystine, leucine, tyrosine, and cholesterin
Does normal urine contain bacteria?	NO. If present there is usually a urinary tract infection.
What is Schistosoma haematobium?	A parasite of the urinary tract, often identified by the presence of red blood cells in the urine.
What is the labial frenulum?	Midsaggital fold that attaches the lips to the gums.
Where are the lingual tonsils located?	contained in the root of the tongue.
What is the lingual frenulum?	Attaches the body of the tongue to the floor of the oral cavity.
The palate separates the oral cavity from what?	nasal cavity
What does the soft palate separate?	Mouth from the pharynx
What is dentition?	All the teeth contained in the mouth. Humans have 16 teeth in the mandible and 16 teeth in the maxilla.
What are the three salivary glands?	Three exocrine glands that secrete saliva called parotid gland, submandibular and sublingual glands.
Where is the parotid gland located?	Underneath the skin near the earlobes
Where is the submandibular gland located?	Half way along the body of the mandible
The esophogus attaches what to what?	Pharynx to the stomach
Is the esophogus located anterior or posterior to the trachea?	Posterior
What kind of muscle tissue makes up the esophugus?	The muscularis in the superior 1/3 contains skeletal muscle tissue, the middle third muscularis is a mix of skeletal and smooth muscle tissue, the last 1/3 of the esophogus is made up of smooth muscle tissue.
What are the four regions of the stomach?	cardia, fundus, body and pylorus
Where is the stomach cardia located?	superior region of the stomach just inferior to the gastroesophageal junction.
Where is the stomach fundus located?	bubble shaped region located in the superior region of the stomach next to the greater curvature.
Where is the stomach body located?	Comprises the lower 2/3 of the stomach.
Where is the stomach pylorus?	Adjacent to the small intestine.
How are the stomach's three layers of smooth muscles arranged?	middle circular layer of smooth muscle surrounds an inner oblique layer. External to the circular smooth muscle is a longitudinal layer.
The pyloric sphincter regulates the passage of what from the stomach to the small intestine?	Chyme
What is chyme?	Mixture of partially digested food and digestive secretions found in the stomach and small intestine.
what are rugae?	Visible folds of the interior lining of the stomach.
What are gastric pits?	Openings between folds of the gastric mucosa.
What are the gastric glands of the gastric pits?	mucous cells, parietal cells, zymogenic (chief) cells, enteroendocrine (G) cells.
Where do you find mucous cells and what do they secrete?	Upper regions of the gastric glands in the cardia and pyloric regions of the stomach.
Where do you find parietal cells and what do they secrete?	Found in the upper half of the gastric gland and release HCl and intrinsic factor. Found in the fundus and body of the stomach.
Where do you find zymogenic (chief) cell and what do they secrete?	Lower areas of the gastric glands and secrete pepsinogen and gastric lipase. In infants, they secrete rennin.
Where do you find enteroendocrine (G) cells and what do they secrete?	Lowest portion of the gastric glands. Secrete hormones (gastrin) and paracrine factors involved in digestion.
What are the order of the gastric gland cells from the inside towards the out?	mucous, parietal, zymogenic (chief), enterendocrine (G).
What are the three regions of the small intestine?	Duodenum, jejunum and ileum.
What is the shortest region of the small intestine?	duodenum at 20-30cm
Which section of the small intestine encircles the pancreas?	duodenal loop
What is the order of the small intestine from the stomach to the long intestine	duodenum, jejunum and ileum
What is the longest segment of the small intestine?	ileum at 3.6 meters in length.
What are plicae circularis?	Sprial ridges of the mucosa and submucosa of the small intestine
The mucosa of the small intestine is thrown up into finger like projections called what?	Villi
The epithelium of the small intestine villi contain what cell types?	absorptive cells, goblet cells, enteroendocrine cells, paneth cells.
What is in the center of the small intestine villi?	Lamina propria with numerous blood vessels and lymphatic vessels.
What are the order of the small intestine villi cells from inside toward the outside?	absorptive cells, goblet cells, enteroendocrine, and paneth cells
Which cells of the small intestine villi have microvilli?	absorptive cells
What do goblet cells secrete?	Mucous into the intestinal lumen
what hormones do the enteroendocrine cells secrete from the crypt of lieberkuhn?	cholecyctokinin (CCK), secretin and gastric inhibitory peptide
what do paneth cells secrete?	lysozomes
Where are the brunner glands located?	submucosa of the duodenum.
What do brunner glands secrete?	mucous rich in bicarbonate, which neutralizes the stomach acids as chyme enters the duodenum.
Where and what are peyer patches?	Aggregations of lymph nodules found in the lamina propria of the submucosa of the ileum. Involved in the immune system.
What does the liver cover?	stomach, duodenum, hepatic flexure of the colon, and the right kidney.
Which lobe is bigger on the liver?	Right lobe
What are the lobes of the liver?	left lobe,right lobe, quadrate (square-like), and caudate (tail-like)
How many lobes does the liver have?	Four
What is the porta hepatis?	Opening located between the quadrate and caudate lobes of the liver.
What is located in the porta hepatis?	common bile duct, hepatic artery, and hepatic portal vein located in the interlobular septum are also referred to as the triad.
Lobes of the liver can be divided into what?	Lobules
What is the anatomy of a lobule?	Central vein, hepatic cords, hepatic sinuses(blood channels that drain into the central vein), hepatic artery, hepatic portal vein, Bile canaliculi (channel bile to the small bile duct), small bile duct.
