Which of the following statements comparing rigid bronchoscopes and esophagoscopes to rigid laryngoscopes is correct?

Bronchoscopes are longer than laryngoscopes, and the distal end is straight.

How should micro ear instruments be cleaned intraoperatively?

Wiped with a micro instrument wipes

What is the surgical technologist often asked to do for the surgeon during septal procedures?

Tap the chisel with the mallet lightly.

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SUR122 Final

Question	Answer
Which objective-power lens is MOST frequently used for microlaryngoscopy?	400 mm
In myringotomy procedures, what does “PE” stand for?	Pressure equalizing
Which of the following statements comparing rigid bronchoscopes and esophagoscopes to rigid laryngoscopes is correct?	Bronchoscopes are longer than laryngoscopes, and the distal end is straight.
Baron, Frazier, House, and Rosen are names of which type of instrument?	Suction
Which cranial nerve carries information related to equilibrium to the cerebral cortex?	Eighth (VIII)
Which name is common to knives, needles, picks, and suction tips used in otologic procedures?	Rosen
Rhinoplasty procedures are often considered “plastic surgery” cases rather than otorhinolaryngological.	True
What is the name of the sharp-tipped, handheld retractor that can be either single or double and often is found in nasal trays?	Joseph
What is the term for creating a surgical opening into the tympanic membrane?	Myringotomy
Why is a scapular or shoulder roll used in procedures involving the oropharynx?	Tilt head to increase exposure
What is an alternate name for the bony nasal projections known as turbinates?	Conchae
Which structure is often blocked with stones in the parotid gland, possibly necessitating surgical removal of the gland?	Stensen’s duct
What is the name of the long, thin, cupped, pistol-grip type handled forceps used in many nasal procedures?	Takahashi
Which procedure would require 4 mm or 5 mm, 0 degree, or angled lenses and a navigation system for intraoperative guidance?	FESS
Which of the paranasal sinuses are MOST superior and can be singular or divided?	Frontal
All of the following are methods of performing a turbinectomy EXCEPT:	Percutaneous
Which of the following descriptions and classification of laryngeal cartilage pertains to the epiglottis?	Individual and elastic
Powered equipment such as ear drills and irrigation and aspiration units should always be tested prior to use to prevent delay or possible patient injury.	True
What is the term that describes a nasal septum that typically causes obstructed breathing in older patients?	Deviated
A procedure sometimes performed in the ICU, ER, or PACU is a(n):	Tracheotomy
Where is the soft palate located in relation to the nasal cavity?	Posterior and inferior
Which type of laser is useful for procedures involving the stapes and middle ear?	Argon
What is an important step for the surgical technologist to remember to perform when changing burs on a pneumatic drill?	Put hand piece on safety
Antrostomy rasps would be used in procedures involving which anatomical structure(s)?	Facial sinuses
How should micro ear instruments be cleaned intraoperatively?	Wiped with a micro instrument wipes
Topical cocaine 4% is used in nasal surgery for:	Anesthesia
What chronically occurring condition is often the reason for the placement of myringotomy tubes in one or both ears?	Otitis media
Which of the following is NOT a compartment of the bony labyrinth of the inner ear?	Sphenoid sinus
Epistaxis is more commonly known as an acute:	Nose bleed
What is the name of the structure that separates the outer and middle ear canals from one another?	Tympanic membrane
An otorhinolaryngologist is more commonly known as which type of specialist?	ENT
The pinna of the ear is the visible external portion that collects sound waves and channels them into the middle and inner ear.	True
Davis and McIvor are names of which type of instrument?	Mouth gags
Which part of the tympanic membrane is fibrous, largest, and where drainage tubes are inserted?	Pars tensa
Which of the following is all that is necessary for instrument setup for bilateral myringotomy tube (BMT) placement?	Mayo stand
Which instrument is used to measure the distance from incus to stapes footplate for selection of a prosthesis in stapedectomy?	Depth gauge
PE tubes placed during myringotomy procedures must be removed following resolution of otitis media.	False
What tissue type are the palatine tonsils?	Lymphoid
Which of the following is NOT a category of tonsil tissue?	Laryngeal
Which acute infection appears in bony air cells after approximately 10 to 14 days following an otitis media infection, and if untreated, it may result in meningitis or encephalitis?	Mastoiditis
Which of the following is a curved, serrated tonsil knife?	Fisher
What is the name of the wax that is normally produced and found within the ear canal?	Cerumen
Which of the following is the MOST commonly used autograft in otologic procedures?	Temporalis fascia
Which procedure is performed for treatment of sleep apnea?	UPPP
In which instrument tray would you find a Ballenger swivel knife, Cottle elevator, Knight scissors, and Takahashi forceps?	SMR
A tuning fork is a useful tool during parotidectomy to safely identify branches of the seventh (VII) cranial nerve.	False
Which type of study would be used to diagnose sleep apnea?	Polysomnography
Which of the following are classified as tonsils but are routinely referred to as adenoids and tend to atrophy with age?	Pharyngeal
What is the surgical technologist often asked to do for the surgeon during septal procedures?	Tap the chisel with the mallet lightly.
