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A&P II Midterm
Rio BIO 202
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Peptide hormones enter the target cells and elicit a response by mediating neurotransmitter effects. | False |
| All of the following hormones are secreted by the adenohypophysis: ACTH, FSH, LH | True |
| Direct gene activiation involves a second messenger system. | False |
| Many hormones synthesized in the gastrointestinal tract are chemically identical to brain neurotransmitters. | True |
| The thyroid gland is embedded in the parathyroid tissue. | False |
| The thyroid gland is a large gland that controls the metabolic functions throughout the life of an individual. | True |
| Peptide hormones enter the target cells and elicit a response by mediating neurotransmitter effects. | False |
| All peptide hormone synthesis require gene activiation that produces mRNA. | True |
| The release of hormones from the adenohypophysis is controlled by secretions of the | Hypothalamus |
| The anterior pituitary secretes all but | antidiuretic hormone |
| The ____ gland may influence our day/night cycles and even regulate the onset of sexual maturity. | Pineal |
| The largest pure endocrine gland in the body is the | thyroid |
| The _____ gland declines in size and function with age. | thymus |
| Peptide hormones enter the target cells and elicit a response by mediating neurotransmitter effects. | False |
| All of the following hormones are secreted by the adenohypophysis: ACTH, FSH, LH | True |
| Direct gene activiation involves a second messenger system. | False |
| Many hormones synthesized in the gastrointestinal tract are chemically identical to brain neurotransmitters. | True |
| The thyroid gland is embedded in the parathyroid tissue. | False |
| The thyroid gland is a large gland that controls the metabolic functions throughout the life of an individual. | True |
| Peptide hormones enter the target cells and elicit a response by mediating neurotransmitter effects. | False |
| All peptide hormone synthesis require gene activiation that produces mRNA. | True |
| The release of hormones from the adenohypophysis is controlled by secretions of the | Hypothalamus |
| The anterior pituitary secretes all but | antidiuretic hormone |
| The ____ gland may influence our day/night cycles and even regulate the onset of sexual maturity. | Pineal |
| The largest pure endocrine gland in the body is the | thyroid |
| The _____ gland declines in size and function with age. | thymus |
| Produces the hormones that promote the development of female secondary sex characteristics at puberty. | ovaries |
| Storehouse for the hormones produced by the hypothalamus of the brain. | posterior pituitary |
| Produces the hormones that direct the production of secondary sex characteristics in males. | testes |
| Produce steroid hormones and glucocorticoids and moneralcorticoids. | adrenal glands |
| Produces hormones and is considered a neuroendocrine organ. | hypothalamus |
| ACTH stimulates the adrenal medulla to release corticosteroid hormones. | False |
| The prime metabolic effect of cortisol is gluconeogenisis. | True |
| Oxytocin is a strong stimulant of uterine contractions. | True |
| Type II diabetes lacks insulin activity. | True |
| Aldosterone is the most potent mineralcorticoid produced but the least abundant. | False |
| Calcitonin is a peptide hormone that has destructive effects on the skeletal system. | False |
| The hormone that raises blood sugar levels is insulin. | False |
| Virtually all of the protein or amino acid-based hormones exert their effect through intracellular: | second messenger |
| What is NOT a principal class of hormones? | glycolipids |
| In circumstances where the body requires prolonged or increased levels of a hormone, the DNA of target cells will specify the synthesis of more receptors on the surface of the target organ also known as _________. | Upregulation |
| _____ hormones are derived from cholesterol. | Cholesterol |
| Calcitonin has which of the following characteristics? | It helps maintain the homeostatis of calcium and phosphate in the blood. |
| Acromegally is the result of hypersecretion of growth hormones. | True |
| Which is NOT a function or characteristic of glucocorticoids? | They encourage connective tissue regeneration. |
| Catecolamines are produced by the chromaffin cells. | True |
| "Moon face," "buffalo hump" on the back, a hanging abdomen, and bruises easily are characteristics of the disorder known as | Cushing's syndrome |
| What blood type is the universal donor? | O |
| The special type of hemoglobin present in fetal red blood cells is: | hemoglobin F |
| The slowest step in the clotting process is | formation of prothrombin activator |
| What is a regulatory fuction of blood? | maintenance of normal pH in body tissues |
| Together, leukocytes and platelets comprise approximately ____ percent of total blood volume. | 1 |
| As red blood cells age: | membranes "wear out" and cells become damaged |
| Place the following in correct developmental sequence: 1. reticulocyte 2. proerythrocyte 3. normoblast 4. late erythroblast | 2,4,3,1 |
| What is not a phase of erythropoiesis? | increased tissue demand for oxygen |
| What is a regulatory function of blood? | delivery of oxygen to body cells |