The hepatic portal vein carries what?	Blood from the digestive tract rich in nutrients but low in O2.
The hepatic artery carries what?	Blood from the aorta rich in O2.
Bile produced by the liver is secreted into what?	small intestine
What is the pathway of bile?	Bile canaliculi, small bile duct, right and left hepatic ducts, common hepatic duct, common bile duct, hepatopancreatic ampulla, duodenum (controlled by the sphincter of oddi)
What controls the movement of bile from the hepatopancreatic ampulla into the duodenum?	sphincter of oddi
Where is the gallbladder and what is its function?	Located underside of the liver and serves to store and concentrate bile between meals.
How is the gallbladder connected to the common bile duct?	cystic duct.
Do all mammals have gallbladders?	NO. Rats for example do not.
True or False: the pancreas has both an endocrine and exocrine function.	True
Where is the pancreas located?	inferior to the stomach with its head lodged in the loop of the duodenum.
What are the three segments of the pancreas?	head, body, tail
What is the principal excretory duct of the pancreas?	canal of wirsung (pancreatic duct)
Where is the canal of wirsung located?	In the pancreas from left to right through its length.
Where is the duct of santorini (accessory duct)?	Pancreas. Leaves the duct of wirsung in the neck of the pancreas and passes horizontally into the duodenum.
How much of the pancreas tissue is made of groups of cells called islets of langerhans?	1%
What types of cells make up the islets of langerhans?	alpha cells, beta cells, delta cells, F cells
What do alpha and beta cells secrete?	Glucagon and insulin, respectively
What do Delta and F cells secrete?	somatostatin and pancreatic polypeptide, respectively
99% of pancreatic tissue is made up of what cells?	exocrine acini
what is the purpose of exocrine acini?	Produce digestive juices that are secreted into the duodenum.
What are the four regions of the large intestine?	Cecum, colon, rectum and anal canal
Where is the cecum located?	Between the ileum of the small intestine and the colon of the large intestine.
What is the veriform appendix?	Tube attached to the cecum of the large intestine. Contains lymphocytes and is involved in the immune process.
What is the difference between the ileocecal value and the ilocecal sphincter?	Ileocecal valve: Protudes into the cecum preventing backflow from the cecum into ileum.Ileocecal sphincter: Thickening of muscularis that regulates the passage of chyme from the ileum into the large intestine (cecum).
What is the largest part of the large intestine?	Colon
What are four divisions of the colon from the large intestine?	ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon
What connects the colon to the rectum?	sigmoid colon
What is the turning point between the ascending colon and the transverse colon called?	Right colic hepatic flexure
Does the colon travel from the right to the left or from the left to the right in the abdominal cavity?	Right to Left
What is the turning point called between the transverse colon and descending colon?	left colic splenic flexure
what shape is the sigmoid colon?	"S" shaped
What are rectal valves?	Internal transverse folds in the rectum that allow the rectum to pass gas while retaining feces.
Why do hemorrhoids occur?	Hemorrhoidal veins in the anal colums lack valves and can therefore pool with blood and become distended.
what is the teniae coli?	External muscularis of the colon composed of three strips of longitundial smooth muscle fibers.
what happens when the tenaiae coli are contracted?	The wall of the colon forms pouches called haustra.
Does the rectum and anal canal form haustra?	No.
what makes up the lining of the anal canal?	stratified squamous epithelium
True of False: Digestion in the oral cavity is both mecanical and chemical?	True
What is mastication?	Form of mechanical digestion in which food is chewed into smaller pieces prior to swallowing.
What is the pH of saliva?	6.7
What are solutes found in saliva?	salivary amylase(carb. digestion), Lingual lipase (fat digestion in stomach), Mucous, Lysozomal substances (kills bacteria), imunoglobulin A (IgA) (antibody that retards growth of bacteria, electrolytes (Na, K, Cl, CA, PO, HCO3)
What is deglutition?	Act of swallowing from mouth, esophogus, stomach
What are three phases of deglutition?	voluntary phase, pharyngeal phase, esophageal phase
Describe the events in the voluntary phase of deglutition?	Tongue moves food bolus from the oral cavity into the oropharynx.
Describe the events in the phartyngeal phase of deglutition?	Involuntary reflex whereby receptors in the oropharynx stimulate the medulla and pons. 1. root of tongue blocks oral cavity, 2. elevation of soft palate to seal off nasopharynx from oropharynx, 3. elevation of the larynx - eppiglottis seals respiratory
Describe the events in the esophageal phase of the deglutition?	Relaxation of the upper esophageal sphincter allows food to enter esophogus. Stretching of esophogus stimulates peristaltic contractions that move food bolus down the esophogus into the stomach.
Gastric secretions have a pH of what? Why?	2 and because HCl is secreted by parietal cells of the gastric glands.
What is the function of HCl in gastric digestion?	denatures proteins, converts pepsinogen (inactive enzyme secteted by zymogenic (chief) cells into pepsin. Pepsin intiates protein digestion in the stomach. Prevents carbohydrate and lipid digestion in stomach.
What is the function of intrinsic factor?	Secreted by the parietal cells it allows the ileum to absorb vit. B12 from the diet. B12 is needed in erythrocyte production and without it results in pernicious anemia.
What is the function of gastric lipase?	Enzyme secreted by zymogenic cells and is responsible for fat digestion. Optimal pH is 5-6 which is why doesn't happen in the stomach.