Which of the paranasal sinuses are numerous, small, and located on either side of the bridge of the nose, between the eyes?	Ethmoid
Which of the following procedures would require use of an operating microscope?	Stapedectomy
What is the MOST common cause of nasal polyps?	Allergic rhinitis
Which type of mechanical action of a drill attachment is MOST commonly used in otologic procedures?	Rotating
Which cranial nerve may be damaged by growth of a cholesteatoma?	Seventh (VII)
Waters, Caldwell, lateral, and sub mental radiographic views are used to establish diagnosis for which anatomical area?	Sinus cavities
Which of the following is NOT an ossicle found in the middle ear?	Cochlea
Diagnostic method that assesses the amount of damage to the sound conduction system and determines course of treatment	Audiography
Diagnostic method that uses cool and warm water introduced into the ear canal to assess balance function	Electronystagmography
The anatomic structure that connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx	Eustachian tube
The membranous opening in the wall of the cochlea that receives vibrations from the stapes in the middle ear	Oval window
A series of hair cells that directly contact fibers of the cochlear nerve	Organs of Corti
The process of cutting up tissue into small pieces to extract it through a small opening	Morcellation
Congenital defect that results in a bony or membranous occlusion of the passageway between the nose and the pharynx	Choanal atresia
A device attached to suction that uses gravity to capture specimens such as washings for laboratory analysis	Lukens tube
Condition of being enlarged due to chronic inflammation; may cause obstruction	Hypertrophy
Position achieved by placement of a scapular roll to provide enhanced visualization of the oropharyngeal area	Hyperextension
Which laryngeal cartilage is commonly known as the “Adam’s apple”?	Thyroid
What is the name of the double-action, cupped, forward angled forceps used to resect portions of the nasal septum?	Jansen-Middleton
What is the term for bony overgrowth of the stapes?	Otosclerosis
Which diagnostic study is best at delineating between soft tissue and bony structures for diagnosing sinus conditions?	CT scan
Which gas can cause expansion of the middle ear and therefore is contraindicated in tympanic graft cases?	Nitrous oxide
In which of the following procedures would the surgical technologist need to have a spreader and a hook ready for use?	Tracheotomy
Which surgical procedure would be performed for excision of a cholesteatoma?	Mastoidectomy
A TMJ decompression procedure is performed in which anatomical area?	Lateral jaw
Which of the following is frequently used as an autograft to replace the mandible in a radical neck dissection?	Fibula
Craniofacial disjunction fractures are severe traumatic injuries categorized as Le Fort III fractures.	True
Which sequence of steps for plate fixation is CORRECT?	Place plate, drill one hole at a time, measure with depth gauge, tap, insert screw, and repeat steps for remaining holes.
Which diameter fixation screw would MOST likely be used for a fracture of the mandible?	4.0 mm
Which procedure is performed for removal of impacted wisdom teeth?	Odonectomy
Coral would be classified as what type of graft material?	Xenograft
Irrigation and what other item is used anytime the dental drill is used during odontectomy?	Suction
Which type of nonabsorbable maxillofacial implant used in fracture fixation is lightweight, noncorrosive, and strong?	Titanium
Which type of sterile drape is commonly used for oral and maxillofacial procedures?	U-drape
What should the surgical technologist do before handing a retractor to the surgeon for use in orbital floor fracture?	Moisten it with saline.
