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FSN127 E2

FSN127 Exam 2 Study Guide and Reading Assignment

QuestionAnswer
Which is false about type 1 and type 2 diabetes ?A) when untreated they both cause hyperglycemiaB) initially, they both involve the failure of the pancreas to produce insulinC) they both are diseases relating to the control of blood glucose B) initially, they both involve the failure of the pancreas to produce insulin
Which type of hypoglycemia occurs a few hours after a meal and is associated with a panic attack ? A) reactive hypoglycemia B) fasting hypoglycemia A) reactive hypoglycemia
Which are signs that suggest a person should get evaluated for diabetes ?A) excessive hungerB) frequent urinationC) blurred visionD) A and B only E) A, B, and C E) A, B, and C
It is possible that person who is classified as being insulin resistant will have a very high blood level of insulin. A) true B) false A) True
All people who develop insulin resistance go on to develop Type 2 diabetes mellitus. A) true B) false B) False
Various studies have shown that diabetics who consume food of low glycemic index tend to have improved blood glucose levels. A) true B) false A) True
Hypoglycemia refers to A) high blood sugar B) high blood pressure C) low blood sugar D) low blood pressure C) Low blood sugar
Which of the following refers to damage to the kidneys caused by chronic hyperglycemia, as occurs in poorly managed diabetes mellitus ?A) retinopathy B) neuropathy C) nephropathy C) Nephropathy
Which is/are a risk factor associated with developing Type II diabetes mellitus ?A) extreme thinness B) obesityC) genetic predisposition D) lack of exercise E) all but A E) All but A
Which type of diabetes is thought to be caused by the body's immune system attacking the beta cells ?A) Type 1 diabetes mellitus B) Type 2 diabetes mellitus A) Type 1 diabetes mellitus
A couple studies have shown a correlation between consuming a diet rich in high glycemic index foods and the development of A) hypertension B) Type 1 diabetes mellitusC) Type 2 diabetes mellitus C) Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Only people who are overweight develop Type 2 diabetes mellitus. A) true B) false B) False
Hypertension refers to A) High blood glucose B) High blood pressure B) High blood pressure
There appears to be a genetic component that can make a person susceptible to getting Type 2 diabetes mellitus. A) true B) false A) True
People with the "insulin resistance syndrome" tend to have high blood pressure. A) true B) false A) True
Syndrome X or "the insulin resistance syndrome" is characterized byA) hypoglycemia and hypoinsulinemiaC) lower than normal glucose but high insulin levelsD) blood glucose in response to a glucose tolerance test is in the upper-normal range but D) Blood glucose in response to a glucose tolerance test is in the upper-normal range but hyperglycemia
18. Which is one sugar unit (not two) ? A) monosacccharide B) disaccharide A) Monosaccharide
Glucose is an example of a A) Monosaccharide B) Disaccharide A) Monosaccharide
Lactose is an example of a A) Monosaccharide B) Disaccharide B) Disaccharide
Fructose is an example of a A) MonosaccharideB) Disaccharide A) Monosaccharide
Galactose is an example of a A) Monosaccharide B) Disaccharide A) Monosaccharide
Sucrose is an example of a A) MonosaccharideB) Disaccharide B) Disaccharide
Which of the following are carbohydrates ?A) sugars such as monosaccharides and disaccharidesB) starchC) many dietary fibersD) all of the above D) all of the above
Sucrose is made up of A) glucose and fructose B) glucose and galactose C) two glucose molecules A) glucose and fructose
Which two tissues store glucose as glycogen ?A) brain and spinal cordB) liver and kidneysC) skeletal muscle and liverD) kidneys and spleenE) none of these C) skeletal muscle and liver
Lactose is made up of A) glucose and fructose B) glucose and galactose C) two glucose molecules B) glucose and galactose
The normal range of blood glucose concentration is A) 70 to 200 mg/dlB) 70-220 mg/dlC) 50 – 120 mg/dlD) 70-120 mg/dl D) 70-120 mg/dl
