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_____ indicates a preferred, but not mandatory, method of accomplishment SHOULD
_____ and ______ indicate a mandatory requirement WILL, SHALL
_____ indicates operating procedures, techniques, etc. which could result in damage to equipment if not followed carefully CAUTION
Who is in command of all persons aboard the aircraft, the final authority for requesting/accepting aircrew or mission waivers, and the final authority for making decisions not assigned to higher authority? THE PILOT IN COMMAND
The unit commander will designate a mission commander when more than two aircraft are assembled to perform missions away from home station TRUE
During other than unilateral training missions, any crew can fly as the last ship in the formation even if it is a deputy lead or element lead position TRUE
What is the maximum Flight Duty Period (FDP) for a basic C-130 aircrew 16 HRS (12 HRS WHEN AUTOPILOT IS INOPERATIVE)
What is the maximum Flight Duty Period (FDP) for an augmented C-130 aircrew 18 HRS (16 HRS WHEN AUTOPILOT IS INOPERATIVE)
The max Flight Duty Period for training, tactical, and FCF/ACF missions is 16 hrs (12 hrs when the autopilot is inoperative). However, all mission-related events must be completed during the first ____ hrs 12 HRS
Crewmembers will not perform aircrew duties w/i 12 hrs of consuming alcoholic beverages. What time is used to calculate this 12 hr period? 1.SCHEDULED T/O TIME 2.ALFA STANDBY FORCE LEGAL FOR ALERT TIME 3.EARLIEST SHOW TIME FROM BRAVO ALERT
For all missions, the latest allowable alert time is ____ hrs after the expected alert time. the PIC may extend that window to ____ hrs when flying as primary crew or _____ hrs when flying in deadhead status 6,8,12
If a mission can't depart w/i ___ hrs of scheduled t/o, the PIC will contact a C2 agent and establish a new expected alert time. The PIC may extend t/o window to ___ hrs. 4,6
An a/c and or aircrew postured to permit launch w/i 3 hrs describes what type of standby force? BRAVO STANDBY FORCE
Who can grant waivers to operate with degraded equipment on local training missions? OC/CC OR EQUIVALENT W/ MISSION EXECUTION AUTHORITY
The radar (pilot's display/sweep on APN-241 equipped aircraft) is required if thunderstorms or hazardous conditions exist that can be detected by airborne radar are forecasted or exist along the route of flight, unless waived by the aircraft commander. FALSE
For Cat. I routes outside the Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (MNPS) airspace in the North Atlantic Region or the Composite Hawaii/Mainland US Route System, who decides the min. navigational capability required to safely accomplish mission? The Pilot in Command
During an NVG airland/assault training sortie, the radar fails en route. The crew must return to base to have the radar repaired or discontinue NVG airland/assault operations. FALSE
During NVG operations the pilot's radar altimeter fails; however, the navigator's radar altimeter continues to function correctly. The crew may continue conducting NVG operations using only the navigator's radar altimeter. FALSE
When responding to challenge and response items in the aircrew checklists, momentary hesitations for coordination items, ATC interruptions, and deviations specified in the flight manual, etc. are authorized. TRUE
SCNS with integrated GPS and a minimum of one INS must be operational for low-level flights flown using NVG en route altitudes. 1.SCNS with integrated GPS 2.a minimum of one INS
Who may be absent from their duty station at any one given time? Only one pilot or the flight engineer may be absent at a time
Crewmembers will have seat belts fastened when occupying a duty position, unless crew duties dictate otherwise. TRUE
Total lights-out operations are authorized with concurrence of the controlling agency in what type(s) of airspace? 1.Warning areas 2.Restricted areas
"Taping" with NVG compatible chemical lights is an acceptable lighting scheme for NVG airland operations. FALSE
Any crewmember seeing a deviation of ______ feet altitude or 10 knots in airspeed, or a potential terrain or obstruction problem, will immediately notify the PF. 200
The assertive statement that provides a clear warning sign of a deviation/loss of SA,that breaks the error chain before a mishap occurs, notifies when the a/c or crew depart from guidelines, scenario, or someone is simply uncomfortable with the condition? "Time out"
The minimum runway width for max effort operations is: 60 Feet
The minimum taxiway width for C-130 operations is _______ feet. 30
Do not taxi an aircraft within _____ feet of obstructions without wing walkers monitoring the clearance between aircraft and obstructions. 25
During reverse taxi operations, stop no less than ____ feet from an obstruction even if using a wing walker. 25
During an IFR departure the aircraft must be able to meet the published climb gradient for the departure runway with all engines operating. What climb gradient will be used if there is no climb gradient published? 200 ft/nm
