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First Aid Review
Second assessment notes
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| In Gaussian distribution, what percentage is associated with 1 SD? | 68% |
| In Gaussian distribution, what percentage is associated with 2 SDs? | 95% |
| How many SDs are associated swth 99.7% in Gaussian distribution? | 3 SD |
| What is the associated percentage in a Gaussian distribution data plot, associated with 3 SDs? | 99.7% |
| What specific enzyme is inhibited by Erythromycin? | CYP3A4 |
| The enzyme CYP3A4 is part of which other major metabolic system? | Cytochrome p450 system |
| What are common or classic symptoms and signs of HYPOGONADISM seen with Klinefelter syndrome? | Infertility, small testes , and low testosterone |
| How is Klinefelter syndrome clinically presented? | Male individual with signs of hypogonadism, long extremities, decreased body hair, and gynecomastia. |
| What protein is produced by Sertoli cell in men? | Inhibin B |
| What androgen is produced by Leydig cells in men? | Testosterone |
| What is the consequence on FSH due to low Inhibin B production? | Increased FSH level |
| What is the result of low testosterone on LH? | Increased LH level |
| Common analog of GnRH | Leuprolide |
| What is the effect of Leuprolide? | Decreased syntheissof sex steroids |
| What common condition is often treated with Leuprolide? | Prostate cancer |
| Common symptoms of giardiasis: | Bloating, flatulence, an foul-smelling non-bloody diarrhea in patients exposed to freshwater sources |
| What diarrhea causing infection is highly associated with foul-smelling diarrhea and exposure to freshwater sources? | Giardia lambia infection |
| What is the histological key for giardiasis? | Teardrop-shapted trophozoites with a ventral suckng disc |
| What infection is often described histologically as "teardrop-shaped trophozoites with ventral sucking disc"? | Giardia lambia infection |
| What is the first line of treatment for Giardiasis? | Metronidazole |
| What is the mode of action of Metronidazole? | Damaging microbial DNA after reductive activation |
| What is Transformation, referring to bacterial genetics? | Process by which a bacterial cell takes up pieces of environmental naked bacterial DNA and express the newly transferred genes |
| What is the physical result of injury to the Supraspinatus muscle? | Inability to lift arm in the first 15 degrees of motion |
| What nerve innervates the Supraspinatus muscle? | Suprascapular nerve |
| What range (degrees) does the Supraspinatus muscle aid in arm abduction? | First 15 degrees |
| Why would damage to the Suprascapular nerve may cause a person to require assistance in abducting the arm the initial 15 degrees? | Since the Supraspinatus is innervated by the Suprascapular nerve, any nerve damage causes function deficits of the muscle |
| What are the classic symptoms associated with SLE? | Arthritis, fever, anemia, ,glomerular renal disease, and multiple skin findings |
| What is the classical face rash associated with SLE? | Butterfly rash on the cheeks |
| Other than the butterfly skin rash over the cheeks and nose, what other cutaneous manifestation is seen with SLE? | Painless nasal and/or oral ulcers |
| What would be the result on GFR and RPF, in case of constriction of the afferent arteriole? | Decrease both GFR and RPF |
| How is PPV calculated? | Dividing the number of TPs by the total to number of initial who tested positive for the condition |
| TP / (TP + FP) = | PPV |
| What is the surgical treatment for hyperthyroidism? | Thyroidectomy |
| Is lipolysis increased or decreased in hyperthyroidism? | Increased |
| Is hyperlipidemia associated with low or high levels of TH in blood? | Low |
| What is Crohn disease? | Chronic inflammatory bowel disease that may involve any portion of the GI tract |
| Which part of the GI tract is often spared in Crohn disease? | Rectum |
| Does Ulcerative colitis or Cronh disease spare the recturm? | Crohn disease |
| Is it in UC or Crohn disease the rectum always involved? | Ulcerative colitis |
| What type of renal calculus (stones) are associated with Crohn disease? | Calcium Oxalate |
| A person with non-bloody diarrhea and recurrent episodes of calcium oxalate nephrolithiasis, may also have which underlying condition? | Crohn disease |
| What value is often used in Case control studies? | Odds ratio |
| What is the simplest way to calculate Odds ratio? | (ad) / (bc) |
| ( ad) ------ (bc) | Odds ratio |
| What is evaluated in a Case control study? | Odds of exposure to one or more risk factors in a group of people with disease against the corresponding odds in a group without the disease |
| What are the fastest fibers in cardiac conduction? | Purkinje fibers |
| Which has faster conduction speed, the atria or ventricles? | Atria |
| Which areas or parts of the cardiac conduction system have the slowest velocities? | AV and SA nodes |
| PAVB-AS nodes | Way to remember cardiac conduction velocities from fastest to slowest |