Guar gum, mucilages and pectin are examples of A) insoluble fiber B) soluble fiber B) Soluble fiber
Cellulose is an example of A) insoluble fiber B) soluble fiber A) Insoluble fiber
Total fiber is A) soluble fiber plus insoluble fiberB) dietary fiber plus nondietary fiberC) starch and dietary fiber A) soluble fiber plus insoluble fiber
Where does starch digestion begin ?A) mouth B) stomach C) small intestine D) large intestine A) mouth
The digestive enzymes will eventually digest starch to ____, which gets absorbed into the (capillaries or lacteal ?) _____of the villus.A) maltose, lactealB) glucose, lactealC) maltose, capillariesD) glucose, capillaries D) glucose, capillaries
The brain uses primarily ________ as a fuel to make ATP.A) lipid B) amino acids C) glucose D) protein C) glucose
An increase in blood glucose stimulates the pancreas to secrete a) insulin b) glucagon a) insulin
Low blood glucose stimulates the pancreas to secrete a) insulin b) glucagon b) glucagon
Immediately right after a high carbohydrate meal, blood glucose will start to a) increase b) decrease a) increase
After a meal has been completely absorbed, blood glucose will start to a) increase b) decrease b) decrease
Which hormone stimulates the storage of food energy as lipid and glycogen ? a) insulin b) glucagon a) insulin
Which hormone stimulates the breakdown of body lipid and liver glycogen ? a) insulin b) glucagon b) glucagon
Which lowers blood glucose when it is high ? A) insulin B) glucagon A) insulin
Which raises blood glucose when it is low ? A) insulin B) glucagon B) glucagon
What enzyme breaks down lactose ? A) maltase B) sucrase C) lactase C) lactase
Which organ produces the hormone insulin ?A) pancreas B) liver C) stomach D) small intestine A) pancreas
The hydrogen breath test is used to diagnoseA) dumping syndrome B) lactose intolerance C) celiac disease B) lactose intolerance
Which organ produces the hormone glucagon ?A) pancreas B) liver C) stomach D) small intestine A) pancreas
A lack of which of the following will result in hyperglycemia ? A) insulin B) glucagon A) insulin
Which is the storage form of glucose in the body ? A) glucagon B) glycogen C) pectin D) starch B) glycogen
Seven out of the nine essential amino acids can be made by humans from glucose. A) True B) False B) false
Which organ has the role of converting different biomolecules, such as monosaccharides, amino acids, and glycerol to glucose ?A) pancreas B) liver C) stomach D) small intestine B) liver
Glycolysis produces ATP. A) True B) False A) True
Which stimulates the entry of glucose into tissues ? A) insulin B) glucagons A) insulin
The Krebs cycle occurs a) in the mitochondria b) outside the mitochondria a) in the mitochondria
Pyruvate is the carbon end product of a) glycolysis b) Krebs cycle a) glycolysis
Carbon dioxide is produced via a) glycolysis b) Krebs cycle b) Krebs cycle
Carbon dioxide is produced a) in the mitochondria b) outside the mitochondria a) in the mitochondria
Glycolysis is referred to as anaerobic respiration. A) True B) False a) True
Which lowers blood glucose when it's high ? A) insulin B) glucagon a) Insulin
Oxygen is needed to make ATP a) in the mitochondria b) outside the mitochondria a) in the mitochondria
What is the purpose of “carbohydrate loading” ?A) to increase the ability to eat carbohydrateB) to decrease the symptoms of lactose intoleranceC) it is a therapy for the dumping syndromeD) to increase muscle glycogen content D) to increase muscle glycogen content
Which raises blood glucose when it's low ?A) insulin B) glucagon B) glucagon
The glycemic index of a food is related to how much glycogen is formed in the liver from the diet over a period of time. A) True B) False B) False
Legumes in general have a very high glycemic index. A) True B) False B) False
Foods that raise blood glucose levels the quickest and highest are also the ones to raise blood insulin levels the quickest and highest. A) True B) False A) True
Endurance athletes perform ______ with adequate muscle glycogen level compared to when they have low muscle glycogen levels.a) better b) worse c) the same a) better