If the weather at the departure field is below landing minimums, can the aircraft still depart? Yes, but a departure alternate is required
When briefed of potential en-route turbulence, crews should confirm the type of a/c which forecast turbulence applies, or what type of a/c reported the turbulence, to gain an accurate picture for their flight. What category is the C-130 for turbulence? Category III aircraft
Do not fly directly above (within 2,000 feet) thunderstorms or cumulonimbus clouds. If unable to vertically clear thunderstorms or cumulonimbus clouds by at least 2000 feet, avoid them by at least ____ NMs at or above FL 230. 20
The potential for lightning strikes exists within which of the following conditions? 1.Within plus or minus 5000 feet of the freezing level 2.Within plus or minus 8° of the freezing level
There should be enough oxygen on board the aircraft for takeoff to accomplish the planned flight from the equal time point (ETP) should oxygen be required. What is the minimum amount required? 5 liters
What is the minimum weather requirement for a fully current/qualified crew to conduct an NVG departure? 300 ft ceiling and 1 sm visibility
While in-flight , the navigator will recompute the ETP when the actual time of arrival at a reporting point is _____ minutes or more ahead or behind the planned time if the change was caused by erroneous wind information. 15
Navigators will annotate suitable emergency airfields on flight charts. Optimum emergency airfields are located within how many nautical miles of the intended route of flight? 50 NM
In flight fuel management procedures are required on Category I routes when the time between the LSAF and FSAF is how long? 5 hours or more
For fuel conservation purposes, the unidentified extra should not exceed the required ramp fuel load by more than how many pounds? 2,200 pounds.
If either the pilots’ NVGs, SCNS, pressure altimeter, radar altimeter, GPS, or aircraft radar fail, climb to MSA until resolved. In addition, climb to MSA to resolve any T.O. 1C-130(x)/(x)-1 Section III procedures, commensurate with tactical situation. True
If on NVGs, fly NVG en route altitude through slowdown. After slowdown, the aircraft may descend from run-in to the drop altitude specified in AFI 11-231, AMT, SPINS, or mission planning sheet provided the following requirement(s) are met: 1.when the drop zone is in sight and will remain in sight 2.when a positive position is identified 3.adequate terrain clearance is assured
Low-level navigation charts will be annotated with the most recent CHUM. In no case will CHUM coverage be less than ____ NMs either side of the entire planned route of flight. 22
Due to peacetime route restrictions, routes will not be planned/flown with less than ____ NM separation when below 2,000 feet AGL from sensitive environmental areas: hospitals, fish hatcheries, large poultry complexes, ostrich and emu farms. 1
Due to peacetime route restrictions, routes will not be planned or flown with less than _____ NMs of separation from nuclear power plants. 3
What is the minimum taxi interval between aircraft during formation operations? 1.One aircraft length with four engines operating 2.Two aircraft lengths with two engines operating
What is the minimum takeoff interval between aircraft during formation operations? 15 seconds
Lead will announce airspeed changes of _____-knots or greater at night. 15
While conducting a formation rejoin during visual formation operations, the rejoining aircraft will maintain _____ feet above or below the formation until the formation is in sight and clearance to rejoin is granted. 500
Minimum formation spacing for a CDS airdrop is ______ feet between aircraft. 6000
What is the minimum landing interval between aircraft during visual formation operations? 15 seconds
Touch-and-go landings are approved during formation operations as long as the lead aircraft is the only aircraft that performs the touch-and go and all other aircraft in the formation perform a full-stop landing. FALSE
What is the minimum spacing between aircraft during SKE operations? 4000 feet
What drift value will each aircraft in a SKE formation use to determine SKE crosstrack for airdrops? The lead aircraft's drift
What is the minimum landing interval between aircraft during SKE formation operations? 5000 feet
What is the minimum weather required for an NVG formation departure? 1.300/1 2.Approach minimums *1 or 2, whichever is higher
As long as the loadmaster has looked at the load and verified the correct weight and parachute types, the navigator is not required to verify the load information. FALSE
The Ten Minute advisory is a required call during a heavy equipment airdrop. FALSE
During personnel airdrops, when must the aircraft be at or above drop altitude and stable for the drop? 1.One minute 2.Two minutes (jumpmaster directed)
Prior to the "one minute advisory" who may call a "no-drop" should unsafe conditions exist? The PIC, all other crewmember will notify the PIC of conditions that could jeopardize a safe drop.