| How is Relative risk calculated? | a / (a + b) / c / (c + d) |
| What type of studies calculate Relative risk most commonly? | Cohort studies |
| What is the mode of inheritance of Becker muscular dystrophy? | X-linked recessive |
| List of X-linked recessive disorders: | 1. Bruton agammaglobulinemia 2. Duchenne and Becker muscular dystrophies 3. Fabry disease 4. G6PD deficiency 5. Hemophilia A and B 6. Hunter syndrome 7. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome 8. Ocular albinism 9. Ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency 10. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome |
| What some common laboratory findings of Post-infectious glomerulonephritis? | Hematuria, proteinuria (albumine), and low serum complement level. |
| Which bacterial pathogen is most common to cause PIGN in adults? | Staph infection |
| Which bacteria infection is most common to cause PSGN in children? | Streptococcus pyogenes infection |
| Which upper extremity are affected in C7 radiculopathy? | Median and Radial nerves |
| What is a frameshift mutation? | Nucleotide insertion or deletion that alters the reading frame |
| What composes a nucleoside? | The nitrogenous base + deoxyribose sugar |
| What composes a nucleotide? | Nucleoside + Phosphate |
| What pathogen is a common cause of Non-bullous impetigo? | Staph aureus |
| How is non-bullous impetigo characterized? | Vesicles that become pustules and develop yellow, crusted lesions |
| What S. aureus property allows it to convert fibrinogen into fibrin? | Coagulase (+) |
| What does S. aureus been coagulase (+) allow it to do? | Such enzyme helps to convert fibrinogen to fibrin |
| What is the classic symptom of Transitional cell bladder cancer? | Painless hematuria |
| What strongly associated risk factors for developing Transitional cell bladder cancer? | Smoking history and/or aniline dye exposure from industrial work |
| What type of medication is Ipratropium bromide? | Muscarinic antagonist |
| When is Ipratropium bromide commonly used? | Treatment of COPD and asthma, in cases when B-agonists are insufficient |
| MOA of Ipratropium bromide | Competitively blocks muscarinic receptors, prevent ACh-mediated bronchoconstriction |
| What medication is commonly used in COPD or ASTHMA treatment as B-agonists seen not enough? | Ipratropium bromide |
| Which bands or lines of the Skeletal muscle remain unchanged in length during skeletal muscle contraction? | A band |
| Which bands in Skeletal muscle shorten with contraction? | H and I bands |
| True or False. H bands and I bands shorten with Skeletal muscle contraction. | True |
| What are common symptoms of Hyperprolactinemia in women? | Amenorrhea and galactorrhea |
| What causes prolactin secretion? | Excess TRH, which is elevated in primary hypothyroidism |
| Besides low serum levels of T3 and T4, a patient with primary hypothyroidism may also experience what other endocrine imbalance? | Hyperprolactinemia |
| What does ADCC stand for? | Antibody-dependent cell -mediated cytotoxicity |
| How is ADCC assessed? | By a radioisotope release assay experiment, in which radiolabeled cells are mixed with a pathogen, effector immune cells, and IgG antibodies |
| Which antibodies are used in a Radioisotope release assay experiment? | IgG antibodies |
| What are the components needed to perform a Radioisotope release experiment to asses ADCC? | 1. Radiolabeled cells mixed with a pathogen 2. Effector immune cells, 3. IgG antibodies |
| What are common imincess used in Radioisotope release experiment to mesasure ADCC? | Natural killer cells |
| NK cell are positive to which CD marker? | CD16 |
| NK cells contain: | 1. Cell surface marker CD16 2. Fc receptor that is recognized IgG bound to pathogen infected cells |
| What enzymes are released by NK cells? | Perforin and granzymes |
| What is Perforin's role in attacking a n infected cell? | Perforates the target cells |
| Which enzyme secreted by NK cells is known to lyse the target cell? | Granzyme |
| When not asymptomatic, what are the clinical features of Paget disease of the bone? | Bone pain, fractures, increasing head size, or hearing problems |
| What does increased levels of ALP represent? | Increased osteoblast activity |
| Are increased levels of ALP related to increased or decreased activity of osteoblasts? | Increased |
| Is ALP related to osteoblast or osteoclast activity? | Osteoblast |
| What is the classical histological representation of Paget disease of the bone? | Thickened trabeculae with a mosaic pattern |
| Which mnemonic is used to interview a person with hx of alcohol abuse? | CAGE |
| What does the C in "CAGE" stand for in alcohol abuse questionnaire? | If patient feel that the need to Cut down their drinking |
| Which part of CAGE represent asking patient about needing an "Eye Opener"? | E |
| What does an "eye opener" means in respect with drinking alcohol? | Relates to a person that needs a alcohol drink first thing in the morning |