Which of the following facial bones is the largest and strongest?	Mandible
Tapping of bone is done in fixation procedures to reduce:	Torque pressure on screws
Which hemostatic agent is used during oral and maxillofacial procedures that requires advising the anesthesia provider of its use?	Epinephrine
What is the name of the narrow, double-angle retractor frequently used in oral procedures?	Minnesota
What is the name of the narrow, double-angle retractor frequently used in oral procedures?	Jaw
Which radiographic technique or view shows the alveolar processes, mandible, posterior maxillary sinuses, and the zygomas?	Panoramic
What is the term that describes the side of teeth closest to the cheek?	Buccal
All of the following are configurations of fixation plates for maxillofacial fracture reduction EXCEPT:	W
What is the MOST common position for patients undergoing oral and maxillofacial procedures?	Supine with arms tucked in at sides
Which of the following statements regarding arch bars is CORRECT?	They are thin, malleable bars with hooks facing up for maxilla and down for mandible.
Care must be taken when preauricular and submandibular incisions are made to protect which cranial nerve?	Seventh (VII)
Patients treated for Le Fort type fractures may have extensive scarring and change in facial characteristics.	True
What other role is the surgical technologist often required to fill during oral and maxillofacial procedures?	Assistant
The hard palate is the:	Roof of the mouth
Strands of wire used to attach arch bars to the upper and lower jaw should be prestretched and cut to which length?	10 cm
Which bone contributes to the posterior and inferior portion of the nasal septum?	Vomer
Which teeth are located in the center front of the mouth?	Incisors
Which bones of the face form the prominences of the cheeks?	Zygomatic
How many craniofacial bones make up the orbit?	Seven
Which muscle attaches to the coronoid process of the ramus?	Temporalis
The mandible articulates with which part of the temporal bone to form the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)?	Glenoid fossa
Type of x-ray that shows on one film: alveolar processes, mandible, posterior maxillary sinuses, and zygomas	Panoramic
AP projection x-ray that shows the hard palate, nasal septum, orbital floor, and zygoma	Caldwell
Thickened ridge of bone that contains the sockets that bear the teeth of the upper and lower jaw	Alveolar process
Flat-topped teeth located posteriorly in the jaw, which break up food	Molars
Chief substance of teeth that is covered by enamel on the crown; harder than bone	Dentin
Portion of the tooth that contains blood vessels, nerves, and connective tissue	Pulp
Soft, fibrous tissue that is continuous with the periodontal ligament and surrounds teeth; also known as the gums	Gingiva
Angled retractor used for tongue and cheek retraction; shape is similar to a Harrington retractor	Weider
Any degree of irregular contact between the teeth of the upper and lower jaws; includes overbite or underbite	Malocclusion
Recession of the eyeball within the bony orbit; may be a result of orbital fracture	Enophthalmos
Which countable sponge is used in oral procedures to prevent bone or tooth fragments and other foreign matter from becoming lodged in the pharynx?	Throat pack
Which of the following is the MOST common type of midfacial fracture and is also known as a transmaxillary fracture?	Le Fort I
Odontectomy procedures are given a wound classification of Class II.	True
Which of the following may be used as permanent support on top of the orbital floor following fixation of fracture?	Silastic sheeting
Dental procedures require thorough cavity prepping due to possibility of surgical site infections.	False
Which of the following involves the highest portion of the midface and presents the most extensive damage?	Le Fort III
A closed ventilation system and special endotracheal tube may be used in maxillofacial procedures to reduce risk of:	Airway fire
Which of the following is NOT one of the three regions of a tooth?	Socket
Dental drills are always used to cut bone so that teeth can be extracted whole.	False
Which of the following must accompany the patient to the PACU who has undergone maxillomandibular fixation?	Wire cutters
What is the term for webbed digits of the hand or foot?	syndactyly
What is the term for the process of removing necrotic tissue or eschar prior to skin grafting?	Debridement
Which position should facial procedure patients maintain postoperatively to minimize edema?	Head elevated
Which term describes the thumb side of the hand?	Radial
Split-thickness skin grafts are used to cover which type of burned tissue?	denuded areas of third-degree burns
All of the following are locations for incision in augmentation mammoplasty EXCEPT:	Subclavicular
Which sterile device will be used during TRAM flap reconstruction to verify the blood supply of the graft remains intact?	Doppler probe
A patient scheduled for centralization of radial dysplasia would be about what age?	12 months old
Which of the following bones make up the palm of the hand?	Metacarpals
Which anatomical area is a TRAM flap used to reconstruct?	Breast
Which type of suture would MOST likely be used during a cleft lip repair?	Fine absorbable
For which procedure would the surgeon require a sterile tattoo machine and inks?	Nipple reconstruction
Patients with cleft palates may have difficulty sucking, swallowing, or forming sounds.	True
Before closure in augmentation mammoplasty, what is done to verify correct size?	Temporary sizers are placed and filled with saline, and the table is raised to sitting position to evaluate appearance.
