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OAT Biology
Biology review questions
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| All of the following are components of the Cell Theory EXCEPT the idea that: | all living things contain mitochondria |
| A eukaryotic cell contains organelles specialized for various activities. Need the organelles involved and role they play in the following activities A. Ingestion B. Digestion C. Transport of proteins | A. Ingestion = function of the cell membrane and vesicles - endocytosis B. Digestion = lysosomes, vesicles, and mitchondria C. Transport of proteins = The roughER forms a long interconnecting series of passageways through which proteins are transported |
| What activites occurs in the Golgi apparatus | modification and packaging of proteins |
| How does the fluid mosaic model account for the passage of materials across the membrane | individual molecules of the lipid bilayer are in constant motion, this fluidity allows ions and small molecules to diffuse directly across the membrane. Large molecules require assistance with special carrier protein molecules embedded in the membrane |
| Prokaryotes and eukaryotes differ in a number of ways. Compare them in terms of the following characteristics A. Organization of genetic material B. Site of cellular respiration C. Presence of membrane-bound organelles | A. pro = single circular molecule Eukary = highly coiled linear strands of DNA B. pro= respiration at the cell membrane. Eukary = across the mitochondrial membrane C. pro = no membrane-bound organelles Eukary = contains a number of organelles |
| A researcher treats a solution containing animal cells with ouabain, a substance that interferes with the Na+/K+ pump embedded in the cell membrane and causes the cell to lyse. What best explains ouabain's mechanism of action? | Treatment with ouabain increases intracellular concentrations of Na+ |
| Prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic animal cells both have: | DNA and ribosomes |
| What is the significance of the lysosomal membrane? | Lysosomal membrane serves an important function to protect the cell from the hydrolytic actions of the enzymes it contains. If the membrane were to burst, these enzymes would digest cellular components and ultimately kill the cell |
| What roles do microtubules and microfilaments play in cell division? | Microtubules is responsible for separating sister chromatids. During prophase, the microtubules push the centrioles to opposite poles of the cell After anaphase, microfilaments under the cell membrane contract led to indentation |
| If the haploid number of an organism is 13, what is its dipolid number | if the haploid number (N) of a particular organism is 13 then the diploid number (2N) must be 26 |
| During ______, the choromosomes separate and move to opposite poles of the cell | anaphase |
| The nuclear membrane begins to dissolve during _____ | prophase |
| The centromeres of the replicated chromosomes have completely split by ______ | anaphase |
| During _____, nucleoli disappear | prophase |
| Chromosomes condense, shorten, and coil during ______ | prophase |
| Centromeres line up at the equatorial plate during _______ | metaphase |
| During _____, a cleavage furrow is formed | telophase |
| How do metaphase and anaphase of mitosis differ from metaphase I and anaphase I of meiosis? | In metaphase, replicated chromosomes line up in single file, during anaphase sister chromatids separate In metaphase I, homologous pairs of replicated chromosomes line up, during anaphase I the chromosomes separate, the sister chromatids remain attached |
| What is the central dogma of molecular genetics? | genetic information goes from DNA to RNA to protein |
| What is NOT true about pyrimidines and purines? | Pyrimidines have a two-ring nitrogenous base |
| What is the difference between the 3' and the 5' ends of a DNA molecule? | The 3' end of DNA has carbon on the sugar molecule at the farthest end of the DNA molecule The 5' end is where the carbon on the sugar molecule at the DNA terminus |
| Which model of DNA replication describes one parent strand and one new strand of DNA making up each new helix? | Semiconserative replication: two copies of DNA that each contain one parent strand and one new strand |
| Describe the process of DNA replication | - DNA helicase unzips the DNA - DNA polymerase moves along the 3'-5' recruiting complementary nucleotides - the lagging strand has short pieces of Okazaki fragments - Topoisomerase prevents DNA from overcoiling during replication |
| What is the redundancy of the genetic code? | Genetic code is redundant because more than one codon codes for many amino acids - 64 possible combinations of nucleotides - 20 amino acids coded |