Enzymes are made of a) lipidb) carbohydrates c) proteins c) proteins
Proteins play a direct role in muscle contraction and cell movement. A) True B) False A) True
In general, people who experience physical injury need ____ than normal. a) more dietary protein b) less dietary protein a) more dietary protein
A high protein diet, where the source of protein are animal products, tend to be high ina) urea b) vitamin E c) polyunsaturated fat d) saturated fate) none of these d) saturated fat
_______ water is needed to metabolize protein than carbohydrates and fat. a) More b) Less a) more
As urea production increases, a person needs less water to excrete this waste product. A) True B) False B) False
Proteins are made up of chains of A) sugar C) lipidsD) fatty acids E) amino acids E) Amino acids
A person who is in negative nitrogen balance is in an overall or net state of a) building up protein b) breaking down protein. b) breaking down protein
For a person in nitrogen balance or with a zero nitrogen balancea) the protein nitrogen intake is more than the protein nitrogen outputb) the protein nitrogen intake is the same as the protein nitrogen output b) the protein nitrogen intake is the same as the protein nitrogen output
An individual who is in positive nitrogen balance is in an overall or net state of a) building up protein b) breaking down protein. a) building up protein
In which organ does the chemical digestion of dietary protein begin ? A) mouth B) stomach C) liverD) small intestine E) large intestine b) stomach
Dietary protein must be digested to separate individual______________________________, which are then absorbed.a) amino acids B) monosaccharidesC) fatty acids a) amino acids
The products of protein digestion are absorbed via ________ of the intestinal villus. a) blood vessels b) lacteals a) blood vessels
The two main waste products of protein and amino acid breakdown in the body are A) carbon monocide and ammoniaB) urea and carbon monoxideC) ammonia and urea C) ammonia and urea
Urea is formed in the ____________________________ (organ)A) kidney B) liver C) heart D) small intestine B) liver
Which of the following is a potent neurotoxin? a) ammoniab) urea a) ammonia
17. What are complementary proteins ? a)identical proteinsd) Two or more proteins which have different essential amino acid compositions such that those missing from one protein are found in the other d) Two or more proteins which have different essential amino acid compositions such that those missing from one protein are found in the other
18. An elevation in blood urea levels indicated that the person is a) breaking down lipid b) making lipid c) breaking down protein d) making protein c) breaking down protein
Studies evaluated the protein requirement of non-professional athlete who exercises in moderation. The daily requirement for this person is about a) 0.1 g per kg per day b) 0.8 g per kg per day c) 1.6 g per kg per day d) 3.0 g per kg per day b) 0.8 g per kg per day
The more protein there is in the diet, the _____ calcium is lost in the urine. A) more B) less A) more
What is it called when blood vessels dilate and blood pressure plummets to dangerous levels, resulting in organ and tissue damage due to oxygen and fuel starvation ?A) hypertension B) shock C) hyperglycemia B) shock
The body is undergoing hypermetabolism during the ebb phase. A) True B) False B) False
Which phase is characterized by a negative nitrogen balance ? A) the ebb phase B) the flow phase B) the flow phase
The protein needs during pathological stress decrease. A) True B) False B) False
The first 24 to 48 hours of therapy of someone suffering from severe burns is devoted toB) inhibiting actions of glucocorticoids such as cortisolC) supplying the patient with sufficient fluids to prevent dehydration supplying the patient with sufficient fluids to prevent dehydration
If blood pressure decreases too much tissue can die for lack ofA) oxygen B) calcium C) oxygen and fuels such as glucoseD) iron E) iron and calcium C) oxygen and fuels such as glucose