| Besides acromegaly, what is another symptom seen with a GH-secreting pituitary adenoma? | Impaired glucose tolerance |
| Which second messenger receptors are used by GH? | Non-receptors tyrosine kinase |
| What is the key histological finding of Squamous cell lung cancer? | Keratin pearls |
| What malignancy is associated with cell metaplasia with keratinized peraprs, arising from the stratified squamous epithelium, and is strongly associated with smoking tobacco? | Squamous cell lung cancer |
| What serum level is increased in Squamous cell lung cancer? | Hypercalcemia due to PTHrP secretion |
| Where are Paneth cells found? | Crypts of Lieberkuhn in the small intestine |
| What doe Paner cells release? | a-defensins, lysozymes, and TNF |
| What common nosocomial and prolonged-antibiotic use infection is helped with enzymes released by Paneth cells? | C. difficile infection |
| How are Paneth cells identified histologically? | Eosinophilic appearance |
| Which translocation is associated with CML? | t (9;22) chromosomal translocation |
| Which protein is generated by the translocation see with CML? | BCR-ALB fusion protein |
| Which condition is due to formation of BCR-ALB fusion protein? | CML |
| How does BCR-ALB fusion protein work? | Act as a constructively active tyrosine kinase to promote dysregulated cell growth and division |
| Which protein is know to act as an active tyrosine kinase and promote dysregulated cell growth and division? | BCR-ALB fusion protein |
| What Is the first line of treatment for CML? | Imatinib |
| Which condition is treated with Imatinib? | CML |
| MOA of Imatinib: | Inhibition of the BCR-ALB tyrosine kinase |
| Which medication is known to inhibit the BCR-ALB tyrosine kinase? | Imatinib |
| Autoimmune disease caused by antibodies against the ACh receptor in the NMJ | Myasthenia Gravis |
| What medication is often used to diagnose Myasthenia gravis? | Edrophonium |
| SHort-acting, reversible Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used to diagnose MG? | Edrophonium |
| Which condition is often diagnosed with Edrophonium? | Myasthenia gravis |
| How does Edrophonium help to diagnose MG? | Blocks the breakdown of ACh and temporally boosts the levels of ACh at the NMJ |
| Which condition is characterized by intestinal metaplasia of the distal esophagus? | Barrett esophagus |
| What is produced in by the lower esophageal metaplasia in Barrett esophagus? | Formation of Goblet cells, wichi replace the normal squamous epithelium |
| Which cells are produced or appear in Barrett esophagus, that repase the normal squamous epithelium? | Goblet cells |
| Which cation is not reabsorbed by the PCT? | H+ |
| What enzyme is known to stimulate bicarbonate reabsorption in the PCT? | AT II |
| What protein is stimulated by AT II that allows the PCT to reabsorb HCO3-? | Na+/H+ exchanger |
| What are the histologic characteristics of asthma? | Excess mucus production due to hyperplasia of bronchial submucosal glands and goblet cells, bronchial smooth muscle hypertrophy, and Charcot-Leyden crystals |
| What is a very common cause of Euvolemic hyponatremia? | SIADH |
| What common antidepressants may be causative of hyponatremia? | SSRIs |
| What are some common drugs that may cause SIADH? | SSRIs, antipsychotics, anticonvulsants, chemotherapy drugs, and sulfonylurea antihyperglycemic drugs |
| What causes adenomyosis? | Filtration of endometrial (glandular) cells into the uterine myometrium |
| Endometrial cell into the uterine myometrium. Dx? | Adenomyosis |
| How is the uterus described in a patient with Adenomyosis? | Diffusely entoard, soft, "boggy" uterus |
| Woman with menorrhagia, dysmenorrhea, and diffusely enlarged, soft and "boggy" uterus. Dx? | Adenomyosis |
| Which lab is commonly monitored in patients on Heparin due to PE? | Platelet count |
| What is Filgrastim? | Recombinant form of G-CSF, which simulates immature neutrophils to differentiate the bone marrow |
| Which cells are stimulated to growth and mature by the use of Filgrastim? | Neutrophils |
| Which artery is involved or affected in Spinal Artery syndrome? | Artery of Adamkiewicz |
| What structure when operated may be damaged due to proximity to the Adamkiewicz artery? | Surgery of the aorta |
| What are some deficits associated with Spinal Artery syndrome? | 1, Decreased motor strength 2. Decreased pain and temperature sensation 3. Decreased autonomic function |
| What features remain intact in Spinal Artery syndrome? | Vibration and proprioception sensations |
| What leads to monozygotic twins? | Cleavage of a single fertilized embryo |
| What is the result of town cleave between days 4 and 8? | Monozygotic twin with one chorion and two amions |
| What charge is repelled by the glomerular basement membrane, negative or positive charged proteins? | Negatively charged proteins |
| Which measure is the one the most closely estimates GFR? | Inulin clearance |