What the components of gastric secretion?	HCl, intrinsic factor, gastric lipase, rennin.
What is the functionof rennin?	Enzyme secreted by the zymogenic cells of an infant. Responsible for coagulationof casein.
What prevents the stomach from digesting itself?	Alkaline mucous lining, tight junctions between the epithelial cells of the gastric mucosa, high exfoliation of gastric mucosa epithelial cells (replaced every three days).
True or False: Gastric secretion is regulated by neural and hormal influences.	True
What are the phases of gastric secretion?	cephalic phase, gastric phase, intestinal phase
Describe the events of cephalic phase of gastric secretion.	Reg. by autonomic nervous system. Sight, smell, taste or thought of food initiates it. Inputs stimulate the hypothalums that sends neural info to the medulla. parasympathetic fibers from medulla to gastric glands begin gastric secretion.
What is the gastric phase of gastric secretion?	Continuation of gastric secretion in response to the presence of food in the stomach.
Is the gastric phase under neural or hormonal regulation?	Both neural and hormonal.
what are the three chemicals that stimulate gastric secretion in the gastric phase?	acetylcholine, histamine and gastrin
How does gastrin work in gastric secretion?	Gastrin is a hormone secreted by the enteroendocrine cells of the pyloric region of stomach. Gastrin is transported to the parietal cells to stimulate release of HCl. Protein is broken down into peptides which buffer the stomach pH
What marks the end of the gastric phase?	buffering peptides empty from the stomach, Stomach pH decreases, low pH inhibits enteroendocrine cells and parietal cells.
What is the intestinal phase of gastric secretion?	Stage in which the duodenum is involved in regulating the gastric secretion by neural and chemical mechanims.
Describe the events of the intestinal phase of the gastric secretion?	Movement of chyme into the duodenum activates reflexes that allow the gastric glands of the stomach to continue secretion. Peptides and amino acids in chyme stimulate the enteroendocrine cells to secrete gastrin the duodenum.
Is the inhibition of gastric secretion regulated by chemical or neural mechanisms?	Both neural and chemical
What phase of gastric secretion is regulated by a neural mechanism only?	cephalic phase
What are the three gastric secretion inhibitory hormones in the small intestine?	secretion, gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP), eholecystokinin (CCK).
Is the sympathetic or parasympathic nervous system involved in inhibitory gastric secretion?	Sympathetic nervous system
What is the enerogastric reflex?	Movement of chyme into the duodenum activates this reflex to inhibit gastric secretion via hormones (secretin, GIP, CCK) and neural (sympathetic nervous system).
What controls the emptying of the stomach?	inhibitory signals from the duodenal hormonal feedback and enterogastric reflex.
How does gastrin regulate gastric emptying?	Increases motility of stomach, contracts lower esophageal sphincter preventing chyme from moving back into esophagus, Relaxes the pyloric sphincter resulting in gastric empyting.
True or False: when chyme enters into the duodenum several neural reflexes slow or inhibit stomach empyting?	True
Does gastrin stimulate or inhibit gastric emptying?	Stimulates
What factors excite the neural reflexes inhibiting the stomach emptying?	excessive distension of duodenum, irritation of duodenal mucosa, duodenal chyme with a pH around 3.5-4, nonisotoinc fluids in duodenum, presence of partially digested protein and fats in the duodenal chyme.
when is cholecystokinin (CCK) released?	In respose to fat in the chyme CCK is released by the jejunum.
How does CCK inhibit gastric secretion?	inhibits gastrin and thus reduces gastric motility.
When is secretin released?	In response to acidic chyme secretin is released by the duodenal mucosa and decreases gastrointestinal motility.
The rate of stomach empyting is controlled by what?	The amount of chyme that the duodenum can handle.
When is gastric inhibitory peptide released?	When fat and carbohydrates are present in the chyme.
What are the components of bile?	bile salts, bile pigment, phospholipids and cholesterol
What is the most common pigment in bile?	biliruben
What is biliruben?	heme of hemoglobin without the iron and is produced during the degredation of red blood cells in bone, spleen and liver.
Biliruben is converted to what by the microflora of the gut?	urobilogen which provides feces and urine is coloration.
What happens to the urobilogen that is not excreted in waste?	It is absorbed by the small intestine and transported back to the liver via the hepatic portal vein. The liver incorporates urobilogen into bile and secretes it into the small intestine where it repeats the cycle.
What is the enteropepatic circulation of urobilogen	The repeated cycle that urobilogen takes betweent the small intestine and the liver.
What carries the urobilogen from the small intestine back to the liver?	hepatic portal vein
Bile salts are all derivatives of what?	cholesterol
What is the importance of bile salts in the small intestine?	decrease the surface tension of fat droplets in the small intestine allowing intestinal motility to break large fat droplets. Also form micelles which are involved in the absorption of fatty acids, monoglycerides, cholesterol, other lipids.
Where is most of the bile stored and concentrated between meals?	gallbladder
Where are the neural reflexes that stimulate gastric inhibition?	enteric nervous system, nerves from the duodenum to prevertebral sympathetic nervous system, duodenum to the medulla resulting in inhibition of parasympathetic nervous system
When is CCK released by enteroendocrine cells of the small intestine?	After ingestion of a meal and especially when the meal was fatty.
How does CCK stimulate secretion of bile?	Causes the oddi of sphincter to relax and gallbladder to contract. The bile is therefore ejected into the duodenum.