| Distinguish between transcription and translation and describe the process that takes place within the ribosome during translation | - Transcription is the process by which DNA is turned into RNA, - In translation RNA is turned into protein, the ribosome locates a start codon near the 5' end of the mRNA |
| Describe the kinetic effects of increasing substrate concentration while enzyme concentration remains constant | - When substrate concentration is low, the reaction proceeds slowly - increases in substrate concentration, reaction rate increases because of subtrate binding to active sites - at very high levels of substrate the reaction rate approaches a max Vmax |
| What determines enzyme specificity? | determined by the unique 3-D spatial structure of the active site |
| what are the three major differences between RNA and DNA? | 1) RNA contains ribose instead of deoxyribose 2) RNA contains uracil instead of thymine 3) RNA is usually single-stranded |
| What is the net reaction for glycolysis? For the citric acid cycle? | Glycolysis: Glucose + 2 ATP + 4ADP + 2Pi + 2NAD+ ---> 2 Pyruvate + 2 ADP + 4 ATP + 2 NADH + 2 H+ + 2H2O Citric acid: 2 Acetyl CoA + 6NAD+ +2FAD + 2GDP + 2Pi + 4H2O ---> 4CO2 + 6NADH + 2FADH2 + 2GTP + 4H+ + 2CoA |
| in glucose catabolism: | ATP is generated |
| Fatty acids enter the degradative pathway in the form of: | acetyl-CoA |
| How do ATP, NADH, and FADH2 store energy? | - ATP= energy is stored as high-bonds by the covalent bonds of three phosphates - NADH and FADH2 = reducing agents that carry chemical energy in form of high-potential electrons |
| How is NAD+ regenerated and why is this important? | NAD+ can be regenerated, which is necessary for glycolysis to continue: - in the presence of oxygen, oxidative phosphorylation, ETC can used to oxidize NADH to NAD+ - alcohol or lactic acid formation under anaerobic condition |
| Describe the production of ATP via oxidative phosphorylation? | - in the ETC, the release hydrogen ions is coupled with the transfer of electrons - H+ ions accumulate in the mitochondrial matrix and are shuttled across the inner membrane - to pass through the membrane, hydrogen ions must pass through ATP synthetase |
| What is the LEAST likely to occur during oxygen debt? | buildup of pyruvate |
| What is true of the dark reactions of photosynthesis? | they do not require light directly but are linked to the light reaction |
| what are the primary differences between cyclic electron flow and noncyclic electron flow | Cyclic electron flow: - involves only photosystem I and leads to the production of ATP by cyclic photophosphorlyation Noncyclic electron flow: - electons are excited from P680 in photosystem II to P700 in photosystem I leading to ATP |
| A women with blood genotype IAi and a man with blood genotype IBi have two children, both type AB. What is the probability that a third child will have blood type AB? | 25% |
| In humans, the allele for black hair (B) is dominant to the allele to brown (b) and the allele for curly hair (C) is dominant to the allele for straight hair (c) What is the genetoype of the unknown parent that was crossed with straight brown parent? | BbCc |
| Assuming classical Mendelian inheritance, how can one differentiate between a homozygous dominant individual and one who is heterozygous for the dominant trait? | by crossing each individual with a known homozygous recessice individual and examining the offspring and by crossing each with a known heterozygote and examining the offspring |
| If a male hemophiliac (XhY) is crossed with a female carrier of both color blindness and hemophilia (XcXh), what is the probability that a female child will be phenotypically normal? | 50% |
| explain the concept of Mendel's law of segregation | for any given trait, all individuals have two alleles located on separate but homologous chromosoomes one inherited from each parent |
| why are lethal dominant alleles much less common than lethal recessive alleles? | Lethal dominant alleles are much less common than lethal recessive alleles because a lethal dominant allele kills both heterozygous and homozygous prevent the transmission of the allele to offspring |
| Many point mutations do not have any effect on the gene product. What are two possible explanation for this observation? | in eukaryotes, a point mutation may occur in an intron and thus will not affect the gene product because noncoding regions are excised after transcription |
| Can the muscular strength that a weight lifter gains be inherited by the athlete's children? | NO |