A "no-drop" will be called if the slowdown checklist in not complete prior to ________. The 5 second call
Jumpmaster directed airdrops are authorized for formations of less than 3 aircraft. FALSE
Navigators are not required to compute a CARP for jumpmaster directed airdrops. FALSE
During a 3-ship combination airdrop, which aircraft is authorized to drop personnel? #3
What is the maximum airdrop load that can be extracted over the ramp for C-130E/H airplanes 61-2358, 62- 1784 and up? 42,000 lbs
It is not recommended to drop CDS at gross weights less than ______. 104,000
Which checklist will be used for free-fall airdrops? CDS checklist
NVG airdrops are authorized on unmarked DZs. FALSE
What is the minimum emergency parachutist bailout altitude for static line operations? 400 ft AGL
What is the minimum emergency parachutist bailout altitude for free-fall operations? 2000 feet AGL
Maintain a flight log on Category I routes or route segment of ______ hours or longer. 3
During tactical arrivals plan to roll out on final at approach speed no lower than ______ feet AGL 300
It is authorized to on-load/off-load using both the ramp and door and the crew entrance door during ERO operations as long a safety observer is posted at the crew entrance door. FALSE
What is the minimum taxiway or ramp space required for a combat off-load Method "A?" 500 feet
What is the maximum weight for pallets to be off-loaded across the ramp at an any one time when using combat offload method "B?" 15,000
AMP 4 lighting configuration (blacked out runways) is not authorized for NVG airland operations. TRUE
What is the maximum altitude for emergency airlift operations? FL 250
On an NVG approach the navigator is required to make which altitude calls? When descending through 100 feet, 50 feet, 25 feet and 10 feet
For tactical VFR approaches, bank angle will not exceed ____ degrees and the aircraft will not descend below 500' AGL until intercepting a normal glide path approaching the final approach course and in a safe position to land. 45
For tactical VFR approaches, bank angle will not exceed 45 degrees and the aircraft will not descend below _____ AGL until intercepting a normal glide path approaching the final approach course and in a safe position to land. 500'
During an IMC approach that will terminate with an NVG landing, transfer of aircraft control will occur no lower than _____ feet AGL. 300
While executing inadvertent weather penetration procedures w/SKE, when level at base altitude lead directs formation to assume IFR interval. At this command, wings reduce airspeed _____ Kts and drift back to 4000 feet, and reset appropriate cross track. 15
When executing inadvertent weather penetration procedures, what climb rate will be used? 1000 FPM
While executing inadvertent weather penetration procedures without SKE, once wingmen have established the climb, they turn ____ degrees right of base heading. 30
When lead directs the formation to execute inadvertent weather procedures without SKE, what is the minimum base altitude allowable? ESA
When executing inadvertent weather penetration without SKE procedures, which element will occupy the base altitude? Last element
When in an overrun, establish safe separation b/w a/c and regain formation position. For element leads once a turn in the safest direction is begun and if xtrack is set, set an additional _____ feet xtrack and monitor position on the TWS&PPI/DVST/RDU. 800
When executing an overrun, establish safe separation between aircraft and reacquire formation position. For wingmen once a turn in the safest direction is begun set an additional _____ feet cross track and monitor formation position. 300
If the navigator's NVGs fail within 2 NMs to landing, the crew must perform a Go-Around. FALSE
When accomplishing an NVG Takeoff, the Navigator will call passing 50, 100, 200, 300, and 400 ft? True
______________ is the worst threat environment for airlift aircraft because the majority of threats are effective at these altitudes. Low Altitude (1,001 feet AGL to 10,000 feet AGL)
If using S-turns as a time control technique and the aircraft turns 30 degrees from course for one minute, then turns 60 degrees back to course for one minute, how much time will be lost? 16 seconds