A person with a traumatic brain injury can be in negative nitrogen balance for up to 2 to 3 weeks.A) True B) False A) True
People with sever burns can lose large amounts of A) oxygen B) hemoglobin C) vitamin B12D) cholesterol E) fluid E) Fluid
Patients in the flow phase of pathological stress show _________ in nutritional energy needs.A) a decrease B) an increase B) an increase
Patients in the flow phase of pathological stress show __________ in protein needs.A) a decrease B) an increase B) an increase
The dietary carbohydrate family includes the _____ and _____ carbohydrates.A) Simple, not simpleB) Simple, complex B) Simple, complex
2. Simple carbohydrates include _____ and _____.A) Cellulose, starchesB) Amino acids, monosaccharidesC) Monosaccharides, polyphenolsD) Monosaccharides, disaccharidesE) Both A and D D) Monosaccharides, disaccharides
3. Polysaccharides composed of straight and branched chains of monosaccharides areA) Chain carbohydratesB) Simple carbohydratesC) Complicated carbohydratesD) Complex carbohydrates D) Complex carbohydrates
4. _____ is the monosaccharide known as blood sugar.A) LactoseB) GlucoseC) Maltose B) Glucose
5. _____ is produced whenever starch breaks downA) LactoseB) MaltoseC) Sucrose B) Maltose
6. Three polysaccharides important in nutrition areA) Monosaccharides, cellulose, and polysaccharidesB) Glycogen, starches, and fibersC) Starches, glucose, and fibersD) None of these B) Glycogen, starches, and fibers
7. _____ is the storage form of energy in the animal bodyA) GlycogenB) GlucagonC) Glucose A) Glycogen
8. _____ provide structure in stems, trunks, roots, leaves, and skins of plants.A) GlycogenB) StarchC) FiberD) Lipid C) Fiber
9. Plant cells store glucose asA) GlycogenB) StarchC) FiberD) Lipid B) Starch
10. Which is manufactured and stored in the liver and muscles as a storage form of glucose?A) GlycogenB) StarchC) FiberD) Lipid A) Glycogen
11. Based on Figure 4-8 which starch has branches?A) PectinB) AmylopectinC) Amylose B) Amylopectin
12. Some _____ are also known as nonstarch polysaccharidesA) GlycogensB) StarchesC) FibersD) Lipids C) Fibers
13. Some fibers are nonpolysaccharides A) TrueB) False A) True
14. Fibers differ from starches in that the bonds between their monosaccharidesA) Do not have carbonB) Cannot be broken down by human digestive enzymesC) Are enriched in nitrogenD) Are easily broken down by human digestive enzymes B) Cannot be broken down by human digestive enzymes
15. _____ is the primary constituent of plant cell walls.A) CelluloseB) StarchC) LipidD) Vitamin E A) Cellulose
16. The hemicelluloses are the main constituents of cereal fibersA) TrueB) False B) False
17. Pectins form _____ in waterA) LipidsB) Two phasesC) SlurriesD) GelsE) Lattice network D) Gels
18. Which dissolve in water and form a gel?A) Soluble fiberB) Insoluble fiberC) Both A) Soluble fiber
19. Which does not dissolve in water?A) Soluble fiberB) Insoluble fiberC) Both B) Insoluble fiber
20. Which of the following fibers delay glucose absorption?A) Soluble fiberB) Insoluble fiberC) Both A) Soluble fiber
21. Which include gums, pectins, and mucilagesA) Soluble fiberB) Insoluble fiberC) Both A) Soluble fiber
22. Which include cellulose, many hemicelluloses, and lignin?A) Soluble fiberB) Insoluble fiberC) Both B) Insoluble
23. Which may be able to lower blood cholesterol?A) Soluble fiberB) Insoluble fiberC) Both A) Soluble fiber
24. Which term refers to the extent to which bacteria in the GI tract can break down fibers into fragments that the body can use?A) AbsorbabilityB) DigestibilityC) FragmentabilityD) Fermentability D) Fermentability
25. The salivary enzyme _____ starts to work, hydrolyzing starch to shorter polysaccharideA) AmylaseB) PeptidaseC) Lipase A) Amylase
26. Where do the enzymes sucrase and lactase do their jobA) Small intestineB) MouthC) StomachD) Large intestine A) Small intestine
The pancreas releases amylase into the mouthA) TrueB) False B) False
Satiety refers to the feeling ofA) BloatednessB) HungerC) Stomach crampinessD) Fullness D) Fullness
