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Round 3 NMBE
FA review 3 2021
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What is the translocation associated with Follicular lymphoma? | t (14;18) |
| t (14;18) Dx? | Follicular lymphoma |
| How does the t (14;18) translocation work? | Upregulation of the anti-apoptotic Bcl-1, leading to blocking apoptosis and promoting growth of the malignant cells |
| What is Verruca plana? | Flat warts |
| How are verruca plana (flat warts) characterized? | Flat-topped, skin-colored papules, often i the face |
| What is the underlying infection of Verruca plana? | HPV infection |
| What type of hypersensitivity is GVHD? | Type IV hypersensitivity reaction |
| What is the pathology of GVHD? | Grafted donor immunocompetent T cell that rejects host cells |
| What condition is due to grafted DONOR T cells rejecting host cells? | GVHD |
| How is probability calculated? | Multiplying the probabilities of each individual outcome |
| What is the relation between prevalence and PPV? | Increase in prevalence is associated with an increase in PPV |
| If prevalence increases what is the effect on NPV: Increase, decrease, remain the same? | Decrease |
| What are some cytokines that stimulate vessel growth in granulation tissue? | VEGF, PDGF, EGF, angioproteins, FGF, and TGF-beta |
| How many days, approximately, does a wound healing present with granulation tissue? | 3 days after wound occurs |
| What type of tissue is likely to be present or found in the process of wound healing, 3 days after initial wound? | Granulation tissue |
| Useful interview method to ensure comprehension by the patient | Teach-back method |
| What is the most likely diagnosis in a person with severe acute mid-abdominal pain "out of proportion"? | Mesenteric ischemia |
| Which mesenteric artery is most likely by affected by a acute thrombosis, leading to mesenteric ischemia? | Superior Mesenteric artery |
| Is the Superior or Inferior Mesenteric artery affected in most cases of Acute Mesenteric ischemia? | Superior Mesenteric artery |
| Is a person with AFIB more likely to develop an embolism or thrombosis of an artery? | Embolism |
| What is the Alveolar gas equation? | PAO2 = [FI02 x (Patm - P H2O)] - (PCO2/RespQ) |
| What are some common clinical features and symptoms of SLE? | Malar rash, arthralgia, fever, cytopenia, serositis, and nephritis |
| What is the most common cause of anemia in SLE? | Anemia of chronic disease or autoimmune hemolytic anemia |
| What type of hypersensitivity reaction is SLE? | Type II hypersensitive reaction |
| What condition or state causes islet B-cells to secrete less insulin? | Hypoglycemia |
| What happens to the ATP-sensitive Potassium channels in a state of hypoglycemia? | Remain open leading the membrane to fail depolarization |
| What lab technique can be used to detect lesser amount of viral RNA in order to diagnose sooner HIV infection? | RT-PCR |
| What are the components of the Charcot triad? | RUQ pain, fever, and jaundice |
| What condition is seen with Charcot triad? | Ascending cholangitis resulting from bacterial infection of the common bile duct |
| Which duct is often infected in cases of Ascending cholangitis? | Common bile duct |
| What is the most common cause of common duct obstruction? | Gallstone |
| Typical or Atypical antipsychotic ZIPRASIDONE? | Atypical |
| What is the most common ECG association of Ziprasidone? | QT prolongation |
| When do most nontraumatic SAH occur? | During the night |
| Which factor or value in "Skewed distribution" is the most sensitive? | Mean |
| Which value in a "Skewed distribution" is the one the moves the most toward the direction of the skew? | Mean |
| Which value represents the highest point in a Skewed distribution graph? | Mode |
| Where does the median lay in a Skewed distribution graph? | Between the mode and the mean |
| In a "Positive" Sked distribution graph, which value would be on the left? | Mode |
| Mean < Median < Mode, describes a negative or positive skewed distribution graph? | Negative Skew |
| Which is the feedback associated with GFR regulation? | Tubuloglomerular feedback |
| Which cells are affected by Shigella flexneri to cause bloody diarrhea? | Microfold cells in the GI tract |
| S. flexneri is: | Non-motile, gram-negative bacterium |
| Is shigella motile or non-motile? | Non-motile |
| What is Visceral Larva Migrans? | Parasitic infection presented with hepatomegaly, cough, wheeze, abdominal pain, cutaneous symptoms, and vision loss |