When flying a Procedure Turn the formation may slow from 170 KIAS to 150 KIAS when holding is not required and within 3 minutes of the initial approach fix (IAF) or when in the holding pattern and cleared for the approach. True
On a downwind recovery, enter the downwind leg for the active landing runway, normally maintaining 200 KIAS and ________ feet above field elevation or traffic pattern altitude, whichever is higher. 1000
On an overhead recovery, establish the initial approach on the runway extended centerline and fly the entry normally maintaining 200 KIAS and ______ feet above field elevation or traffic pattern altitude, whichever is higher. 1500
Ground party (CCT, STT, and DZC) furnish true wind readings. FALSE
Navigators will turn in the AF Form 4018 Computed Air Release Point Computation sheet to the unit tactics office at the completion of the mission. TRUE
Airdrop airspeed for personnel static line is ______ KIAS. 130
Airdrop airspeed for CDS at gross weights less than 120,000 is ______ KIAS. 130
What is the minimum drop altitude for a HVCDS? vertical distance for the load being dropped plus 100 feet
What is the minimum drop altitude for basic airborne trainees? 1250 AGL
When surface winds are unknown (e.g., blind drops to unmanned DZs), the jumpmaster and army airborne mission commander (if designated) will be advised when drop altitude winds exceed _____ knots for personnel drops. 30
A safety zone distance will be established b/w the airborne mission commander and the supported forces' commander subtracted from the DZ trailing edge to reduce off-DZ drops. For peacetime PERS airdrops, the safety zone will never be less than ___ yards. 200
For combination drops, the load requiring the highest drop altitude determines the aircraft drop altitude. TRUE
Airdrop airspeed for HVCDS is ____________. Gross weight dependent. Above 120,000 pounds drops at 140 KIAS. Below 130,000 drops at 130 KIAS.
Minimum airdrop altitude for HVCDS is ________. 100’ plus vertical distance for the load being dropped.
Aircrew members must receive supervised training if their (Circular Error Average) CEA exceeds _______. 225 yards
Airdrops at or above ______ ft AGL will be conducted with high altitude parachutes, either high velocity ring slot or high altitude high/low opening (HAHO/HALO). 3000
For single ship day operations what is the minimum dropzone size for CDS airdrops? 400 yrds wide x 400 yrds long
For single ship day operations what is the minimum drop zone size for heavy equipment airdrops at or below 1100' AGL? 600 yrds wide x 1000 yrds long
The PI will be placed ______ yards from the leading edge of the drop zone for personnel airdrops at night. 350
Peacetime airdrops of actual personnel or equipment for unilateral training will not be made when weather conditions over the DZ are less than a _____ foot ceiling and ______ mile visibility. 300 and 1/2
The airdrop surface wind limit for AF equipment is ______ knots. 17
The airdrop surface wind limit for AF training bundles (SATBs) is ______ knots. 25
The airdrop surface wind limit for non-AF equipment is ______ knots. At the discretion of the supported unit DZSO.
What are the standard letters authorized for marking circular DZs? H and O
During night operations, if flanker lights are used to mark the DZ, what distance will they be located from the PI assuming no obstruction prevents standard marking? 250 meters left and right
During actual personnel night operations, if a trailing edge amber beacon is used to mark the DZ, what distance will it be located from the PI? On DZ centerline 1000 meters from the PI or at the trailing edge of the DZ, whichever is closer
Drop zone surveys are required for all peacetime training airdrops. Once completed the drop zone survey will become obsolete _____ years from the final review and must be redone prior to use. 5
A “NO-DROP” condition,, closing of the DZ, or temporary closing of the DZ will be indicated by: smoke flares 3.scrambles panels
The minimum size dropzone for a High Velocity CDS, single container to 3000ft AGL, Single-ship, day airdrop is _____ in width and _____ in length. 580yds, 660yds
The SCNS integrated GPS receiver is hardwired to the Nav’s IDCU by the ________. ARINC 429 Interface
When applying power to an INU, the SCNS control panel INU switch, must _______________. be placed from OFF directly to ON, bypassing the ATT position.