Pancreatic secretions conatin a wide variety of what type of enzymes?	Proteolytic
What are two types of proteolytic enzymes secreted by the enzymes?	endopepsidases and exopepsidases.
What is the difference between endopepsidases and exopepsidases?	Endo are enzymzes that hydrolyze interior peptide bonds of polypeptides and proteins. Exo hydrolyze external peptide bonds.
What are examples of endopepsidases?	trypsinogen, trypsin, chymotrypsin, and elastase
what are examples of exopepsidases?	carboxypepsidase A and carboxypepsidase B
What is the primary pancreatic enzyme involved in the digestion of carbohydrates in the small intestine?	pancreatic amylase. It digests partially digested starch into lactose, alpha-dextrins, maltotriose, maltose, trehalose and sucrose.
What are the pancreatic enzymes involved in fat digestion?	pancreatise lipase, cholesterol esterase, phospholipase.
What does enterokinase do?	Trypsinogen (inactive in small intestine) is converted to active trypsin by this small intestinal enzyme.
What is the function of trypsin?	Digests peptide bonds involving basic amino acids yeilding products with basic amino acids at the carboxyl end of the peptide chain. Trypsin converts chymotrypsinogen into chymotrypsin.
chymotrypsinogen is converted to chymotrpsin by what enzyme?	Trypsin
What does chymotrypsin digest?	peptide bonds involving aromatic amino acids, leucine, glutamine and methionine.
Proelastae is activted by what to form elastase in the small intestine?	Trypsin
Elastase digests peptide bonds involving what type of amino acids?	neutral aliphatic amino acids.
Carboxypepsidase A breaks peptide bonds with what type of amino acids?	aromatic and neutral aliphatic amino acids.
Carboxypepsidase B breaks peptide bonds with what type of amino acids?	basic amino acids
Cholesterol esterase digests cholesterol esters as well as esters of which vitamins?	A, D and ECan also digest ester bonds of triglycerides.
Phospholipase of the pancreas requires what when digesting phospholipids?	Bile salts
Is the release of digestive juices from the pancreas controlled by neural or chemical regulation?	Both
What are the three phases of the pancreatic secretion?	Cephalic, gastric and intestinal
Vagal stimulation accounts for what percentage of total pancreatic stimulation?	20-25% Acetylcholine stimulates pancreatic secretion.
Chyme enters where during the intestinal phase of pancreatic secretion?	Duodenum
Approximately 80% of pancreatic enzymes are stimulated to release by what?	Chemicals
What chemicals stimulate the secretion of copius amounts of digestive juices from the pancreas?	Secretin and CCK
What happens when the duodenal chyme is less than 4.5 pH?	Secretin is released, pancreas secretes juices rich in HCO3, HCO3 buffers the duodenal acidity by reaciting HCl to form H2CO3 and increase the pH
Duodenal chyme rich in fatty acids and partially digested proteins stimulates the release of what hormone?	CCK which stimulates the acinar cells of the pancreas to secrete juices rich in enzymes.
What are the secretions of the small intestine?	mucin, enzymes, water, and electrolytes
What is the function of intestinal pepsidases?	Split small proteins into their individual amino acids.
What do sucrase, lactase, trehalase, and intestinal lipase digest respectively?	Sucrose - digests sucrose into glucose and fructose. Lactase - digests lactose into glucose and galactose. Trehalase - digests trehalose into glucose. Intestinal lipase - digests neutral fats into fatty acids and glycerol.
What secretes mucin in the small intestine?	brunner glands and goblet cells
What are the functions of mucin?	neutralizes acidic chyme. Rich in bicarbonate which acids in buffering HCl entering the duodenum from the stomach.
Pancreatic enzymes need a pH higher or lower than gastric secretions?	Higher
What types of cells secrete CCK and secretin?	enteroendrocrine cells
True or False: The greater the the amount of chyme in the intestine the greater the intestineal secretion.	True
True or False: Secretin and CCK stimulate intestinal secretion.	True
Does chemical (CCK and Secretin) or the enteric neural reflex play a dominant role in regulating intestinal secretion?	enteric neural reflex
What is the importance of contraction and motility of the small intestine?	Mixes chyme and secretions of intestine, pancreas and liver, ensures the chyme comes in contact with the intestinal mucosa, gives chyme forward momentum in the direction of the large intestine.
What is peristalsis?	Primary propulsive movement in the small intestine
What stimulates perstalic contractions in the small intestine?	Collection of chyme at a particular point causing distention of the intestinal wall. The enteric nervous system is stimulated. Smooth circular muscles behind the chyme contract and longitudinal muslces in front of the chyme also contract.
What is segmentation?	Mechanical digestion that keeps chyme of the small intestine well mixed. Involves localized contractions.
What is absorption?	Movement of nutrients from the lumen of the small intestine to the absorptive cells and eventually into the blood.
How are micelles involved in the absorption of long chained fatty acids?	Micells in the small intestine take up long chained fatty acids and monoglycerides and transport them to plasma membrane of the absorptive cells. The micelles release the fatty acid or monoglycerides and return to collect more from the intestinal lumen.
What happens to the long chained fatty acids and monoglycerides after the micelles deposit them at the absorptive cells?	Recombine to form tryglycerides (neutral fat), which then combines with intracellular protein to form chylomicron. The chylomicrons are then transported from the absorptive cells into the lacteal (lymphatic system) of the villus.
How is glucose and galactose absorbed in the small intestine?	from intestinal lumen to absorptive cell by secondary active transport coupled with sodium. From absorptive cell to blood by facilitated diffusion.