| Which type of granulocyte is key in killing parasites? | Eosinophils |
| What is chronic effect due to OSA? | Chronic hypoxia and secondary Polycythemia due to intermittent collapse of the upper airways |
| What is the MC primary childhood brain tumor? | Pilocytic Astrocytoma |
| Where are most commonly located the Pilocytic Astrocytoma? | Posterior fossa |
| What common childhood brain tumor is most often located in the Posterior Fossa? | Pilocytic Astrocytoma |
| What are the common associative conditions of HLTV-1? | 1. Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma 2. HTLV-1 myelopathy |
| What do all benzodiazepines have, high efficacy or potency? | High Potency |
| What is the risk of benzodiazepine's high potency? | Increase risk of developing tolerance |
| What are two commonly used short-acting benzodiazepine? | Oxazepam and Alprazolam |
| Why are short acting benzodiazepines often preferred over long acting? | Decreased risk of developing dependency |
| What is a common example of a ringworm? | Tinea corpora |
| Description of rash caused by Tinea corpora. | Erythematous patch or plaque taht spreads outward with central clearing |
| What is used to treat Tinea corpora infection? | Ketoconazole |
| MOA of Ketoconazole: | Blocks the formation of fungal membrane sterols by inhibiting fungal cytochrome P-450 |
| What are the most common pathogens causative of non-bullous impetigo? | Staph aureus and Group A streptococci |
| What is a lab that is seen with Pulmonary Embolism? | Positive d-dimer test |
| What are two common genetic abnormalities tahat often increase the risk of developing PE? | Facto V Leiden deficiency and Protein C/S deficiency |
| What is Presbyopia? | Part of natural aging in which the lens of the eye losses its normal accommodation power |
| What is hard to focus on patients with Presbyopia, near or far-away object? | Near objects |
| What type (part of nephron) dysfunction is described in Fanconi syndrome? | Renal Proximal Convoluted tubular dysfunction |
| Is Fanconi syndrome presented with low levels of which electrolytes? | Hypokalemia (K+) and hypophosphatemia (Po3) |
| What is the best form of emergency contraception for obese patients? | Insertion of copper IUD |
| How does a Copper IUD work? | Prevents fertilization by affecting sperm viability and function |
| What are the three main factors leading to Osteoarthritis? | Joint trauma, obesity, and advanced age |
| Which part of the skull are Oligodendrogliomas most likely located? | Frontal lobes |
| What term is used to describe the cells giving rise of an Oligodendroglioma? | "Fried egg" appearance |
| What is the function of Oligodendrocytes? | Myelinate multiple CNS axons |
| Which nervous system cells' function is to myelinate multiple CNS axons? | Oligodendrocytes |
| Is fetal Hb composed of increased or decreased levels of 2,3-BPG? | Decreased |
| A decrease in 2,3-BPG leads to what side shift of the Oxygen-Hemoglobin Dissociation curve? | Left-sided shift |
| Which type of diuretics can cause Euvolemic hyponatremia? | Thiazide |
| How do Thiazides cause hyponatremia? | Inhibition of NaCl absorption and limit the ability of the kidney to dilate urine |
| What is the most common supratentorial childhood tumor? | Craniopharyngioma |
| What are the main symptoms accompanying a Craniopharyngioma? | Headaches and bitemporal hemianopsia |
| Which endocrinologic condition is commonly associated or developed due to a Craniopharyngioma? | Hypopituitarism |
| Which brain malignancy in a child may be associated with low serum levels of ADH, TSH, GH, Gonadotropin, and ACTH secretion? | Craniopharyngioma |
| Upward-moving great toe with fanning of the other toes when the bottom of the foot is stroked | Babinski sing |
| At what age does the Babinski sign commonly starts disappearing? | 12 months of age |
| What tissues or structures of the genitourinary are commonly injured in a Straddle injury? | Vulva, vagina, testicles, scrotum, and urethra |
| Which part of the urethra is injured in a Straddle injury? | Bulbous urethra |
| What are the genital structures developing from the Mesonephric ducts? | Bladder trigone, Epididymis, Ejaculatory duct, Ductus deferens, and Seminal vesicles |
| What does the mnemonic "BEEDS" commonly describe? | Derivatives of the Mesonephric ducts |
| BEEDS stand for: | Bladder trigone Epididymis Ejaculatory duct Ductus deferens Seminal vesicles |
| What is Paronychia? | Infection of the nail fold and present with pain, erythema, swelling, and/or abscess lateral(proximal) fold |