What does a mesh graft device do?	It expands the size of the skin graft.
Which muscles are tightened in an abdominoplasty procedure?	Rectus abdominis
Which of the following statements describing variations of polydactyly is NOT correct?	The condition mainly involves the carpal and metacarpal bones.
Vessel loops are available in all of the following colors EXCEPT:	Green
How would a transverse rectus abdominis musculocutaneous flap be classified?	Pedicle-flap graft
Which epidermal stratum is the outermost layer?	Corneum
The mandibular symphysis is better known as the:	Chin
A full-thickness skin graft may be taken from the inner thigh or labial fold to re-create which anatomic area?	Areola
Which of the following are oil-producing glands?	Sebaceous
Which of the following terms is more commonly referred to as a full face lift?	Rhytidectomy
Which type of incision is MOST frequently used to excise excess skin in a blepharoplasty procedure?	Elliptical
Which of the following terms means surgical fixation of joint, eventually resulting in intentional bone fusion?	Arthrodesis
The pinna, helix, crus, and tragus are all portions of the:	Ear
When would a congenital facial deformity likely occur?	First trimester
Under which muscle is the pocket for breast implant often created for greatest support?	Pectoralis major
Which of the following letters represents the incisional configuration MOST commonly used for scar revision procedures?	Z
For which procedure would the surgical technologist prepare a tumescent solution?	Liposuction
How many degree classifications of skin burns are there?	Four
Approximately how many muscles and their tendons control movement of the wrist, hand, and fingers?	40
Which of the following order of steps for replantation of a digit is CORRECT?	bones, tendons, vessels, then nerves
Which nerve passes through the carpal tunnel?	Median
What is the name of the oil that is secreted from glands in the skin?	Sebum
Which method of anesthesia is preferred for rhytidectomy procedures?	Monitored (MAC)
Abdominoplasty procedures cannot be performed on patients who have undergone cesarean sections, due to excessive adhesions in the lower abdomen.	False
For which procedure would the surgical technologist possibly need a second setup for obtaining a costal cartilage graft?	Otoplasty for microtia
Type of dressing used for frequent dressing changes and wound assessment; prevents excoriation from tape application and removal	Montgomery straps
Severe blood and fluid loss, making it difficult for the heart to pump; post-op complication of aggressive liposuctioning	Hypovolemia
Rapid side-to-side movement used for sharp dissection	Oscillating
Tissue transplanted from another person or cadaver	Heterograft
Distinct individual tissue layer	Stratum
Dead tissue that sloughs off of healthy skin	Eschar
Excoriated tissue; loss of intact coverings	Denuded
Type of procedure performed to improve appearance rather than to strictly treat a pathological condition	Aesthetic
Type of drape designed to encase and cover the hair of the head	Turban
Device used to measure distance between two opposite sides	Caliper
Which procedure is performed for dermachalasis?	Blepharoplasty
Crescent, Benelli, and Benelli-lollipop lifts are techniques used during:	Mastopexy
Why would two separate setups be required for an immediate reconstruction following mastectomy?	to prevent seeding of cancer cells if same instruments are used for both
Cheiloplasty and palatoplasty are corrective procedures for which of the following?	Cleft lip and palate
Which cosmetic procedure is performed for micrognathia?	Mentoplasty
In which degree of skin burn does the tissue appear as pearly white or charred and will likely require debridement of eschar?	Third
Plastic and reconstructive surgeries must be done only after an individual has stopped growing, due to potential changes in anatomy of younger patients.	False
Which type of scissors would most likely be used to trim a full-thickness skin graft (FTSG) to size?	Tenotomy
Which of the following is NOT a type of liposuction?	Electrosurgery
The dermis and epidermis are components of which body system?	Integumentary
Severed digits should be kept tightly covered and warm to prevent clot formation and necrosis, preventing replantation.	False
Which type of gland is found only in the ear canal and is responsible for creation of ear wax?	Ceruminous
Which of the following statements regarding routine prepping for skin graft procedures is CORRECT?	Donor site is prepped first and considered clean.