29. _____ in the GI tract ferment both fibers and resistant stachesA) Viral enzymesB) BacteriaC) Intestinal epithelial cells B) Bacteria
30. As blood from the intestines circulates through the liver, cells take up fructose and galactose and convert them to other compounds, most often to _____A) TriglyceridesB) SucroseC) GlycerolD) GlucoseE) Starch D) Glucose
31. According to figure 4-11 galactose and fructose can be converted to glucose in the A) PancreasB) LiverC) Intestinal cell B) Liver
32. The human body is unable to convert glactose and fructose into glucoseA) TrueB) False B) False
Lactase activity is highest immediately afterA) A meat mealB) BirthC) A showerD) Meal with dairy productsE) None of the above B) Birth
34. When more lactose in consumed than the available lactase can handle, lactose molecules remain in the intestineA) UndigestedB) Awaiting their conversion into amino acidsC) Until bile is secreted A) Undigested
35. Which of the following are symptoms of lactose intoleranceA) Bloating and abdominal discomfortB) DiarrheaC) All of the aboveD) None of the above C) All of the above
36. Intestinal bacteria can use undigested lactose as foodA) True B) False A) True
37. Lactose intolerance and milk allergy are the same thingA) TrueB) False B) False
The primary role of the available carbohydrates in human nutrition is to supply the body's cells withA) Something to convert into amino acidsB) Sugar that can be used in making the cell membraneC) Glucose, for energy C) Glucose, for energy
The _____ stores 1/3, or 33 percent, of the body’s total glycogen and releases glucose as needed A) MuscleB) SpleenC) Liver C) Liver
40. During time of plenty, glucose rises, and liver cells link excess glucose molecules into long branching chains of _____A) GlucagonsB) PectinC) Glycogen C) Glycogens
41. When blood glucose falls, the liver cells dismantle the _____ into single molecules of _____ and release them into the bloodstramA) Glucose, glycogenB) Fructose, glycogenC) Glycogen, fructoseD) Glycogen, glucoseE) Glycogen, galactose D) Glycogen, glucose
42. _____ also store glucose as glycogen. In total about 2/3’s or 66 percent, but them hoard most of their supply, suing it just for themselves during exercise.A) Fat cellsB) Pancreas cellsC) Muscle cellsD) Bone cellsE) Tendon cells C) Muscle cells
43. Glycogen stores last forA) MinutesB) HoursC) DaysD) Weeks B) Hours
44. Only _____ can provide energy for brain cells, other nerve cells, and developing red blood cellsA) GalactoseB) FructoseC) GlycogenD) Glucose D) Glucose
45. The conversion of protein to glucose is called _____A) GlycogenolysisB) GluconeogenesisC) Homeostasis B) Glucneogenesis
46. Body fat cannot be converted to glucose to any significant extentA) True B) False A) True
47. When a person does not replenish depleted glycogen stores by eating carbohydrates body _____ are dismantled to make glucose to fuel cellsA) FatB) VitaminsC) MineralsD) ProteinE) None of these D) Protein
Which is an artificial sweetener composed of the two amino acids, phenylalanine and aspartic acid?A) SteviaB) AspartameC) SucraloseD) CyclamateE) Tagatose B) Aspertame
2. Which is structurallly similar to fructosa but is not completely absorbed?A) SteviaB) AspartameC) SucraloseD) CyclamateE) Tagatose E) Tagatose
3. Which comes from a South American shrub?A) SteviaB) AspartameC) SucraloseD) CyclamateE) Tagatose A) Stevia
4. Saccharin, acesulfame- K, and sucralose are not metabolized in the body?A) TrueB) False A) True
5. The body digests which of the following as a protein?A) SteviaB) AspartameC) SucraloseD) CyclamateE) Tagatose B) Aspertame
6. Which is a component of sugar with three of its hydroxyl groups replaced by chlorine atoms?A) SteviaB) AspartameC) SucraloseD) CyclamateE) Tagalose C) Sucralose
7. Which is the most recent artificial sweetener to hit the market?A) SteviaB) AspartameC) SucraloseD) NeotameE) Tagatose A) Stevia
8. The term “sugar replacers” decribesA) Sugar alcoholsB) AspartameC) SucraloseD) NeotameE) Tagatose A) Sugar alcohols