If the altitude gate is off,___________altitude is used for airdrop calculations at the same time sensitive steering is engaged. Actual
Manual selection of the TP-GL leg of the flight is allowed on the MODE CTRL 1-1 page, regardless of the aircraft’s location to the flight plan. TRUE
For airdrops and ARA’s the waypoint transition type for the Turn Point (TP) is __________. Curved Path
SCNS inhibits all airdrop messages and alerts except the __________ MIN WARN during the racetrack until the aircraft is past the DZ waypoint and TKE is < 120°. 20, 10, and 6
The SCNS power bypass switch allows SCNS to operate____________. in the event of a complete failure of the SCNS control panel
Sensitivity of the HSI with SCNS selected is__________for normal operation and_______ for sensitive steering. 1.5 miles; 500 yards
The INS battery supplies power to the _____ and _______ when airplane power is not available. INU and navigator's IDCU
If the Landing Zone waypoint data is edited and verified after transitioning the IP, the aircraft present position is used as a new IP and ARA geometry and steering information is recalculated based on the new waypoint information. FALSE
A SCNS air alignment may be performed if ____. valid GPS or DVS data is available
When the autopilot is coupled to a SCNS mode, deleting or changing the steer-to waypoint or reverse sequencing will turn the aircraft. TRUE
The navigator may initiate items on the BEFORE TAXI checklist, not requiring crew coordination, prior to the pilot calling for it, provided at least one engine is on speed and its generator is online. TRUE
Although Halon 1211 vapor has a low toxicity, its decomposition products can be hazardous. TRUE
The signal for preparation to abandon the airplane is __________ ring(s) of the alarm bell.(BAILOUT) three short
The jettison switch overrides the RWR, jammer, MWS, O1, O2 chaff and flare inhibit switches in the OFF position (AN/ALE-47) TRUE
If the arming switch is in the ARM position and the EMI Filter/Safety Pins are removed, placing the ground test switch to GND TEST/EMER removes the possibility of dispensing expendables on the ground. FALSE
It is permissible to takeoff with frost on the fuselage PROVIDED it is not on the wings or empennage (lifting surfaces) FALSE
If required, crewmembers may scrape ice from flight surfaces or fuselage, provided they exercise caution to prevent slipping or falling. FALSE
Recommended airspeed for penetration into thunderstorms is 65 knots above power-off stall speed, not to exceed _____ KIAS. 180
Aircraft that have reached 38,000 equivalent baseline hours will not exceed a maximum gross weight of _______ pounds. 139,000
Aircraft that have reached 38,000 equivalent baseline hours will land with a minimum fuel weight of _______ pounds. 15,000
Aircraft that have reached 38,000 equivalent baseline hours will not exceed _____ knots IAS at or below 2,000 feet AGL. 190
First aid kits installed for use on the flight station are located ________. On flight station aft bulkhead
Emergency lights on the C-130 may be actuated by _________ . 1.a decelerating force exceeding 2.5 G's. 2.power failure of the essential DC bus 3.the three position switch on each individual light
Chopping locations, marked in yellow on the inside and black on the outside, are painted on each side of the fuselage ________ . Near each paratroop door
Do not dump fuel under ________ feet above the terrain to prevent the possibility of a ground source igniting the fuel vapors. 5000
If flammable fumes are present, electrical equipment not required to complete the fire/smoke and fume elimination steps should ________ until the fumes are eliminated. not be turned on or off
The airplane is equipped with a 300 psi liquid oxygen system. Under a continuous breathing condition the pressure should read ________ . 270 to 340 psi
The crew entrance door jettison handle is a yellow handle located on the _______ . Flight station ceiling 3 feet left of center line and slightly aft of the pilot's seat
The radiation hazard area for the HF radio antenna is approximately______feet. 5
If a main wheel well fire exists, the area on both sides of the wheel well will be cleared of personnel and equipment for at least ______ feet. 300
Prolonged exposure (5 minutes or more) to high concentrations of fire extinguisher agent should be avoided. TRUE
