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First Aid Review

Second assessment notes

QuestionAnswer
In Gaussian distribution, what percentage is associated with 1 SD? 68%
In Gaussian distribution, what percentage is associated with 2 SDs? 95%
How many SDs are associated swth 99.7% in Gaussian distribution? 3 SD
What is the associated percentage in a Gaussian distribution data plot, associated with 3 SDs? 99.7%
What specific enzyme is inhibited by Erythromycin? CYP3A4
The enzyme CYP3A4 is part of which other major metabolic system? Cytochrome p450 system
What are common or classic symptoms and signs of HYPOGONADISM seen with Klinefelter syndrome? Infertility, small testes , and low testosterone
How is Klinefelter syndrome clinically presented? Male individual with signs of hypogonadism, long extremities, decreased body hair, and gynecomastia.
What protein is produced by Sertoli cell in men? Inhibin B
What androgen is produced by Leydig cells in men? Testosterone
What is the consequence on FSH due to low Inhibin B production? Increased FSH level
What is the result of low testosterone on LH? Increased LH level
Common analog of GnRH Leuprolide
What is the effect of Leuprolide? Decreased syntheissof sex steroids
What common condition is often treated with Leuprolide? Prostate cancer
Common symptoms of giardiasis: Bloating, flatulence, an foul-smelling non-bloody diarrhea in patients exposed to freshwater sources
What diarrhea causing infection is highly associated with foul-smelling diarrhea and exposure to freshwater sources? Giardia lambia infection
What is the histological key for giardiasis? Teardrop-shapted trophozoites with a ventral suckng disc
What infection is often described histologically as "teardrop-shaped trophozoites with ventral sucking disc"? Giardia lambia infection
What is the first line of treatment for Giardiasis? Metronidazole
What is the mode of action of Metronidazole? Damaging microbial DNA after reductive activation
What is Transformation, referring to bacterial genetics? Process by which a bacterial cell takes up pieces of environmental naked bacterial DNA and express the newly transferred genes
What is the physical result of injury to the Supraspinatus muscle? Inability to lift arm in the first 15 degrees of motion
What nerve innervates the Supraspinatus muscle? Suprascapular nerve
What range (degrees) does the Supraspinatus muscle aid in arm abduction? First 15 degrees
Why would damage to the Suprascapular nerve may cause a person to require assistance in abducting the arm the initial 15 degrees? Since the Supraspinatus is innervated by the Suprascapular nerve, any nerve damage causes function deficits of the muscle
What are the classic symptoms associated with SLE? Arthritis, fever, anemia, ,glomerular renal disease, and multiple skin findings
What is the classical face rash associated with SLE? Butterfly rash on the cheeks
Other than the butterfly skin rash over the cheeks and nose, what other cutaneous manifestation is seen with SLE? Painless nasal and/or oral ulcers
What would be the result on GFR and RPF, in case of constriction of the afferent arteriole? Decrease both GFR and RPF
How is PPV calculated? Dividing the number of TPs by the total to number of initial who tested positive for the condition
TP / (TP + FP) = PPV
What is the surgical treatment for hyperthyroidism? Thyroidectomy
Is lipolysis increased or decreased in hyperthyroidism? Increased
Is hyperlipidemia associated with low or high levels of TH in blood? Low
What is Crohn disease? Chronic inflammatory bowel disease that may involve any portion of the GI tract
Which part of the GI tract is often spared in Crohn disease? Rectum
Does Ulcerative colitis or Cronh disease spare the recturm? Crohn disease
Is it in UC or Crohn disease the rectum always involved? Ulcerative colitis
What type of renal calculus (stones) are associated with Crohn disease? Calcium Oxalate
A person with non-bloody diarrhea and recurrent episodes of calcium oxalate nephrolithiasis, may also have which underlying condition? Crohn disease
What value is often used in Case control studies? Odds ratio
What is the simplest way to calculate Odds ratio? (ad) / (bc)
( ad) ------ (bc) Odds ratio
What is evaluated in a Case control study? Odds of exposure to one or more risk factors in a group of people with disease against the corresponding odds in a group without the disease
What are the fastest fibers in cardiac conduction? Purkinje fibers
Which has faster conduction speed, the atria or ventricles? Atria
Which areas or parts of the cardiac conduction system have the slowest velocities? AV and SA nodes
PAVB-AS nodes Way to remember cardiac conduction velocities from fastest to slowest
How is Relative risk calculated? a / (a + b) / c / (c + d)
What type of studies calculate Relative risk most commonly? Cohort studies
What is the mode of inheritance of Becker muscular dystrophy? X-linked recessive
List of X-linked recessive disorders: 1. Bruton agammaglobulinemia 2. Duchenne and Becker muscular dystrophies 3. Fabry disease 4. G6PD deficiency 5. Hemophilia A and B 6. Hunter syndrome 7. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome 8. Ocular albinism 9. Ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency 10. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
What some common laboratory findings of Post-infectious glomerulonephritis? Hematuria, proteinuria (albumine), and low serum complement level.