| What breast condition is characterized by an eczematous lesion of the nipple and/or areola? | Paget disease of the Breast |
| Paget disease of the breast is characterized by: | Erythematous lesions of the nipple or areola |
| What breast malignancy is often seen underlying Paget disease of the breast? | Ductal breast carcinoma |
| Which breast pathology is often said to be the underlying condition leading to Ductal Breast carcinoma? | Paget disease of the Breast |
| What is caused by Diabetic neuropathy? | Axonal damage, as result of chronic hyperglycemia |
| What anticonvulsant is used to treat DM neuropathic pain? | Gabapentin |
| What is the MOA of Gabapentin? | Inhibition of presynaptic voltage-gated Calcium channels, preventing release of excitatory glutamate and thereby providing analgesia |
| Which channels are blocked by Gabapentin? | Presynaptic voltage-gated Calcium channels |
| What is the secondary cause of cystitis in sexually active women? | S. saprophyticus |
| What are the main labs that indicate DIC in a patient? | Thrombocytopenia, increased clotting time (increased PT and PPT), D-dimer, and decreased clotting factors |
| What is the cause for developing DIC? | Widespread microthrombi in small vessels |
| What enzyme is inhibited in a disulfiram reaction? | Aldehyde dehydrogenase |
| What does the inhibition of Aldehyde dehydrogenase lead to accumulation of? | Acetaldehyde in the blood |
| Which DM-2 drug is associated with developing Disulfiram reaction? | Tolbutamide |
| What type of DM drug is Tolbutamide? | Sulfonylurea |
| What DM medication should not be combined with alcohol due to resulting in disulfiram reaction? | Tolbutamide |
| Tolbutamide + beers and wine = | Disulfiram-like reaction |
| How does a Primary CNS lymphoma present? | Single ring-enhancing lesion on brain MRI |
| Which viral pathogen is highly associated with Primary CNS lymphoma? | EBV |
| Which cells are infected by EBV? | B cells |
| Which B-cell receptor is used by EBV to infect the cell? | CD21 receptor |
| Which brain lobe is responsible for Declarative memory? | Medial temporal lobe |
| Traumatic damage to the medial temporal lobe may lead to deficits in which cognitive ability? | Declarative memory |
| What is Declarative memory? | Long-term memory dedicated to factors and evens |
| What are the quad screen blood levels in Edward syndrome? | Low levels of AFP, conjugated estriol, and h-hGC, with normal inhibin level |
| What is the most common cause of Edward syndrome? | Nondisjunction of chromosome 18 during Meiosis I or II |
| What malignancy is associated with t (9:22) translocation? | CML |
| What are the main types of cells seen in elevated amounts in a CML patient? | Elevated leukocyte count with basophilia and eosinophilia |
| What is the associated protein produced in CML? | BCR-ABL fusion protein |
| Which condition is associated with BCR-ALB fusion protein? | CML |
| How does the BCR-ABL fusion protein work? | Constitutively active tyrosine kinase receptor that promotes the proliferation of malignant cells in CML |
| What gives rise or development to Hemiballismus? | Acute lacunar infract of the subthalamic nucleus |
| In a healthy individual, what does the Subthalamic nucleus normally does? | Directly excites the internal segment of the globus pallidus |
| What is the most important cutaneous manifestation of Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)? | Rheumatoid nodules |
| What are the some characteristics of a complete mole? | 1. Uterine size larger than expected 2. High B-hCG 3. Multiple hypoechoic foci ("bag of grapes") 4. No fetal parts |
| Is a complete mole seen with fetal parts or no fetal pars? | No fetal parts |
| What are the associated karyotypes of complete moles? | Diploid with 46, XX or 46, XY |
| Is the karyotype present in complete moles, paternally or maternally derived? | Paternally derived |
| If a mole has a diploid set of chromosomes, it is safe to assume it's a complete or incomplete mole? | Complete mole |
| How does cyclosporine cause AKI? | Intrarenal vasoconstriction |
| MOA of Cyclosporine: | Blocks production of IL-2 and thereby blocks activation of T cell |
| Which interleukin is inhibited by Cyclosporine? | IL-2 |
| Common IL-2 blocker used in prevention of transplant rejection | Cyclosporine |
| Rifampin: inducer or inhibitor of the CYP450 system: | Inducer |
| What is the possible type of bias seen with Cohort studies? | Selection bias |
Created by:
rakomi
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