Bailout from the crew entrance door is not recommended at airspeeds above _____ knots or with the landing gear extended. 150
Do not attempt to inflate the life jacket prior to bailing out as it may be damaged in egress from the airplane as well as hinder the wearer in his exit. TRUE
The crew and/or passengers must not leave ditching positions until it is ascertained that the airplane has stopped forward movement. TRUE
Life raft release handles need not be pulled through their full travel, for complete ejection and inflation of the life raft. FALSE
After ditching, the pilot and copilot's side windows may be used as emergency exits; however, heavy flooding may occur. TRUE
In a ditching situation, the navigator's seat must face forward and full down. TRUE
To obtain direct contact with all intercom stations regardless of their settings use the ________ . call button
An emergency radio will be installed in an accessory kit stowed ____. with each life raft
Emergency escape ropes are located __________. one aft of each overhead escape hatch
The navigators inertial reel will not function automatically nor will the shoulder harness provide restraint if the ________ . seat is facing sideways
The signal for bailout is _________ ring(s) of the alarm bell. one long
During a crash landing the signal for "brace for impact" is ________ ring(s) of the alarm bell. one long
The RADAR ALTIMETER has a __________ warm up. 1 minute
Prior to making a gear-up landing the crew should open and secure the forward, center, and aft escape hatches and paratroop doors. TRUE
In the event a ditching is inevitable, a minimum of ____lbs of fuel should remain at the time of descent from altitude to allow for jettisoning of cargo, assessment of sea conditions, etc. 2,000
A TCAS Resolution Advisory (RA) such as “Climb, Climb NOW”, would never put the airplane outside the performance envelope because the TCAS system knows the configuration of the aircraft at any given time (such as engine out, ramp/door open, etc.). FALSE
As long as engines are off and bleed air is not on the aircraft it is permissible to walk through the propeller arc provided it is a straight line to the crew entrance hatch. FALSE
The hazard area for LAIRCM without safety glasses is: 187 ft
The antenna stabilization switch on the APN-59 radar will be left in the OFF position __________. 1.while taxiing 2.prior to landing 3.inflight while the radar is in STBY
During initial APN 59 warm up and during operation in STBY, set INT controls for minimum intensity to prevent burned spots on the PPI. TRUE
For best results, avoid using the WARN function, the 100/20 or 240/30 range for the first _____________ minute(s) of APN- 59 radar operation. 10
At no time during the APN-59 radar pressurization check should the pressure be allowed to exceed _______ inches of mercury, or the airplane structure may be damaged. 41
Do not operate the radar set until the receiver-transmitter pressure gage reads ________ inches of mercury. 27-32
Do not attempt to make any internal repairs or adjustments to the APN-59 radar set due to dangerous voltages. TRUE
Before placing the APN-59 function switch in SEARCH, BEACON, or WARNING, make sure that all personnel are clear of the antenna radiation pattern. TRUE
Avoid directing APN 59 radar energy beam toward inhabited structures, personnel groupings, or areas where airplanes are being refueled/defueled. TRUE
During the IMC approach, the navigator may call the BEFORE LANDING checklist complete prior to turning the radar antenna stabilization off (APN 59). In all cases however, this checklist item will be accomplished prior to touchdown. TRUE
During the APN-59 radar pressurization system test, the pressure gage should be set at ____in Hg and hold a minimum of _____in Hg for ____ min. 40, 35, 10
While Freeze (FRZ) is selected, the pilot will not be able to select any radar mode. TRUE
When the navigator selects PREC (Nav in Control) the following are true _______________. 1.You gain control of both scans 2."Mode Conflict Removal" message may appear on all RDU's 3.RDU goes to offset presentation
The CUR button selects the type cursor you display. FALSE
The HDG switch determines the orientation on the RDU, available choices are, ______________. HDG, TRK, N, DZ
Pushing the Left button on the Navigator cursor control in GRND or MAN, _____________. reset cursor to default position, along airplane heading in azimuth and at 1/2 range selected.
