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221

QuestionAnswer
Of the pathogenic organisms, which of the following are the most complex? Tapeworms
If the secretion of oxytocin during childbirth operated as a negative-feedback control loop, what effect would it have on uterine contractions? Oxytocin would inhibit uterine contractions.
The term that literally means self-immunity is: autoimmunity.
Intracellular parasites that consist of DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat and sometimes by a lipoprotein envelope are called: viruses.
Negative-feedback control systems: oppose a change.
Which of the following is a protein substance with no DNA or RNA and is thought to be the cause of mad cow disease? Prion
Positive-feedback control systems: accelerate a change.
Shivering to try to raise your body temperature back to normal would be an example of: the body trying to maintain homeostasis. a negative-feedback mechanism.
Which of the following may put one at risk for developing a given disease? Lifestyle, Stress and Environment
Which of the following is not one of the basic components in a feedback control loop? Transmitter
DNA: is a double-helix strand of nucleotides.
Which level of protein structure refers to the number, kind, and sequence of amino acids? glycogen
Unsaturated fats: will kink or bend because of the double bonds between the carbon atoms.
Which of the following is not true of both triglycerides and phospholipids? They both contain a hydrophobic and hydrophilic end.
Which of the following is not true of carbohydrates? They include substances commonly called sugars, They are the body’s primary source of energy, They are a part of both DNA and RNA.
When two molecules of glucose are joined, they form which disaccharide? Maltose
Which of the following is not true of RNA? All of the above are true of RNA.
Which lipid acts as a “tissue hormone”? Prostaglandin
Which energy-releasing or energy-transferring molecule does not contain a nucleotide? Creatine phosphate
Amino acids frequently become joined by: peptide bonds.
Prostaglandins and steroids share which of the following characteristics? Both have a ring structure in their molecule.
The basic building blocks of fats are: fatty acids and glycerol.
The alpha helix is an example of which level of protein structure? Secondary
Which lipid is part of vitamin D? Steroids
Which of the following is not true of diffusion? Uses cellular energy
A DNA molecule is characterized by all of the following except: ribose sugar.
The pairing of bases of a strand of DNA is obligatory. If a strand of DNA were composed of the base sequence of ATCG, what would be the obligatory sequence of its opposing base pairs? TAGC
All of the following are examples of passive transport except: endocytosis.
A saline solution that contains a higher concentration of salt than a red blood cell would be: hypertonic.
All of the following occur as a result of meiosis except: chromosome number remains at 46.
Which is not true about the sodium and potassium pump? Sodium moves into the cell and potassium moves out of the cell.
Transcription can be best described as the: synthesis of mRNA.
The small water channels in the cell membrane are called: aquaporins.
Diffusion requires: a concentration gradient.
Twenty-three chromosomes per cell in humans is referred to as: haploid.
Extensive weight training causes the muscle cells to: hypertrophy.
Materials can be moved from a low concentration to a high concentration through: active transport.
If a sequence of nitrogen bases in nucleic acid were A-U-C-G-A, which of the following would be true about the nucleic acid? It contains ribose sugar.
Water will move through the cell membrane by: osmosis.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of epithelial tissue? Is important in communication and control
In what area of the body would you expect to find an especially thick stratum corneum? Sole of the foot
A tissue is: a group of similar cells that perform a common function.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of connective tissue? Typically holds its cells together tightly by means of desmosomes
Which cells electrically insulate axons to increase the speed of conduction? Oligodendrocytes and Astrocytes
Which tissue is most likely to form a keloid scar as it heals? Connective
Which of the following is not a characteristic of smooth muscles? Having intercalated disks
Which of the following epithelial functions is a primary activity of glandular epithelium? Secretion
Which of the following is not a function of adipose tissue? Defends the body from microbes and injurious substances
Which is not a function of epithelial tissue? Assimilation
The primary ossification center of a long bone is located: in the diaphysis.
The cells responsible for active erosion of bone minerals are called: osteoclasts.
Which of the following is not dependent on the proper amount of calcium ions in the blood? All of the above are dependent on the proper amount of calcium ions in the blood.