| No visible cytoplasmic granules are present in: | monocytes |
| A lack of intrinsic factor, leading to a deficiency in B12 and large, pale cells called macrocytes, is a characteristic of: | pernicious anemia |
| All of the following can be expected with polycythemia except: | low blood viscosity |
| What is not a phase in hemostasis? | fibrinolysis |
| The rarest leukocyte is ________. | basophil |
| A _____ is a committed granular leukocyte stem cell. | myeloblast |
| The universal recipient blood type is_____. | AB |
| Hemoglobin consists of _____ polypeptide chains. | four |
| The formed element ______ can kill paracitic worms. | eosinophil |
| _____ is an antiprostoglandin drug that inhibits thromboxaneA2 formation | asprin |
| When monocytes migrate to interstitial spaces, they are called ________. | macrophages |
| Prevents backflow into the left ventricle | Aortic semilunar valve |
| The lining of the heart | endocardium |
| Prevents backflow into the left atrium | mitral valve |
| AV valve with three flaps | tricuspid valve |
| AV valve with two flaps | mitral valve |
| Serous layer covering the heart muscle | epicardium |
| Prevents backflow into the ventricle | pulmonary semilunar valves |
| The outermost layer of the serous pericardium | parietal layer |
| Heart muscle | myocardium |
| Prevents backflow into the right atrium | tricuspid valve |
| The point in the conduction system of the heart where the impulse is temporarily delayed | AV node |
| Damage to the ____ node is referred as heart block | AV node |
| Found in the interventricular septum | AV bundle |
| Network found in the ventricular myocardium | Purkinje fibers |
| The pacemaker of the heart | SA node |
| The outermost layer of the serous pericardium is called the______layer. | parietal |
| The pacemaker of the heart is the _____node. | sinoatrial |
| The point in the conduction system where the impulse is temporarily delayed is the_____ node. | AV |
| Site where blood pressure is the greatest | large arteries |
| Site where exchanges of food and gases are made | capillaries |
| Site where blood pressure is the lowest | large veins |
| Site where velocity of blood flow is the slowest | capillaries |
| Site where blood volume is the greatest | large veins |
| Site where resistance to blood flow is the greatest | arterioles |
| Site that is the major determinant of peripheral resistance | arterioles |
| Site where velocity of blood flow is the fastest | large arteries |
| Supplies the kidneys | renal artery |
| Drains the scalp | external jugular vein |
| Supplies the distal area of the large intestine | common hepatic artery |
| Runs through the armpit | axillary artery |
| Supplies the pelvic structures | internal iliac artery |
| Carries oxygen-poor blood to the lungs | pulmonary trunk |
| Artery that does not anastomose | renal artery |
| Largest artery of the body | aorta |
| Receives blood from all areas superior from the diaphragm, exept the heart wall | superior vena cava |
| Drains the upper extremities, deep vein | subclavian vein |
| Supplies the duodenum and stomach | common hepatic artery |
| Functions of the lymphatic system include: | transport of excess tissue fluid to the blood vascular system |
| Both lymph and venous blood flow are heavily dependent on: | skeletal muscle contractions and differences in thoracic pressure due to respiratory movement |
| The largest lymphatic vessels are called | ducts |
| Which of the following is not a normal component of lymph? | red blood cells |
| The tonsils located at the base of the tongue are the: | lingual tonsils |
| Select the correct statement about lymphocytes. | B cells produce plasma cells, which secrete antibodies in the blood |
| A sentinel node is | the first node to receive lymph from an area suspected to be cancerous |
| Lymph collecting or pooling from the lower extremities would first pool in the _____before moving up. | cisterna chili |
| Particularly large cluster of lymph nodes occur in all of the following locations except the: | lower extermities |
| The ____- are the simplest lymphoid organs and are found at the entrance of the pharynx | tonsils |
| The appendix, tonsils, and Peyer’s patches collectively are called _____. | MALT |
| Highly specialized lymph capillaries called _____ are present in the villi of the intestinal mucosa. | lacteals |
| The thoracic duct of the lymphatic system empties into the _____. | left subclavian vein |
| Lymph nodes have more_____ lymphatic vessels than ____ lymphatic vessels. | afferent; efferent |
| Of the organs in the lymphatic system, only the ____becomes less important as you get older. | thymus |
| Tonsils have blind-ended structure called______. | crypts |
| Lymphatic _____ are formed from the union of the largest collecting vessels. | trunks |
| Receives lymph from most of the body. | thoracic duct |
| Protein containing fluid within the lymphatic vessels. | lymph |
| Stores blood platelets. | spleen |
| Small organs intimately associated with lymphatic vessels. | lymph nodes |
| Isolated clusters of lymph follicles found in the wall of the small intestine. | peyer's patches |
| First line of defense | Skin and mucous membranes |
| Second line of defense | Inflammatory response |
| Third line of defense | Immune response |
| Nonspecific defense system | Inflammatory response and skin and mucous membranes |