| Which organism has a greater evolutionary fitness: one that lives 70 years and has five fertile offspring or one that lives 40 years and has ten fertile offspring? | The organism that lives 40 years and has ten fertile offspring has the greater evolutionary fitness because it makes a greater genetic contribution to the next generation |
| Homologous structure are: | similar in origin but not necessarily in function |
| Will chance variation have a greater effect in a large or a small population? What is this effect called? | chance variation will have a greater effect in a small population because any one variant individual is a greater percentage of the whole population this is called genetic drift |
| As the climate got during the Ice Age, a particular species of mammal evolved a thicker layer of fur. This is an example of what kind of selection? | this is an example of natural selection, the phenotypic norm of a particular species shifting to adapt to a selective pressuresuch as an increasingly colder environment |
| At what point are two populations descended from the same ancestral stock considered separate species? | two populations are considered separate species when they can no longer interbreed and produce viable, fertile offspring |
| In a nonevolving population, there are two alleles, R and r which code for the same trait. The frequency of R is 30 percent what are the frequency of all the possible genotypes? | p +q = 1 p=0.30 q = 0.70 p^2 +2pq + q^2 = 1 p^2 = (0.03)^2 = 0.09 = 9% RR 2pq = 2(0.03)(0.07) = 0.42 = 42% Rr q^2 = (0.07)^2 = 0.49 = 49% rr |
| As the ocen became saltier, whales and fish independently evolved mechanisms to maintain the concentration of salt in their bodies. This can be explained by | convergent evolution |
| in a particular Hardy-Weinberg population, there are only two eye colors: brown and blue. 36% of the population has blue eyes, the recessive trait. What percentage of the population is heterozygous for brown eyes? | blue (bb) = 36% = q^2 q= 0.6 p+q = 1 p=0.4 2pq = 2(0.4)(0.6) = 0.48 = 48% Bb |
| in a certain population, 64% of individuals are homozygous for curly hair (CC). The gene for curly hair is dominant to the gene for straight hair c. Determine what percentage of the population has curly hair | p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1 p+q=1 p=0.8 q=0.2 (0.64) + 2(0.8)(0.2) + (0.2)^2 =1 CC = 64% Cc = 32% cc = 4% 64% +32% = 96% |
| What was NOT a belief of Darwin's? | genetic mutation and recombination are the driving forces of evolution |
| The proposed 'primordial soup' was composed of organic precursor molecules formed by interactions between all elements EXCEPT | helium |
| what is the role of histamine in the immune response? | dilate the blood vessels |
| describe the roles of the three types of granulocytes (basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils) and the two types of monocytes (macrophages and dendritic cells) | neutrophils = first responders to inflammation eosinphils and basophils = involved in inflammation and the allergic response macrophages = phagocytize pathogens and dead or damaged cells dendritic cells = present antigens for targeted immune response |
| what type of cell responds to activated MHC II complexes? | Helper T cell |
| which cell produce a memory-driven response to pathogens? | B-lymphocytes |
| compare and contrast the maturation process of T lymphocytes and B lymphocytes | - T-lymphocytes mature in the thymus - B-lymhocytes mature in the bone |
| Differentiate between active and passive immunity and give examples of each | - Active immunity is due to the exposure to an antigen ex: during infection or vaccination - Passive immunity requires the transfer of antibodies from one individual to another ex: from a pregnant woman to her fetus |
| where is the antigen-binding region found on the immunoglobin structure | N-terminus |
| what statement best characterizes an axon? | it transmits information from the cell body to the axon terminals |
| resting membrane potential is NOT dependent on | pinocytosis |
| all are associated with the myelin sheath EXCEPT | increased energy output for nervous impulse conduction |
| the all-or-none law states: | once an action potential is triggered an impulse of a given magnitude and speed is produced |
| discuss two major differences between the somatic and autonomic divisions of the peripheral nervous system | Somatic nervous system = regulates voluntary actions Autonomic nervous system = regulates involuntary actions |
| by increasing the intensity of the stimulus, the action potential will | increase in frequency |
| What pairing is correct? A. Sensory nerves-afferent B. motor nerves-afferent C. sensory nerves-efferent D. sensory nerves-ventral E. motor nerves-ventral | A) sensory nerves-afferent |
| when a sensory receptor receives a threshold stimulus, it will do all EXCEPT | inhibit the spread of the action potential to the central nervous system |