Until bone growth in length is complete, a layer of the cartilage, known as the _____, remains between the epiphysis and diaphysis. epiphyseal plate
In bone growth, the medullary cavity is enlarged because of the activity of: osteoclasts.
Young children’s bones have a greater risk of fracturing because of incompletely ossified bone. False
In intramembranous ossification, the process of appositional growth refers to the: addition of an outside layer of osseous tissue on flat bones.
The humerus articulates proximally with the scapula.
Which of the following may cause skeletal variations? All of the above may cause skeletal variations
In bone formation, the cells that produce the organic matrix are the: osteoblasts.
When the knee is flexed, the patella can be easily distinguished. False
As the activity of osteoblasts increases, the: amount of calcium in bone increases and level of calcium in the blood decreases.
Which structures are unique to the fetal skull and provide additional space for molding the head shape as the baby passes through the birth canal? fontanels
Blood calcium levels involve secretion of which two hormones? parathyroid and calcitonin
Bones grow in diameter by the combined action of which two of the three bone cell types? osteoblasts and osteoclasts
A contraction in which the tension within the muscle remains the same but the length changes is called a(n) _____ contraction. isotonic
The ability of muscle cells to respond to nerve stimuli is called: irritability.
In terms of function, which is considered an immovable joint? Synarthrosis
Tilting the foot upward, decreasing the angle between the top of the foot and the front of the leg, is called: dorsiflexion.
Glucose can be stored in the muscle as: glycogen.
Which of the following is not an end-product of the breakdown of ATP? All of the above are end-products of the breakdown of ATP.
The first event to occur in muscle relaxation is that: the sarcoplasmic reticulum begins actively pumping calcium back into its sacs.
Which of the following is not a part of the neuromuscular junction? T-tubules
All of the following are noninflammatory joint disorders except: juvenile rheumatoid arthritis.
The substance that attracts oxygen in the myoglobin molecule is: iron.
The type of movement possible at a synovial joint depends on the: shape of the articulating surfaces of the bones.
Painful muscle contractions or involuntary twitches are called: cramps.
Which of the following proteins found in myofilaments contains the cross-bridges? Myosin
The purpose of creatine phosphate in muscle contraction is to: replenish energy supply.
The lactate produced by anaerobic respiration is converted back to glucose in the: liver
Compared with the outside of the neuron, the inside has a(n) ____ charge. negative
When an impulse reaches a synapse: chemical transmitters are released.
Which is true of a neuron with a resting potential? The sodium pump has moved Na+ to the outside of the plasma membrane.
Which of the following antidepressants acts by blocking the action of monoamine oxidase (MAO)? Phenelzine
A slight shift away from the resting membrane potentials in a specific region of the plasma membrane is called a _____ potential. local
Acetylcholine is in the same class of neurotransmitters as: none of the above.
The neurotransmitter(s) that inhibit(s) the conduction of pain impulses is(are): enkephalins.
Serotonin is an example of a(n): amine neurotransmitter.
For a neurotransmitter to produce an inhibitory postsynaptic potential, which of the following channels must open? Potassium and/or chloride channels
Excitatory neurotransmitters are most likely to: initiate an action potential.
Severe depression can be caused by a deficit in certain brain synapses of: amines
When current leaps across an insulating myelin sheath from node to node, the type of impulse conduction is called: saltatory conduction.
During a relative refractory period: the action potential can be initiated with a strong stimulus.
Dopamine, epinephrine, and norepinephrine are classified as: catecholamines.
The fastest nerve fibers in the body can conduct impulses up to approximately _____ meters per second. 130
Which of the following is not an example of sympathetic stimulation? Constriction of the bronchioles
The vomiting reflex is mediated by the: medulla.
Audition is a function of the _____ lobe. temporal
Norepinephrine is liberated at: most sympathetic postganglionic nerve endings.
The parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions always act with a cooperative influence, and through summation of the impulses, the effect can be increased. False
Most effectors of the autonomic nervous system are dually innervated by sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons. True
A mixed nerve is one that: A mixed nerve is one that:
Which is not true of the dorsal nerve root? All of the above are true.
Normal infants will show the Babinski reflex up to the age of _____ years. 1.5-2
Which of the following is a correct statement? There are 5 lumbar nerve pairs.