| Specific defense system | Immune response |
| Area where B cells become immunocompetent. | bone marrow |
| Area where T cells become immunocompetent. | thymus |
| Area where activated immunocompetent B and t cells recirculate. | blood and lymph |
| Area seeded by immunocompetent B and T cells. | lymph nodes, spleen and other lymph tissues |
| Area where antigen challenge and clonal selection are most likely to occur. | lymph nodes, spleen and other lymph tissues |
| Which of the following is not a type of T cell? | antigenic |
| The process whereby neutrophils and other white blood cells are attracted to the inflammatory site is called: | chemotaxis |
| B lymphocytes develop immunocopetence in the: | bone marrow |
| Which of the following is not a function of the inflammatory response? | replaces injured tissues with connective tissue |
| Which of the following is characteristic of antibodies? | composed of heavy and light polypeptide chains |
| Note three areas where lymph nodes are densely clustered. | axillary, cervical & inguinal |
| What name is given to the terminal duct draining most of the body? | thoracic duct |
| A hormone that regulates gamete production. | FSH |
| Steroids or amino acid-based molecules released into the blood, which arouse tissues. | Hormones |
| These produce testosterone. | Testes |
| Its primary function is to control the rate of body meta- bolism and cellular oxidation. | TH |
| Synthesize insulin. | Beta cells |
| Consists of two functional areas: the adenohypophysis and the neurohypophysis. | Pituitary gland |
| Controlled by the sympathetic nervous system and release epinephrine and norepinephrine. | Adrenal medulla |
| Regulates the endocrine activity of the cortex portion of the adrenal gland. | ACTH |
| One of the hormones that stimulates breast develop- ment and promotes and maintains lactation after child- birth. | Prolactin |
| A hormone produced in the adrenal cortex that enables the body to resist long term stress. | Glucocorticoid |
| Gluconeogenesis occurs in the liver due to the action of: | Cortisol |
| Virtually all of the protein or amino acid-based hormones exert their effects through intracellular: | Second messengers |
| Release is an example of a positive feedback control mechanism | oxytocin |
| Sometimes prolonged excessive exposure to high hormone concentrations causes a phenomenon known as: | downregulation |
| The neurohypophysis or posterior lobe of the pituitary gland is not a true endocrine gland because: | It is only a hormone storage area that receives hormones from the hypothalamus for release |
| Steroid hormones exert their action by: | Entering the nucleus of a cell and initiating or altering the expression of a gene |
| The second-messenger mechanism of hormone action operates by: | Binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP |
| Thyroid hormone (a small iodinated amine) enters target cells in a manner similar to: | Steroid hormones, because both diffuse easily in to target cells |
| The major targets of growth hormone are: | Bones and skeletal muscles |
| Which organ is responsible for synthesizing ANP? | heart |
| Mineralocorticoid is to aldosterone as glucocorticoid is to: | cortisol |
| The most important regulator of electrolyte concentrations in extracellular fluids is: | Aldosterone |
| Which of the following does not act as a second messenger in second-messenger systems of hormone action? | Calmodulin |
| A correct statement about hormonal structure or function. | An amino acid derivative can be a hormone. |
| In circumstances where the body requires prolonged or increased levels of a hormone, the DNA of target cells will specify the synthesis of more receptors on the surface of the cells of the target organ. This is known as: | Up-regulation |
| Which of the following organs is affected by thyroid hormone? | liver |
| Thyroxine is a peptide hormone, but its mechanism is different from other peptide hormones. Which of the following statements is true concerning this difference? | It does not require a second messenger to effect a response |
| Catecholamines and/or peptide hormones bind to receptors on the surface of cells that comprise target organs. This binding causes: | Adenylate cyclase to generate cyclic AMP from ATP. |
| Glucocorticoids enable the body to deal appropriately with stress. They accomplish this by: | Increasing blood glucose, fatty acid, and amino acid levels and enhancing blood pressure |
| What ion is sometimes used as a second messenger of amino acid-base hormones? | calcium |
| Which test is used when anemia is suspected? | Hematocrit |
| Platelets are fragments of large multinucleated cells known as | Megakaryocytes |
| The major group of leukocytes that contain no observable cytoplasmic granules and are more abundant in lymphoid tissue and lymph. | Agranulocytes |
| An insoluable compound that forms a meshwork of strands that trap RBC's and is, therefore, considered the structural basis of clot formation. | Fibrin |
| Another name for the proteins in plasma known as agglutinins. | Antibodies |
| The ability of leukocytes to move in and out of blood vessels in order to reach sites of inflammation or tissue destruction. | Diapedesis |
| Nucleated cells that are formed in the bone marrow whose numbers average from 4,000 to 11,000 per uL of blood. | Leukocytes |