| How can GFR be calculated in terms of inulin concetratiion? | (urine inulin concentration x Urine flow rate) ------------------------------------------------------ Plasma inulin concentration |
| Stimulation of the carotid sinus baroreceptors lead to a rapid drop or increasing in blood pressure? | Drop in blood pressure |
| How does stimulant the Carotid Sinus baroreceptors lead to decrease in blood pressure? | Decreasing afferent signal output to the glossopharyngeal nerve, which increases sympathetic flow |
| Why is the Glossopharyngeal nerve targeted by stimulation of the Carotid sinus baroreceptors? | The nerve is known to increase sympathetic outflow, leading to hypertension |
| What are complications and symptoms of an Urachal fistula? | Frequent urinary tract infections and urine leaking from the umbilicus |
| During fetal development, the allantois becomes what tissue? | Urachus |
| After the Allantois develops into the Urachus, what is the ligament formed by the remnant of the Urachus? | Medial umbilical ligament |
| Does the urachus derived ligament in adults forms the medial or Lateral umbilical ligament? | Medial umbilical ligament |
| What does Coarctation of the aorta refers to? | Congenital narrowing fht aorta hta leads to significant hypertension in the arms |
| What structure prevents death in infant with Coarctation of the aorta? | Closedure of the PDA |
| What condition is known to be due to damage of C5 and C6 nerve roots? | Erb palsy |
| What is the definition of Number needed to treat (NNT)? | Number of patients who must be given an experimental therapy to achieve the desired outcome in one patient |
| 1 / ARR = | NNT |
| What is the long equation to calculate NNT? | 1 / [(control event rate) - (experimental event rate)] |
| What are symptoms of Adult T-cell leukemia? | Presents with hypercalcemia from lytic bone lesions, hepatosplenomegaly, and cutaneous lesions |
| How are the skin lesions of Adult T-cell leukemia described? | Nodular, indurated, exfoliative, or erythrodermic |
| What causes the high serum calcium in Adult T-cell leukemia? | Lytic bone lesions |
| What is key characteristic of Adult T-cell leukemia useful in distinguishing it? | Cancer associated with human T-cell leukemia virus, a provirus that can be detected in tumor cells. |
| What autoimmune condition is associated with Liebman-Sacks endocarditis? | SLE |
| How are valvular vegetations of Liebman-Sacks endocarditis described? | Small, sterile vegetations composed of fibrin an inflammatory cells, that align either or both sides of the the valve leaflets |
| What is the classical clinical presentation of Pulmonary TB? | Chest pain that worsens on inspiration, fever, night sweats, hemoptysis, and pleural effusion on CXR. |
| What type of stain is used to M. tuberculosis to be visualized? | Auramine-Rhodamine stain |
| Which organism is visualized with Auramine-Rhodamine stain? | M. tuberculosis |
| What is the current most common cause of Bacteria gastroenteritis causing bloody diarrhea? | Salmonella enteritis |
| Description of Salmonella culture: | Seen with Hydrogen sulfide, which appears as green colonies with black center on Hektoen agar culture |
| Which pathogen is growth in Hektoen agar? | Salmonella |
| How does Salmonella appears under Hektoen agar culture? | It posses hydrogen sulfide which appears as green colonies with black center |
| What are desmosomes composed of? | Cadherins |
| What is the function of desmosomes? | Anchor two adjacent cells to each other though keratin cytoskeletal filaments |
| What proteins are used by desmosomes to anchor cells together? | Keratin cytoskeletal filaments |
| What is cut, severed or damaged during labor leading to female fecal incontinence? | Damage to the perineal body and the external anal sphincter |
| Which sphincter may be damaged during labor leading to fecal incontinence? | External anal sphincter |
| Which two tissues or structures may be damaged in woman during labor leading to fecal incontinence? | 1. External anal sphincter 2. Perineal body |
| What organs drain lymph into the Superior Mesenteric lymph nodes? | Jejunum, ileum, cecum, cecal appendix, and the ascending and transverse parts of the colon |
| Which part of the colon does NOT drain lymph into the Superior Mesenteric lymph node? | Descending colon |
| Which parts of the small intestine drain lymph into the Superior Mesenteric lymph node? | Jejunum and Ileum |
| True or False. Only the Jejunum and Ileum drain lymph in the Superior Mesenteric lymph node. | True |
| Which enzymes due to cardiac deficits are elevated in Becker Muscular dystrophy? | Elevated lactate dehydrogenase and aldolase levels |
| What are the mutations seen in BMD? | In-frame deletions |
| Which protein is mutated in BMD? | Dystrophin |
| Is delirium an early or late manifestation of abrupt alcohol withdrawal? | Late manifestation |
| How many days after cease of alcohol consumption does delirium may develop in a patient? | 3 to 4 days |
Created by:
rakomi
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