What are the three built-in-test (BIT) functions for the APN-241 Radar? Start-up (S), Continuous (C), and Operation Initiated (I)
The AN/APN 241 ground mapping capability is provided by which modes? MGM, DBS, and RBGM
The map mode provided during degraded radar operations is_______ (STAB lost condition). RBGM
The two levels of radar position update capability are ____________. normal and precision.
The AP/APN 241 radar can be used for a position update to the SCNS. TRUE
Turbulence is depicted by a ________. flashing white fill in turbulence area.
The windshear (WS) mode is designed to detect the presence of ______________. low level microburst windshear in the take-off and landing environment.
The display format for WS is ______ degrees and ______ NM of range scale. +/- 30, 10
Windshear alerts are based on ______ and _______. flight conditions, range and bearing to detected hazard
There are 3 levels of windshear alerts. TRUE
Skin paint (SP) mode detects and displays airborne targets up to a range of_______ NM. 20
The three display functions that do not require any RF functions are____________. FP, SKE, TCAS
You may display the TCAS on the navigator's RDU. FALSE
While in the WX mode, adjusting the gain will result in: "Out of Cal" message being displayed
If entire SKE formation goes missed approach___. 1.Maintain 150KIAS approach separation and fly to standard SKE departure turnpoints - Q or then direct to BURNN intersection 2.Formation lead requests individual approaches if weather permits 3.Be prepared for a loss of SKE when master departs formation
Lead changes should not normally be planned True
Regardless of the specific emergency encountered: 1.Maintain airplane control 2.Analyze the situation 3.Take coordinated corrective action
Acceptance of an immediate takeoff clearance requires that the a/c make a ____. rolling takeoff
Available aircrew members will assist in clearing during taxi operations and any time the a/c is below ___ ft. MSL 10,000
Sterile cockpit. Limit conversation to that essential for crew coordination and mission accomplishment during ____ and any flight below 10,000ft MSL taxi, takeoff, approach, landing
Clark One is an IFR departure with Clark as the clearance limit. Cancel IFR no later than Clark or request vectors/clearance back to YNG True
If weather conditions preclude a VFR formation takeoff: Depart single ship under IFR-The departure will be filed IFR to a point along the route of flight at which the IFR clearance will be canceled weather permitting
If unable to cancel and proceed VFR at or prior to Clark/Richmond request formation breakup and individual IFR returns to YARS True
On the Yukon One / Kooter One SKE Departures 1.The departure is treated as a SID 2.Each a/c will maintain spearation and fly the published ground track based on radial/DME until reaching Kooter/Yukon 3.At Kooter/Yukon intersection SKE procedures/FCI commands will begin
If a SKE formation has to be maneuvered for traffic separation purposes: TRACON should not issue heading changes of more than 90 degrees nor provide vectoring legs less than 10 miles
No later than slowdown if the formation is not clear of clouds with 3 miles visibility at 3000'MSL ____ 1.The formation will remain at 3000MSL and make a dry pass 2.element leaders will fly TWS and pass FCI commands to wingmen based on timing 3.SKE wingmen shall not reset crosstrack until after the escape turn completed
Do not taxi an aircraft w/i ____ft of obstructions w/o wing walkers monitoring the clearance b/w a/c and obstructions. With wing walkers avoid taxi obstructions by at least ___ft 25, 10
Maximize power settings during all taxi ops False
For other than hard-surfaced runways or taxiways, the airfield must be listed in the ASRR as certified or have a current landing zone (LZ)survey True
When marshallers must stay with a moving a/c, pilots must make sure taxi speeds allow the ground marshaller or signal person to keep their proper position True
When reverse taxiing the loadmaster shall: stop no less than ___ ft from an obstruction even if using a wing walker 25
While reversing both pilots should keep their feet on the rudder pedals to prevent inadvertent braking False
Aircrew must be vigilant regarding taxi speed. Excessive taxi speed is insidious when wearing NVGs continue your NVG scan and reference ___ while taxing SCNS ground speed
Taxi speed should normally be controlled by use of minimum engine power and propeller reversing True
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