Impulses sent over which of the following tracts could result in voluntary movement, especially of the hands, fingers, feet, and toes of the opposite side? Lateral corticospinal
The part of the brain that assists in the maintenance of balance is the: cerebellum.
Cerebrospinal fluid is formed by filtration of blood in the: choroid plexuses.
Which of the following is not true? One bundle of nerve fibers (nerve roots) projects from each side of the spinal cord.
Tic douloureux is a painful neuralgia of the _____ nerve. trigeminal
The last step in the nonsteroid hormone mechanism of action is: protein kinases activate other enzymes.
When a small amount of one hormone allows a second hormone to have its full effect, the phenomenon is called: permissiveness.
The two-point discrimination test can be used to measure: the sensitivity of the skin in various parts of the body.
All of the following are true statements except: aspirin produces some of its effects by increasing PGE synthesis.
All of the following are nonsteroid hormones except: cortisol
Which of the following is a function of glucagon? Tends to increase blood glucose concentrations
The receptors responsible for sensing crude and persistent touch are the: Ruffini corpuscles.
The production of thyroid hormone is stimulated by another hormone from the: anterior pituitary.
Visceroceptors are located in which of the following? Internal organs
The olfactory tract carries impulses associated with: smell.
The major hormone produced by the corpus luteum is: progesterone.
The type of cells that secrete ACTH are: corticotrophs.
One of the few hormones that functions on a positive-feedback loop is: oxytocin.
Sensory impulses ending in what part of the CNS trigger imprecise or “crude” sensation awareness? Thalamus
Accommodation for near vision necessitates all of the above.
The physiological mechanism that dissolves clots is known as fibrinolysis.
Inhibition of sympathetic vasoconstrictor impulses is considered a major mechanism of vasodilation.
Blood volume per kilogram of body weight varies inversely with: body fat.
The vagus is said to act as a “brake” on the heart. This situation is called vagal inhibition.
All of the following are true statements except: both atria receive their blood supply from branches of the right and left coronary arteries.
The mechanisms of which three hormones work together to regulate blood volume? aldosterone, ANH, and ADH
The heart begins beating in the fetus at about what stage of development? After about 4 weeks
Which two factors promote the return of venous blood to the heart? blood-pumping action of respirations and skeletal muscle contractions
The difference between systolic pressure and diastolic pressure is called pulse pressure.
A decrease in the amount of white blood cells is called leukopenia
What is the function of the spleen? tissue repair hematopoiesis, red blood cell, platelet destruction, blood reservoir
During their residence in the thymus, pre-T cells develop into _____, cells that proliferate as rapidly as any in the body. thymocytes
Adaptive immunity, part of the body’s third line of defense, is orchestrated by two different classes of a type of white blood cell called the lymphocyte.
Which protein interferes with the ability of viruses to cause disease? interferon
Activities that result in central movement or flow of lymph are called lymphokinetic activities.
Each cortical nodule is composed of packed lymphocytes that surround a less dense area called a germinal center.
Masses of lymphoid tissue located in a protective ring under the mucous membranes in the mouth and the back of the throat are called tonsils.
Lymphatics in the villi of the small intestines are called lacteals.
Chemotaxis is the process by which a cell navigates toward the source of the chemotactic factor by way of detecting and then moving toward higher concentrations of the factor.
The body’s defense mechanisms can be organized into one of two major categories of immune mechanisms; these are innate and adaptive immunity
The lymphatic system serves various functions in the body. The two most important functions of this system are fluid balance and immunity.
Antibodies are proteins of the family called immunoglobulins.
The movement of phagocytes from blood vessels to an inflammation site is called diapedesis.
Lymphocytes that kill many types of tumor cells and cells infected by different kinds of viruses are known as natural killer cells.
Recognition of antigens by antibodies occurs when an antigen’s epitopes fit into and bind to an antigen molecule’s antigen-binding site.
Which of the following is not a means of transporting oxygen in the blood? Combined with the bicarbonate ion (HCO3–)
Normal, quiet breathing is known as: eupnea.
By the time the blood leaves the lung capillaries to return to the heart, what percentage of the blood’s hemoglobin has united with oxygen? 97%
About 98.5% of the oxygen carried by systemic arterial blood is attached to: hemoglobin.