| what structure is most important for focusing light on the retina | lens |
| when the potential across the axon membrane is more negative than the normal resting potential, the neuron is said to be in a state of | hyperpolarization |
| Chemical X is found to denature all enzymes in the synaptic cleft. What are the effects on acetylcholine if chemical X is added to the cleft | acetylcholine is not inactivated in the synaptic cleft |
| what statement concerning the somatic division of the peripheral nervous system is incorrect | it include vagus nerve |
| in the ear, what structure transduces pressure waves to action potentials | hair cells |
| during muscle contraction, what regions decreases in length | H zone, I band and Z lines |
| Region 1 refers to | A band |
| what region(s) represents exactly one sarcomere | 4 |
| what cells is correctly coupled with its definition | osteoblasts=bone cells involved in secretion of bone matrix |
| when a muscle fiber is subjected to very frequent stimuli | tetanus occurs |
| when a muscle is attached to two bones usually only one of the bones moves. The part of the muscle attached to the stationary bone is referred to as | origin |
| two processes are involved in bone formation, how do they differ from one another | the process involved in bone formation are endochondral ossification and intramembranous ossification. - endochrondral ossification, cartilage is replaced w/ bone - intramembranous ossification, unidifferentiated cells are transformed into bone cells |
| what type of muscle is always multinucleated | skeletal muscle |
| what type of muscle has strong, forceful contractions | cardiac and skeletal muscle |
| what type of muscle lacks sarcomeric striations | smooth muscle |
| Erythrocytes are anaerobic. why is this advantageous for the organism? | they are anaerobic, they do not have an O2 requirements of their own and can deliver all the O2 they carry to other cells |
| the lymphatic system: | transports absorbed chylomicrons to the circulatory system |
| what role do the surface proteins on erythrocytes play in blood transfusion? | the role of surface proteins is to make sure that the recipent and donor blood matches, if not the recipient immune system would attack the donor surface proteins |
| all facilitate gas exchange in the lungs (thin alveolar surfaces, moist alveolar surfaces, differences in the partial pressures of O2 and CO2, and large surface areas ) EXCEPT | active transport |
| what muscles play a role in ventilation? compare the muscular motion involved in inhalation with those involved in exhalation | the muscles involved in ventilation are the diaphragm, which separates the thoraic cavity from the abdominal cavity - inhalation, the diaphragm contracts and flattens, pushing the rib cage up and out - exhalation, the diaphragm relaxes |
| what is the correct sequence of the passages that air travels through during inhalation | pharynx -> larynx -> trachea -> bronchi -> alveoli |
| what is generally an active process | inhalation |
| define extracellular digestion | extracellular digestion describes a process in which molecules are broken down outside of the cell |
| where are proteins digested | stomach and small intestine |
| all are processes that occur in the mouth (mechanical digestion, moistening of food, bolus fromation, saliva secretion) EXCEPT | chemical digestion of proteins |
| why is pancreatic juice alkaline, and what would happen if its alkaline components were removed? | pancreatic juice is basic fluid that helps neutralize the acidity of the chyme entering the small intestine from the stomach. without these alkaline components the intestinal enzymes won't function and the intestinal walls would be damaged |
| starch is hydrolyzed into maltose by: | pancreatic amylase |
| the intestinal capillaries transport nutrients from the intestines to the: | liver |
| what would most likely filter through the glomerulus into Bowman's capsule? | monosaccharides |
| what region of the kidney has the lowest solute concentration? | cortex |
| in the nephron, amino acids enter the peritubular capillaries via: | reabsorption |
| glucose reasorption in the nephron occurs in the: | proximal tubule |
| urine is: | hypertonic to the blood |
| discuss the relationship between the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland | - posterior pituitary stores and secretes hormones produced by neurosecretory cells of the hypothalamus - anterior pitutiary produces hormones that are regulated by hypothalamic releasing hormones |
| increase activity of the parathyroid gland leads to: | an increase in blood Ca2+ concentration |