How is fructose absorbed in the small intestine?	Facilitated diffusion
How are amino acids absorbed in the small intestine?	from intestinal lumen to absorptive cell by secondary active transport coupled with sodium. From absorptive cell to blood via passive diffusion.
How are dipeptides and tripeptides absorbed in the small intestine?	Moved into the absorptive cells by secondary active transport coupled with Hydrogen. The peptides are digested into amino acids while in the absorptive cell. the amino acids then move from the absorptive cell into the blood by passive diffusion.
What is the gastroileal reflex?	Physiological relaxation of the ileocecal sphincter allowing intestinal contents to mopve from the ileum(small intestine) into the cecum (large intestine).
Is the ileocecal sphincter under neural or hormonal control?	Both
How is gastrin involved in the gastrroileal reflex?	Increases ileal peristalsis and relaxation of the ileocecal sphincter allowing movement of intestinal contents from the ileum into the cecum.
What is the neural regulation of the gastroileal reflex?	Distension of the cecum and lower ascending colon stimulates the enteric neural reflex causing tension of the ileocecla sphincter and the inhibition of ileal peristalsis.
Chemical digestion in the large intestine is primarly what?	Bacterial
What give feces its odor?	indole and skatole (remnants of broken down proteins) from the large intestine.
What are some of the functions of bacteria in the large intestine?	Convert biliruben to urobilogen. Synthesize Vt. B and Vit. K
Carbohydrates that reach the large intestine are fermented and release what?	Hydrogen, carbon dioxide, methane gas
Proteins are broken down in the large intestine to produce what?	amino acids, indole, skatole, hydrogen sulfide and fatty acids.
What is hustral churning?	Mechanical digestion that mixes the contents of the large intestine.
What is mass peristalsis?	Mechanical digestion responsible for the forward momentum of intestinal material from the transverse colon to the sigmoid colon.
Is mass peristalsis of the large intestine (colon)neural or chemical?	Both
what is gastrocolic reflex?	Peristalsis of the colon in response to filling of the stomach.
What is duodenocholic reflex?	Peristalsis of the colon in response to distension of the duodenum.
What stimulates mass movement of the contents in the transverse and sigmoid colons shortly after ingestion of a meal?	Gastrin
What inhibits mass movement of contents in the colon?	Epinephrine
What decreases segmental contractions but stimulates propulsive activity in the colon?	Prostiglandin E
What percentage of water and dry material is found in feces?	65% water and 35% dry material
What is the pH of feces?	Neutral or slightly alkaline
What is contained in the dry matter of feces?	undigested cellulose, purine bases, pigment, microoganisms, inorganic salts, intestinal gland secretions, secretions from stomach and liver, indole, skatole, cholesterol, epithelial cells
What are the functions of colon?	Absorption of water and electrolytes from chyme to form solid feces. Storage of feces until it is released.
When does feces become more solid and less liquid in the colon?	The right colic flexure.
Where does the creation of solid feces occur?	Descending colon
Myenteric plexus sends inhibitory stilumation to the internal anal sphincter causing it to do what?	Relax.
What is parasympathetic defacation reflex?	Resposible for defecation. Distention of the rectal walls sends sensory information to the sacral region of the spinal cord. The parasympathetic nerve fibers strengthen perstaltic contractions.
What is the epimysium?	Outer connective tissue sheath that surrounds the skeletal muscle.
What is the perimysium?	Connective tissue sheath that surrounds the muscle fascicles.
A msucle fascicle is filled with muscle..	Fibers
Muscle fibers of a muscle fascicle are filled with what?	endomysium
Skelatal muscle tissue has alternating light and dark bands along the length of the muscle because...	The skelatal muscle (including myofibrils) is striated
What are myofibrils?	Numerous bundles of protein microfilaments comprising the muscle fiber.
The myofibrils of the muscle fiber are surrounded by what?	sarcoplasmic reticulum (smooth endoplasmic reticulum)
What are found interspersed between the myofibrils of the muscle fiber?	sarcosomes (mitochondria)
True or False: Each skeletal muscle fiber is multinucleated with each nucleas adjacent to the plasma membrane.	True
What surrounds the muscle fiber and is a plasma membrane?	sarcolemma
What is a transverse tubule?	tunnel-like extensions from the sarcolemma (plasma membrane surrounding the muscle fiber) innervate the body of the muscle fiber coming in close association to the terminal cisternae (dilated ends) of the sarcoplasmic reticulum (surrounding myofibrils).
What is a triad?	a transverse tubule of the sarcolemma and the 2 terminal cisternae that surround it.
sarcomeres are what?	Each myofibril can be divided into repeating contractile units called sarcomeres.
Where do you find myofilaments?	Each sarcomere contains numerous parallel thread-like complexes of several hundred
What forms the border of each sarcomere?	Z discs (lines), which are protein discs
What are the three different types of myofilaments found in a myofibril?	Myosin (thick) filaments, elastic filaments (emerge from core of the mysin filament), and actin (thin) filaments.
The actin filaments are anchored what?	Z disc
True or False: in each sarcomere actin filaments overlap every myosin filament.	True
Which bands of the my0fibrils are dark and which are light?	Dark - Anisotropic (A) bandLight - H band and Isotropic (I) band
Where do you find the A bands of the myofibrils?	Each A band is found along the length of each myofibril within a sarcomere and is formed by parallel myosin filaments partially overlapping actin filaments.