| Anucleocyte (without a nucleus) cells, when mature, whose numbers average 4.5 to 5.0 million per uL of blood. | Erythrocytes |
| What is the nonliving fluid matrix portion of blood? | Plasma |
| What is the technical name for a blood clot? | Thrombus |
| What type of tissue is blood? | Connective |
| How many liters of blood are contained in the circulatory system of the average adult? | 5.5L |
| What is the least common blood type in whites, blacks, and Asians? | AB |
| What is the technical term for the process of blood clot formation? | Coagulation |
| Whole blood is composed of plasma and | Formed elements |
| The largest of the leukocytes. | Monocytes |
| What is the smallest of the leukocytes? | Lymphocytes |
| After spinning, the bottom layer of the capillary tube containing cells is 20 mm and the top layer containing plasma is 30 mm. What is the patient’s hematocrit value? | 40 |
| Also called reduced hemoglobin, this is the form of hemoglobin that results after oxygen diffuses into the blood. | Deoxyhemoglobin |
| This type of leukocyte is present in high amounts in the blood when a patient has a parasitic infection. | Eosinophil |
| James has a hemoglobin measurement of 16 g/100 ml blood. This is: | Within normal range |
| No visible cytoplasmic granules are present in: | Monocytes |
| correct developmental sequence: | proerythroblast, late erythroblast, normoblast, reticulocyte |
| The slowest step in the clotting process is: | Formation of prothrombin activator |
| A lack of intrinsic factor, leading to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and large pale cells called macrocytes, is characteristic of: | Pernicious anemia |
| Clot formation | formation of thromboplastin, prothrombin to thrombin, fibrinogen to fibrin, clot retraction 3. |
| red's blood was determined to be AB positive. What does this mean? | There are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasma. |
| Which of the following is a precursor of a basophil? | Myeloblast |
| Sickling of red blood cells can be produced in those with sickle-cell anemia by: | Travel at high altitude and vigorous exercise |
| When can erythroblastosis fetalis not possibly happen in the child of an Rh negative mother? | If the father is Rh− |
| Alternating surges of pressure in an artery that occur with each contraction and relaxation of the left ventricle. | Pulse |
| Often referred to as the pacemaker of the heart because it sets the rate of depolarization for the heart as a whole. | Sinoatrial Node |
| This wave indicates depolarization of the atria just before atrial contraction. | P Wave |
| A heat rate over 100 bpm. | Tachycardia |
| As this pressure is released, characteristic sounds are heard, which indicate the resumption of blood to the forearm. What are these sounds called? | Sounds of Korotokoff |
| A double walled fibrous sac that encloses the heart. | Pericardium |
| The graphic recording of the electrical charges occurring during the cardiac cycle is called a/an ____________? | ECG |
| The apex of the heart is located at the ______________ and is in line with the middle region of the left clavicle. | 5th Intercostal Space |
| The length of a normal cardiac cycle. | 0.8 Sec. |
| One superficial pulse that may be readily palpated. | Common Carotid Arteries |
| The left atrioventricular valve. | Bicuspid valve |
| These arteries ascend through the lateral neck and at the superior border of the larynx and divide into two branches. | Common Carotid Arteries |
| Supplies the duodenum and the stomach. | Common hepatic artery |
| Site where exchanges of food and gases are made. | Capillaries |
| Carries oxygen-poor blood to the lungs. | Pulmonary trunk |
| Longest vein in the body, superficial. | Great saphenous vein |
| Major artery of the thigh. | Femoral Artery |
| Supplies the small intestine. | Superior mesenteric artery |
| Artery usually palpated to take the blood pressure. | Brachial Artery |
| Carries oxygen-rich blood from the lungs. | Pulmonary vein |
| Blood enters which of these vessels during ventricular systole? | Aorta and pulmonary arteries |
| The tricuspid valve is closed: | When the ventricle is in systole |
| The second heart sound is heard during which phase of the cardiac cycle? | Isovolumetric relaxation |
| Stenosis of the mitral valve may initially cause a pressure increase in the: | Pulmonary circulation |
| If we were able to artificially alter the membrane permeability of pacemaker cells so that sodium influx is more rapid: | Slow calcium channels in the pacemaker tissue would be cycling at a greater rate |
| Which of the following are involved directly in pulmonary circulation? | Right ventricle, pulmonary artery, and left atrium |
| Histologically, the _________ is squamous epithelium supported by a sparse connective tissue layer. | Tunica intima (interna) |
| A thrombus (blood clot) in the first branch of the arch of the aorta would affect the flow of blood to the: | Right side of the head and neck and right upper arm |
| Cerebral blood flow is regulated by: | Intrinsic autoregulatory mechanisms |
| A patient with essential hypertension might have pressures of 200/120 mm Hg. This hypertensive state could result in all of the following changes except: | Decreased size of the heart muscle |
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