9. Which of the follows are sugar alcohols?A) Mannitol and sorbitolB) Xylitol and maltitolC) Isomalt and lactitolD) Mannitol, sorbitol, xylitol, maltitol, isomalt, and lactitolE) Aspartame, sucralose, neotame, and tagatose D) Mannitol, sorbitol, xylitol, maltitol, isomalt, and lactitol
A group of metabolic disorders characterized by hyperglycemia and disordered insulin metabolism is known asA) Hyperglycemic diseaseB) Diabetes Mellitus B) Diabetes Mellitus
2. What is meant by the renal threshold for glucose?A) The plasma concentration of glucose which leads to kidney diseaseB) The plasma concentration of glucose where glucose spills into the urine B) The plasma concentration of glucose where glucose spills into the urine
3. The primary defect in type 2 diabetes is _____A) Low insulin production by pancreasB) Insulin resistance B) Insulin resistance
4. Reduced sensitivity to insulin in muscle, adipose, and liver cells is called insulin resistanceA) TrueB) False A) True
5. Ketoacidosis is sometimes the first sign of disease forA) Type 1 diabetesB) Type 2 diabetes A) Type 1
6. In ketoacidosis the pH of the blood raises due to excessive production of ketone bodiesA) True B) False B) False
Gestational diabetes only occurs during pregnancyA) TrueB) False A) True
9. Men do not get gestational diabetesA) TrueB) False A) True
10. Most cases of diabetes areA) Type 1B) Type 2 B) Type 2
11. Ketoacidosis in type 1 diabetics results fromA) Too much insulin injectedB) A severe lack of insulin B) A severe lack of insulin
12. Hyperosmolar hperglycemic state in type 2 can result in electrolyte imbalances and neurological problemsA) TrueB) False A) True
4. Which detoxifies alcohol, other drugs, and poisonsA) LiverB) PancreasC) Spleen A) Liver
5. Which removes ammonia from the blood and converts it to ureaA) Liver B) PancreasC) Spleen A) Liver
6. Under what condition are fatty acids metabolized to ketone bodies which then provide energy to the brain and nervous systemB) When a person draws on stores (fasting)C) When the fast continues beyond glycogen depletion C) When the fast continues beyond glycogen depletion
7. Under what condition are amino acids used to make proteinA) When a person overeats (feasting)B) When a person draws on stores (fasting)C) When the fast continues beyond glycogen depletion A) When a person overeats (feasting)
8. Under what condition are fatty acids stored as body fatA) When a person overeats (feasting)B) When a person draws on stores (fasting)C) When the fast continues beyond glycogen depletion A) When a person overeats (feasting)
9. Which organ consumes about 2/3 of the total glucose consumed each dayA) LiverB) KidneyC) Skeletal muscleD) BrainE) Lungs D) Brain
Proteins do not contain the same atoms as carbohydrates and lipidsA) TrueB) False B) False
2. Proteins are made up of about _____ common amino acidsA) 10B) 15C) 20D) 25 C) 20
3. There are _____ essential amino acidsA) 3B) 6C) 9D) 12E) 19 C) 9
4. Anemia is not a disease but a symptom of many diseasesA) TrueB) False A) True
5. Dietary proteins containing all the essential amino acids in relatively the same amounts that human beings require are calledA) Perfect proteinsB) Incomplete proteinsC) Complete proteinsD) Complementary proteins D) Complementary proteins
6. The essential amino acid found in shortest supply relative to the amounts needed for protein synthesis in the body is calledA) Nonessential amino acidB) Limiting amino acidC) Nonlimiting amino acid B) Limiting amino acid
7. Two or more dietary proteins whose amino acids complement in such a way that the essential amino acids missing from one are supplied by the othersA) Perfect proteinsB) Incomplete proteinsC) Complete proteinsD) Complementary proteins D) Complementary proteins
People who include milk and milk products but exclude meats, fish and eggs from their diets are calledA) Lacto-ovo vegetariansB) LactovegetariansC) Vegans B) Lactovegetarians
2. In general, vegetarians maintain a healthier body weight than nonvegetariansA) TrueB) False A) True
3. The incidence of heart disease and related deaths is higher in vegetarians than for meat eatersA) TrueB) False B) False
4. Vegetarians have a lower rate of cancer than the general populationA) TrueB) False A) True