Which type of specialized retractor enhances visualization in many breast and abdominoplasty procedures?	Fiber-optic
Which glands are found only in the external genitalia and axillae?	Apocrine
The rule of nines is used in burn patients to estimate:	Body surface area burned
Which type of grafted tissue would have skin sensation preserved?	Pedicle flap
Breast ptosis is surgically corrected by:	Mastopexy
Any of the following may be used topically for hemostasis of the STSG donor site EXCEPT:	Mineral oil
Which term describes the palmar surface of the hand?	Volar
Which of the following might be used for stabilization in a Dupuytren’s contracture release if an assistant is unavailable?	Lead hand
“Cupid’s bow” is reconstructed in which of the following procedures?	Cleft lip repair
In which procedure would the procerus and corrugator muscles be ablated, avulsed, resected, or separated?	Endoscopic brow lift
What is the medical term for the congenital deformity commonly called “club hand”?	Radial dysplasia
What suturing technique would the surgeon use to attach tendons in a toe-to-thumb transfer procedure?	Figure of eight
Relaxation and hypertrophy of the eyelid skin is also known as:	Dermachalasis
Which cranial nerve must NOT be compromised by retractor placement during rhytidectomy?	Seventh (VII)
Which epidermal stratum is present only on the palms of hands and soles of feet?	Lucidum
Submalar augmentation is performed to address structural deficiency in the:	Cheeks
Anchor-shaped incisions with joining of tissue envelope folds are performed in which procedure?	Mastopexy
When incising the cranium between burr holes, what attachment to the powered craniotome is necessary to prevent injury of underlying tissues?	dural guard with footplate
Which of the following is used for scalp hemostasis and resembles a Crile or Kelly hemostat except the curve is to the side?	Dandy
What is the name of the dural fold that separates the right and left hemispheres of the cerebrum?	falx cerebri
Papaverine is used in craniotomy for aneurysm clipping to prevent:	vasospasm
Which anatomical structure is the soft, gelatinous part of the intervertebral disc, which is sent as specimen after diskectomy?	nucleus pulposus
Which of the following bilateral paired nerves are the largest in the body and innervate the buttocks and lower extremities?	sciatic
Penfield #1 through #5 are:	dissectors
Fiducials placed on bony landmarks are used in which type of neurosurgical procedure?	stereotactic guided-imagery biopsy
The visual cortex of the brain is located in which region?	occipital
The foramen magnum is the large opening at the base of the skull and site of irreversible brain stem herniation due to increased intracranial pressure.	True
What is the anatomical area where cerebrospinal fluid circulates over all parts of the central nervous system?	subarachnoid space
Which facial sinus is used for surgical approach to a pituitary adenoma rather than traditional craniotomy?	sphenoid
How many pairs of cranial nerves are there?	12
Which diagnostic study demonstrates a herniated disc causing spinal compression and radiographic filling defect?	myelogram
Which portion of the spinal column consists of five fused vertebrae in the average adult?	sacrum
What is the name of the dural fold that separates the cerebrum from the cerebellum and may be used to delineate surgical approach in reference to it?	tentorium
What is the name of the horseshoe or pin fixation device for neurosurgical cranial positioning?	Mayfield
What is the name of the group of spinal nerves that continue from the distal spinal cord at about L-2 in the average adult?	cauda equina
Which of the following layered structures has the closest and most intimate contact with the brain?	Pia
What is the name of the set of instruments used for anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion that includes retractors, spreaders, bone dowel cutters, impactors, and others?	Cloward
Posterior fossa craniectomy is performed for pathology involving the:	cerebellum
Which instrument is used to strip and separate the galea and pericranium from the skull before placement of burr holes?	Langenbeck periosteal elevator
How many vertebrae are there in the normal adult spine?	33
Which of the following are countable surgical sponges used in neurosurgical procedures to protect delicate tissues?	Cottonoid patties
What is the distal-most area of the spinal cord or spinal nerves called?	filum terminale
Which retractor has a proximal hook placed in the wound and a distal hook for attachment of a weight or sandbag using a sterile Kerlix roll for suspension?	Taylor
The instrument called a Kerrison is a(n):	rongeur
Into which anatomical structure or area is the distal catheter most often inserted in a V-P shunt procedure?	peritoneal cavity
Which anatomical structure is the tough band that encases the intervertebral disc material?	annulus fibrosis
What is the name of the structure on which the pituitary gland sits?	sella turcica