What is the H band made of?	Only myosin filaments in the relaxed sarcomere
What is the I band made of?	Only actin filaments attached to the Z disc. Each I band partially contains two sarcomeres.
What are myosin filaments composed of?	several hundred myosin molecules. Each molecule is in the shape of a golf club.
What makes up the head of the myosin molecule?	Two heavy polypeptide chains (tail) and four light polypeptide chains.
What is each actin filament composed of?	numerous subunits.
What is the bare zone?	In the middle of the myosin filament is a bare zone where no myosin heads are found.
What is filamentous (F) actin made of?	two chains of globular (G) actin molecules wrapped around each other in the form of a helix.
What is tropomyosin made of?	two polypeptide chains wrapped around each other in the form of a helix.
What is tropomyosin wrapped around?	F-Actin. Each turn of tropomyosin covers seven G-actin monomers.
What are three subunits of troponin?	troponin T (TnT), troponin I (TnI), Troponin C (TnC).
What is titin?	coil-like protein that forms the elastic fibers and Z discs. Elastic filament is composed of titin (giant protein).
What do the troponin units attach to?	Troponin T attaches to tropomyosin. Troponin C binds ionic calcium. Troponin I inhibits the actin and myosin interaction during the contraction process.
What is a neuromuscular synapse?	Junction between a neuron and a skeletal muscle cell.
What is the sequence of depolarization in a skeletal muscle cell or contraction?	Action potentials move from the sarcolemma down the transverse tubules. The sarcoplasm reticulum is depolarized to allow membrane Ca channels to open and Ca to passively diffuse from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm. Ca attaches to TnC.
What happens in the skeletal muscle cells once the Ca is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and enters the sarcoplasm?	Ca binds to TnC to change troponin and displace tropomyosin into the groove of the f-actin. The myosin binding sites are exposed on the surface of the G-actin. ATP molecules are split into ADP and inorganic phosphate. Myosin heads bend.
Where does the myocin head bind?	G-Actin monomer inside the Filamentous (F) actin.
what is power stroke?	Energy is realeased from the split of ATP into ADP and phosphate. Myosin head bends. Actin filaments are attached to myosin filaments and when the heads bend the actin filaments slide past myosin filament and shorten the sarcomeres. Contraction.
What is recovery stroke?	A new molecule of ATP binds to the ATPase binding site on myosin head. The myosin heads release from their binding site on the G-actin. Myosin heads straighten to participate in the next power stroke or contraction.
What is the sequence of repolarization or relaxation of a skeletal muscle cell?	Ca ions actively transported back to sarcoplasmic reticulum and bind to calsequestrin. Ca is released from TnC which changes troponin and allows tropomyosin to move out of F-actin groove. The myosin head binding sites on the G-actin are covered again.
What is troponin bound to?	Tropomyosin
What are the two speed of contraction classifications for skeletal muscle fibers?	slow twitch (type I) muscle fibers and fast twitch (type II) muscle fibers
What is a twitch?	One contraction and relaxation of a skeletal muscle fiber.
Which muscle fibers have the most fully developed sarcoplasmic reticulum?	Skeletal sarcoplasmic reticulum is more fully developed than that of cardiac or smooth.
What is the difference between slow and fast twich skeletal muscl fibers?	Fast: fast to contract and break down ATP quickly. Slow: slow to contract and break down ATP more slowly.
What is myoglobin?	The hemoglobin of skeletal muscle cells. Its purpose is to bind O2.
Which muscle fibers are easy to fatigue?	Fast twitch skeletal muscles of the arm.
Which muslces fibers are hard to fatigue?	Slow twitch skeletal muscles of the body.
What are the two types of fast twitch skeletal muscle fibers?	Type 2A and Type 2B
What is the difference between type 2A and type 2B fast twitch skeletal muscle fibers?	Type 2A: numerous mitochondria and contain myoglobin, Oxidative metabolism creates ATP, resistant to fatigue. Type 2B: Few mitochondria, no myoglobin, anerobic metabolism generates ATP, easy to fatigue.
Which animals have type 2A and which have type 2B fast twitch muscle cells?	Mammals have type 2B fibers. Amphibians and reptiles have type 2A fibers.
Describe type 1 slow twitch muscle cell?	numerous mitochondria and generates ATP using oxidative metabolism. Contain myoglobin.
What is a motor unit?	One neuron and all the skeletal muslce fibers that it innervates.
Does fine motor control have large or small motor units?	Many small motor units. Many neurons each innervating a few muscle cells.
Does large motor control have large or small motor units?	Few large motor units. One neuron innervating many muscle cells.
An average motor unit contains how many skeletal muscle fibers?	80-100
Does a small or large motor unit have a smaller threshold stimulus?	Small motor units have a much lower threshold stimulus than larger motor units.
What is a threshold stimulus?	Minimum voltage required for a skeletal muscle to contract.
what is subthreshold?	Voltages below the threshold stimulus (min. voltage required for skeletal muscle to contract) are referred to subthreshold.
What is maximal threshold stimulus?	All motor units are stimulated to contract. All motor units have been recruited.
What is supramximal threshold?	Voltage no longer has an effect on the strength of muscle contraction because all motor units have already been recruited.
During recruitment of motor units are small or large motor units recruited first?	smaller motor units are recruited first followed by larger motor units.
What are the three periods of a muscle twitch?	Latent period, contraction period, relaxation period.