5. Vegans need to be careful about getting enoughA) Vitamin CB) RiboflavinC) FolateD) Vitamin B12E) Vitamin E D) Vitamin B12
A disruption in the body’s chemical environment due to the effects os disease or injury is calledA) Metabolic stressB) Physical stressC) Respiratory stress A) Metabolic stress
2. A higher than normal metablic rate is calledA) HypometabolismB) Hypermetabolism Hypermetabolism
3. The failure of more than one organ system that occurs during intensive care is called A) Metabolic stressB) Physical stressC) Respiratory stressD) Multiple organ failure D) Multiple organ failure
4. Multiple organ failure is inconvenient but not a serious conditionA) True B) False B) False
5. The body’s hormonal response to stress causes an increase in body protein degradation from this hormoneA) CatecholaminesB) GlucagonC) CortisolD) Aldosterone C) Cortisol
6. The body’s hormonal response to stress this/these hormone causes the adipose tissue to release fatty acidsA) CatecholaminesB) GlucagonC) Catecholamines and glucagonD) Catecholamines, glucagon, and cortisol D) Catecholamines, glucagon, and cortisol
After a severe burn injury what must be done with the first 24-48 hoursA) Provide a diet high in proteinB) Provide a diet high in carbohydratesC) Provide intravenous fluid and electrolyte replacement C) Provide intravenous fluid and electrolyte replacement
8. What is the primary risk factor for COPDA) A high fat dietB) A low protein dietC) Smoking tobaccoD) Smoking marijuana C) Smoking tobacco
9. A low amount of oxygen in body tissues is calledA) HypoxiaB) Hypoxemia A) Hypoxia
10. A low level of oxygen in the blood is calledA) HypoxiaB) Hypoxemia B) Hypoxemia
One failing organ may disrupt the functioning of anotherA) TrueB) False A) True
2. Shock can impair numerous organ systemsA) TrueB) False A) True
3. The failure of which organ results in the inability to regulate blood volumeA) LiverB) KidneyC) LungsD) Heart B) Kidney
The fluid that passes from blood through the capillaries of the glomeruli, eventually forming urine is calledA) Pre-urineB) NephrosC) FiltrateD) Proteinuria C) Filtrate
2. The hormone made by the kidneys that stimulates red blood cell production is calledA) Pre-urineB) NephrosC) FiltrateD) Erythropoietin D) Erythropoietin
3. Loss of protein in the urine is calledA) AldosteroneB) NephrosC) FiltrateD) Proteinuria D) Proteinuria
4. The nephrotic syndrome is characterized by excessiveA) Blood LDL levelsB) Protein in the urineC) Blood in the urineD) Blood in the stool B) Protein in the urine
4. Patients with nephritic syndrome frequently developA) DiabetesB) Multiple organ failureC) Protein-energy malnutrition C) Protein-energy malnutrition
Loss of blood albumin by the kidney can result in edemaA) TrueB) False A) True
7. Diabetes mellitus can result in a slight decrease in kidney function but not renal failureA) TrueB) False B) False
8. Acute renal failure can result in an _____ in blood urea nitrogenA) DecreaseB) Increase B) Increase
9. Hyperkalemia meansA) Low serum potassium levelsB) Elevated serum potassium levelsC) Excessive urine excretionD) Low serum calcium B) Elevated serum potassium levels
Hypokalema meansA) Low serum potassium levelsB) Elevated serum potassium levelsC) Excessive urine excretionD) Low serum calcium A) Low serum potassium levels
Diuresis means excessiveA) Low serum potassium levelsB) Elevated serum potassium levelsC) Excessive urine excretionD) Low serum calcium C) Excessive urine excretion
13. Excessive urinary oxalate promotes the formation of _____ crystalsA) Potassium oxalateB) Calcium oxalate B) Calcium oxalate
14. Hematuria meansA) Low serum potassium levelsB) Elevated serum potassium levelsC) Blood in urineD) Low serum calcium C) Blood in urine
15. The restricitve diet recommended for renal patients hinders vitamin and mineral intakes, increasing the risk of deficienciesA) True B) False A) True
16. Which is common in patients on hemodialysisA) Iron poisoningB) Iron deficiency B) Iron deficiency
Created by: rewasson
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