In which procedure are the esophagus, carotid artery, and trachea retracted medially for access to the area of pathology?	anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion
Monro, Sylvius, Magendie, and Luschka are:	aqueducts and foramina
What part of the body is prepped for ulnar nerve decompression or transposition?	upper extremity
For which surgical procedure would petroleum gauze nasal packing be used as part of the dressing?	transsphenoidal hypophysectomy
What is the largest part of the human brain?	cerebrum
Where do most intracranial aneurysms occur?	arterial bifurcations
What is the name of the structure that produces cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?	choroid plexus
All of the following are examples of congenital anomalies EXCEPT:	herniated nucleus pulposus
What is the term for a deep groove in the cerebrum that separates the brain into lobes?	fissure
Which of the following is a radiographic diagnostic procedure performed for suspected aneurysm near the circle of Willis?	cerebral angiogram
From which area is an autologous bone graft usually procured for anterior cervical fusion procedures?	iliac crest
Which part of the vertebra projects most posteriorly and is often palpable through the skin in the convex areas of the spine?	spinous process
Osteophytes are:	bony spurs
What is another name for the first cervical vertebra (C-1)?	atlas
Which approach is MOST desirable for treatment of herniated cervical disc with subsequent intervertebral fusion?	Anterior medial
Which of the following results most often from skull trauma over the middle meningeal artery with symptoms progressing to brain-stem herniation if not treated?	epidural hematoma
Which of the following is a primary benign tumor that arises from the protective coverings of the brain?	meningioma
Disease of the spinal nerve roots that results in pain, numbness, tingling, or weakness of the extremities	Radiculopathy
Irrigation and aspiration instrument that uses variable ultrasonic energy to remove tumor tissue without disrupting normal structures	CUSA
Mode of electrosurgical energy frequently used for thermal hemostasis in and around delicate neural structures	Bipolar
Surgical method of using three-dimensional plotting for guidance to biopsy or excise pathology with least amount of collateral damage	Stereotaxis
Most primitive part of the central nervous system; responsible for basic vital life functions	Brain stem
Infection of central nervous system tissue via direct injury or remote circulatory transfer; may require surgical excision	Brain abscess
Mechanism of supplying of oxygen to an area of an organ when the normal perfusion has been interrupted; example is circle of Willis	Collateral flow
Inability to move the lower part of the body due to spinal trauma, disease, or disorder	Paraplegia
Generation of heat during a chemical reaction; example is result of mixing powder and liquid to create polymethyl methacrylate	Exothermic
Cannulated instrument designed to provide passage for distal catheter in V-P or V-A shunt procedures	Tunneler
Herniated nucleus pulposus is a congenital disorder that must be treated surgically in the neonate to prevent quadriplegia.	False
The skull flap can be reattached to the cranium by small titanium plates and screws or with stainless steel wire.	True
Which of the following is the lowest part of the brain stem and contiguous with the spinal cord?	medulla oblongata
Wilson, Andrews, and Hall frames are examples of positioning devices used for:	lumbar hemilaminotomy
What is the name of the measuring device used to assess intraventricular pressure?	Manometer
The surgical technologist may have up to three separate setups in a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy procedure: nasal access, tumor excision, and fascial graft.	True
Which surgical procedure treats compression of the median nerve by a transverse ligament?	carpal tunnel release
Which instrument could be used for burr-hole cranial perforation if no powered equipment is available?	Hudson brace
Which of the following is a result of torn bridging veins between the cerebral cortex and venous sinuses?	subdural hematoma
Which portion of the normal spinal column has five (5) vertebrae?	Lumbar
Which of the following neurosurgical retractors has attachments for malleable brain spatulas and retractors?	Leyla-Yasargil
Which position is usually used for microdecompression endoscopic diskectomy?	Lateral
Craniosynostosis is a congenital defect involving:	premature cranial suture closure
Carpal tunnel syndrome is treated by:	incising the transverse carpal ligament to decompress the nerve
The circle of Willis is a:	network of connected arteries at the base of the brain
What is the name of the outfolding convolutions of the brain?	Gyri
Special attention must be taken during application and removal of the Mayfield cranial fixation device due to the removal of the OR table head piece.	True
Which instrument is used to extract pieces of the nucleus pulposus in a diskectomy?	pituitary rongeur

Created by: Scramze11

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