What is envolved in the latent period of the muscle twitch?	The amount of time between the application of a threshold stimulus and the onset of muscle contraction. .01 seconds
What is the contraction period of the muscle twitch?	Period of time when the cross-bridge activity is occurring in the muscle cells resulting in the contraction of the muscle. 0.04 seconds
What is the relaxation period of the muscle twitch?	When calcium ions are being actively pumped back into the saracoplasmic reticulum of the muscle cells and the skeletal muscle is relaxing. .05 seconds
What is the refractory period of the muscle twitch?	During the relaxation period the muscle cells will not respond to electrical stimulation. Part of the relaxation period.
What is summation of skeletal muscles?	Adding together of muscle twitches resulting in an increase in the strength of muscle contraction. Piggy-Back riding of contractions.
When does summation occur?	When a second threshold electrical stimulus causes a contraction of the muscle after its cells have recovered from the refractory period but before complete relaxation of the muscle.
If the frequency of threshold stimulation is continually increased the relaxation period between muscle twitches is...	Shortened.
What is incomplete tetanus?	Frequency of threshold stimulation has increased to a point where the muscle can only partially relax between stimuli and the muscle starts to maintain a sustain contraction.
What is complete tetanus?	Further increase of threshold potential past incomplete tetanus. The muscle has no relaxation phase between the stimuli thus maintaining a sustained contraction.
What is muscle fatigue?	A condition when the muscle relaxes even though it is constantly stimulated by a threshold stimulus.
What causes muscle fatigue?	Accumulation of potassium ions in the extracellular environment reduces the membrane potential of the muscle cell and interferes with its ability to become depolarized.
How does rythemical contraction fatigue muscles?	Depletes slow twitch muscle fibers of their glycogen reserves. Fast twitch muscle fibers metabolize glucose to lactic acid thus decreasing the pH of the muscle. Reduced pH is suboptimal for glycolytic enzymes and reducing the rate of ATP production.
Why does reduced ATP production impact muscle contraction?	Less ATP interferes with active transport mechanisms involved in transporting cytoplasmic calcium ions back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum between muscle contractions. W/O calcium muscle contraction is hindered.
How do resting skeletal muscle fibers obtain most of their energy?	Aerobic respiration of fatty acids. During exercise skeletal muscles also utilize glycogen and glucose as energy sources.
What is phosphocreatine?	Provides inorganic phosphate to ADP to create ATP.
The intracellular concentration of phosphocreatine is how many times greater than ATP?	Three times.
what is the enzyme responsible for catalyzing teh transfer of phosphate from phosphocreatine to ADP?	Creatine Kinase.
The isoenzyme forms of creatine kinase become elevated where when muscles are damaged?	In the blood plamsa. Specific isoenzyme forms of creatine kinase for the cardiac muscle tissue can tell you if the heart has been damaged.
What is an isometric contraction?	Equal length. Occurs when skeletal muscle fibers increase their tension without a significant change in their length. Such as when carrying an object.
What is an isotonic contraction	Equal tension. Occurs when skeletal muscle fibers shorten without significant change in muscular tension. Occurs during postural movement of the body.
What muscular information is relayed back to the central nervous system?	Length of muscle, tension of muscle, how rapidly the length and tension of the muscle is changing.
What are muscle spindles?	Are receptors that are distributed throughout the body of the muscle.
What information do muscle spindles relay to the CNS?	length of the muscle and rate of change in the muscle length.
What are intrafusal fibers?	Modified skeletal muscle fibers
What are extrafusal fibers?	Regular skeletal muscle fibers.
What makes up the muscle spindles?	3 - 12 small intrafusal fibers that have pointed ends attached to the glycocalx of surrounding skeletal muscle (extrafusal) fibers.
What makes up intrafusal skeletal muscle fibers?	Small skeletal muscle fiber with little or no actin or myosin filaments in the central portion of the fiber. These central portions do not contract and serve as receptor areas. Lengthing of the muscle fiber excites the receptor area.
What are the two types of intrafusal fibers?	Nuclear bag fibers and nuclear chain fibers.
Describe the nuclear bag fibers?	Large number of nuclei congregated in the expanded central portion of the receptor area.
Describe the nuclear chain fibers?	Have nuclei aligned in a chain througout the receptor area of the fiber. Only half the diamter and length of the nuclear bag fibers.
Where are golgi tendon organ muscle receptors located?	muscle tendons.
What do the golgi tendon organ muscle receptors monitor?	Muscle tension and rate of change of muscle tension.
Describe the golgi tendon organ muscle receptor.	Encapsulated sensory receptor through which small bundles of muscle tendons pass. App. 10-15 muscle fibers are usually connected in series with each golgi tendon organ.
what does the cardiac mucsle fibers look like?	Striated with intercalated discs. The fibers create a latticework.
What are intercalated discs?	Dark bands that traverse the cardiac muscle fibers. Thickening of the cell membranes between two adjacent cardiac muscle cells.
What connects adjacent cardiac muscle cells?	Gap junctions that allow simple diffusion of ions between cells.
What are the two differences between the anatomy of the skeletal muscle fibers and the cardiac muscle fibers?	Sarcoplasm reticulum of the cardiac muscle cell is not well developed and cannot store as much calcium ions. Diameter of the transverse tubules of a cardiac muscle fibers is 5 times that found in skeletal muscle fibers (25X more volume).
What ion is required for the contraction of a muscle?	Calcium
Where does calcium come from that muscle fibers use for contraction?	Sarcoplasmic reticulum. The strength of the contraction is little affected by the levels of extracellular Ca.