The PCO2 in alveolar air is _____ blood. less than in the systemic venous and equal to the systemic arterial
Which type of breathing is characterized by repeated sequences of deep gasps and apnea, and is usually seen in people with increased intracranial pressure? Biot’s breathing
The PCO2 in the atmosphere is: less than in the alveolar air.
Which of the following is not a regulated process associated with the functioning of the respiratory system? Control of cell metabolism rate
A type of breathing characterized by gradually increasing tidal volume for several breaths followed by several breaths with gradually decreasing tidal volume is: Cheyne-Stokes respiration.
Dalton law states that the partial pressure of a gas in a mixture of gases is _____ to the total pressure of the mixture. directly related to the concentration of that gas in the mixture and
The sodium cotransport or coupled transport acts to transport sodium ions and glucose molecules _____ the GI lumen. passively out of
Rotavirus can cause what life-threatening condition in infants? Diarrhea
Which step of deglutition is under voluntary control? Oral stage
Polysaccharides are hydrolyzed into disaccharides by enzymes known as: amylase.
The substances absorbed into the lymph capillaries are: glycerol and fatty acids.
Hydrolysis refers to: using water to split larger compounds into smaller ones.
An end product of fat digestion is: glycerol.
The final product of carbohydrate digestion is a: monosaccharide.
The process of swallowing is known as: deglutition.
The hormone thought to be a messenger causing release of digestive enzymes from the intestinal mucosa is: vasoactive intestinal peptide.
Which of the following is a disaccharide? Sucrose
Which of the processes of mechanical digestion involves the esophagus? Deglutition and Peristalsis
Which of these is not an example of mechanical digestion? Moistening the food
When classified according to the kind of chemical reactions catalyzed, digestive enzymes are referred to as _____ enzymes. hydrolyzing
Bicarbonates are useful in the GI tract to: neutralize hydrochloric acid.
Water normally leaves the body through _____ exits. four
In young adults, the percentage of body weight composed of water will average about _____ for males and _____ for females. 60%; 50%
Which of the following substances is released by the juxtaglomerular cells? Renin
If the pH of the blood were 7.23, it would be slightly more acidic than normal.
What is the most abundant cation in intracellular fluid? Potassium
Which of the following is a true statement? Arterial blood has an average pH of 7.41.
Which of the following ratios of base bicarbonate to carbonic acid will maintain a normal pH? 20:1
Edema is defined as abnormally large amounts of fluid in the: intercellular spaces.
When comparing the volume of the various body fluids, the correct order going from highest to lowest in total volume would be: intracellular fluid, interstitial fluid, plasma.
The regulation of acid-base balance in the body fluids refers to the control of _____ ion concentration. hydrogen
Which of the following is(are) classified as an acid-forming food? Meat, Eggs, Poultry
Which of the following pairs are almost identical when compared chemically? Plasma and interstitial fluid
Which of the following is not a method used for parenteral administration? By mouth
When the adrenal cortex is stimulated to increase its secretion of aldosterone, the first thing that happens is a(n): increase in the kidney tubule reabsorption of sodium.
Edema may occur when: all of the above occur.
Which of the following glands is not a paired accessory gland of the male reproductive system? Prostate
Which of the following is not a function of the ovary? It produces follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
The phase of the menstrual cycle that occurs between the expulsion of the ovum from the ovary and the onset of menses is the _____ phase. luteal
The main factor determining male fertility is the: number of sperm ejaculated.
Which of the following functions is not usually associated with the uterus? Fertilization
The hormone that causes the follicle to rupture and the egg to be expelled is: luteinizing hormone (LH).
Which statement is the best explanation of “immune infertility”? Antigen-antibody reaction in males causes destruction of sperm, resulting in infertility.
Which of the following hormones causes ejection of milk into the mammary ducts, making it accessible for the infant? Oxytocin
What reproductive duct is divided into the head, body, and tail? Epididymis
Which of the following is true of the essential organ in the reproductive system? It produces gametes, It is called the testis in the male, It is called the gonad in both sexes.
Created by: dianabobadilla
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