| what statements concerning growth hormone is true? | - overproduction of growth hormone in children results in gigantism - overproduction of growth hormone in adults results in acromegaly - a deficiency of growth hormone results in dwarfism - growth hoemone promotes protein synthesis |
| what statements concering growth hormone is NOT true? | growth hormone is secreted by the hypothalamus |
| describe the regulation of plasma Ca2+ concentration | Ca2+ levels in blood are regulated by two hormones calcitonin and parathyroid hormone - calcitonin is secreted by the thyroid when calcium leves are high - parathyroid hormone is secreted by the parathyroid when calcium levels are low |
| thyroid hormone deficiency may result in: | cretinism |
| what is the function of growth hormone | promotes growth of muscle |
| what is the function of ACTH | stimulates the secretion of glucocorticoids |
| what is the function of oxytocin | increases uterine contractions during childbirth |
| what is the function of progesterone | prepares the uterus for implantation of a fertilized egg |
| what is the function of aldosterone | induces water reabsorption in the kidneys |
| what is the function of glucagon | stimulates the release of glucose into the blood |
| what is the function of thyroxine | increases the rate of metabolism |
| what is negative feedback | negative feedback means of regulation whereby an end product inhibits on ore more of the earlier steps that lead to its production or secretion |
| why is the level of blood glucose so important? what hormones are involved in the regulation of blood glucose levels? | blood glucose levels determine the amount of energy available for cellular activity, hormones that involved in blood glucose levels such as epinephrine, insulin, glucocorticoids |
| destruction of all beta cells in the pancrease would cause: | insulin secretion to stop and an increase in blood glucose |
| oxytocin and vasopressin are | produced by the hypothalamus and released by the pituitary |
| upon ovulation, the oocyte is released into the: | abdominal cavity |
| all describe glands in the male reproductive system (prostate, bulbourethral, Cowper's, seminal vesicles) EXCEPT | suprarenal |
| what is the correct order of maturation of a sperm | spermatogonia -> primary spermatocyte -> secondary spermatocyte -> spermatid -> spermatazoa |
| ovulation is directly caused by | a sharp increase in luteinizing hormone |
| what developmental stages has the greatest nuclear-to-cytoplasmic material ratio? | blastula |
| name the three embryonic germ layers. | ectoderm, mesoder, endoderm |
| describe the structure of a blastula | early stage of development in which the embryo consists of a hollow ball of cells surrounding a cavity called the blastocoel |
| what is cleavage? when does the embryo first differentiate into germ layers? | cleavage is the rapid division of cells early in the embryo's development; the embryo first differentiate during gastrulation |
| describe the difference between the apical and lateral meristem | - apical meristem is in the tips of roots and stems - lateral meristem is between the xylem and phloem and permits growth in diameter |
| what is the difference between dicots and monocots | dicots have two seed leaves, monocots only have one seed leaf |
| what is NOT a stage of cell cleavage | mesoderm |
| describe the function of the four extra-embryonic membranes formed during development | - the amnion contains the amniotic fluid external pressure and uterine contrations - chorion completely surrounds the amnion - allantois contains bloof vessels that become the umbilical vessels - yolk sac the site of development of blood vessels |
| explain the difference between a complex reflex and a fixed-action pattern | - complex reflex involves neural intergration at a high level such as the brainstem - fixed-action pattern are coordinated behavioral responses to patterns of stimulation |
| how does pseudoconditioning differ from classical conditioning | - pseudoconditioning the stimulus that the animal has been conditioned to respond to evoke the conditioned response without conditioning |
| what is negative reinforcement | negative reinforcement the reward is given following a lack of a certain behavior |
| describe the critical period | the critical period is a time in animal's early development when it can develop specific behavioral patterns |
| what is the difference between releaser pheromones and primer pheromones | - releaser pheromones trigger a reversible change in the recipient - primer pheromones produce long-term behavioral and physiological changes in the recipient |
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Jalisa.bland
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