Where does calcium come from that the cardiac fibers use for contraction?	The sarcoplasmic reticulum is not highly developed and does not store much Ca. Ca therefore must come from the extracellular environment for the cardiac fibers to contract.
What attaches Ca to the transverse tubules of the cardiac muscle fibers?	mucopolysachride
Where do you find smooth muscle tissue?	Surrounds all internal hollow organs and tubes in the body.
What are caveoli?	Primitive transverse tubules of the smooth muscle tissue.
Where are the caveoli located?	Scattered along the surface of the sarcolemma of the smooth muscle cells.
How many nuclei does a smooth muscle cell have?	One elongated nucleus.
What are dense bodies of smooth muscle cells?	Location for large numbers of actin filaments to attach. Dense bodies are attached to the plasma membrane or can be dispersed throughout the cell and linked together by structural proteins. Can attach adjacent smooth muscles.
How are adjacent smooth muscles held together?	intercellular proteins attached to the dense bodies on their plasma membrane.
Describe the contractile unit of a smooth muscle cell.	Numerous actin filaments radiating from two dense bodies overlapping a single myosin filament located between the dense bodies.
A smooth muscle cell can contract up to what percentage of its length?	80%
Where is the sarcoplasmic reticulum located on the smooth mucsle cells?	Near the intracellular side of the sarcolemma in close prximity to the caveoli. Not as developed as the skeletal and cardiac sarcoplasmic reticulum.
What are the two major types of smooth muscle tissue?	multi-unit smooth muscle tissue, visceral smooth muscle tissue.
Describe the multi-unit smooth muscle tissue?	Composed of discrete smooth muscle fibers. Each fibers is innervated by a single neuron allowing each fiber to contract independently of the others.
Where do you find multi-unit smooth muscle tissue?	ciliary of the eye, arrector pili muscle, iris of the eye, nictating membrane.
Describe visceral smooth muscle tissue.	Composed of hundreds of thousands of muscle fibers contracting simultaneously. The cells are aggregated into sheets and adjacent cells are connected by numerous gap junctions.
Where do you find visceral smooth muscle tissue?	gastrointestinal tract, urinary bladder, uterus, ureters, blood vessels.
Do smooth muscles contain troponin?	NO, smooth muscles do not contain troponin.
Where does Ca bind in smooth muscle fibers if not to the TnC?	Calmodulin
What would happen to smooth muscle tissue if extracellular calcium ions are decreased below a specific threshold?	Contraction is inhibited.
What are the steps of depolarization of the smooth muscle tissue?	Depolarization of the sarcolemma transmitted to the caveoli, excitation of sarcoplasmic reticulum, release of Ca into sarcoplasm, Ca binds to calmodulin which joins and activates myosin kinase, Myosin kinase phosphorylates myosin heads & bind to G-actin
Active transport of Ca from the intracellular, across the sarcolema to the extracellular environment happens when in smooth muscle cells?	During relaxation
Is smooth mucsle or skeletal muscle cross-bridge activity between actin and myosin slower?	The frequency of cross-bridge activity in the smooth muscle cell is 1/10 to 1/300 that observed in the skeletal muscle cell.
Why is smooth muscle cell cross-bridge activity between actin and myosin slower?	Because of a greater time of attachment of the myosin heads with their G-actin binding sites. May be due to reduced ATPase activity.
Which muscle tissue requires less energy for sustained contraction?	Smooth muscle tissue requires less energey for sustained contraction compared to skeletal muscle tissue. Possibly due to slow cross-bridged activity.
which muscle tissue is slow to contract and slow to relax?	Smooth muscle tissue is slow to contract and slow to relax compared to striated muscle tissue. It is 30 times longer than skeletal muscle tissue.
Which muscle tissue has the greatest force of contraction?	The force of contraction generated by smooth muscle tissue is greater than striated muscle tissue. Possibly due to the greater time of attachement between actin and myosin in smooth muscle cells.
Which muscle tissue requires less energy to maintain full contraction?	The amount of energy used to maintain full contraction of smooth muscle tissue is less than that of striated muscle tissue.
What is latch mechanism?	The property of smooth muscle tissue to stay contracted with less energy necessary than striated muscle tissue.
What is the importance of the latch mechanism in smooth muscle contraction?	A state of full contraction can be maintained for hours with reduced excitability of the tissue and litte use of energy.
What determines the static force of contraction of the smooth muscle?	The number of myosin heads attached to the G-actin monomers
When is the cycling frequency of cross-bridge activity and the velocity of contraction high?	When myosin kinase and myosin phosphatase are strongly activated in smooth muscle cells.
True or False: Smooth muscle tissue has the ability to return to its original force of contraction shortly after its fibers have been stretched or shorten.	True
What is the stress-relaxation phenomenon of the smooth muscle tissue?	Allows hollow organs to maintain the same amount of internal pressure despite long-term changes in the length of the smooth muscle fibers.
The stress-relaxation phenomenon is a result of which mechanism?	Latch mechanism - full contraction can be maintained for hours with reduced excitability of the tissue and little use of energy.
What increases the pressure within a hollow organ during contraction of smooth muscle?	smooth muscle fibers at first resist a change in length in response to the intial stretch which causes pressure.
Why does pressure return in the hollow organ during contraction?	The number of cross-bridges causing the contractile force is the same as that observed prior to the stretch of the tissue, the pressure within the hollow organ returns to values observed prior to the stretch.

Created by: tjc154

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