Which bacterial pathogen is most common to cause PIGN in adults? Staph infection
Which bacteria infection is most common to cause PSGN in children? Streptococcus pyogenes infection
Which upper extremity are affected in C7 radiculopathy? Median and Radial nerves
What is a frameshift mutation? Nucleotide insertion or deletion that alters the reading frame
What composes a nucleoside? The nitrogenous base + deoxyribose sugar
What composes a nucleotide? Nucleoside + Phosphate
What pathogen is a common cause of Non-bullous impetigo? Staph aureus
How is non-bullous impetigo characterized? Vesicles that become pustules and develop yellow, crusted lesions
What S. aureus property allows it to convert fibrinogen into fibrin? Coagulase (+)
What does S. aureus been coagulase (+) allow it to do? Such enzyme helps to convert fibrinogen to fibrin
What is the classic symptom of Transitional cell bladder cancer? Painless hematuria
What strongly associated risk factors for developing Transitional cell bladder cancer? Smoking history and/or aniline dye exposure from industrial work
What type of medication is Ipratropium bromide? Muscarinic antagonist
When is Ipratropium bromide commonly used? Treatment of COPD and asthma, in cases when B-agonists are insufficient
MOA of Ipratropium bromide Competitively blocks muscarinic receptors, prevent ACh-mediated bronchoconstriction
What medication is commonly used in COPD or ASTHMA treatment as B-agonists seen not enough? Ipratropium bromide
Which bands or lines of the Skeletal muscle remain unchanged in length during skeletal muscle contraction? A band
Which bands in Skeletal muscle shorten with contraction? H and I bands
True or False. H bands and I bands shorten with Skeletal muscle contraction. True
What are common symptoms of Hyperprolactinemia in women? Amenorrhea and galactorrhea
What causes prolactin secretion? Excess TRH, which is elevated in primary hypothyroidism
Besides low serum levels of T3 and T4, a patient with primary hypothyroidism may also experience what other endocrine imbalance? Hyperprolactinemia
What does ADCC stand for? Antibody-dependent cell -mediated cytotoxicity
How is ADCC assessed? By a radioisotope release assay experiment, in which radiolabeled cells are mixed with a pathogen, effector immune cells, and IgG antibodies
Which antibodies are used in a Radioisotope release assay experiment? IgG antibodies
What are the components needed to perform a Radioisotope release experiment to asses ADCC? 1. Radiolabeled cells mixed with a pathogen 2. Effector immune cells, 3. IgG antibodies
What are common imincess used in Radioisotope release experiment to mesasure ADCC? Natural killer cells
NK cell are positive to which CD marker? CD16
NK cells contain: 1. Cell surface marker CD16 2. Fc receptor that is recognized IgG bound to pathogen infected cells
What enzymes are released by NK cells? Perforin and granzymes
What is Perforin's role in attacking a n infected cell? Perforates the target cells
Which enzyme secreted by NK cells is known to lyse the target cell? Granzyme
When not asymptomatic, what are the clinical features of Paget disease of the bone? Bone pain, fractures, increasing head size, or hearing problems
What does increased levels of ALP represent? Increased osteoblast activity
Are increased levels of ALP related to increased or decreased activity of osteoblasts? Increased
Is ALP related to osteoblast or osteoclast activity? Osteoblast
What is the classical histological representation of Paget disease of the bone? Thickened trabeculae with a mosaic pattern
Which mnemonic is used to interview a person with hx of alcohol abuse? CAGE
What does the C in "CAGE" stand for in alcohol abuse questionnaire? If patient feel that the need to Cut down their drinking
Which part of CAGE represent asking patient about needing an "Eye Opener"? E
What does an "eye opener" means in respect with drinking alcohol? Relates to a person that needs a alcohol drink first thing in the morning
Besides acromegaly, what is another symptom seen with a GH-secreting pituitary adenoma? Impaired glucose tolerance
Which second messenger receptors are used by GH? Non-receptors tyrosine kinase
What is the key histological finding of Squamous cell lung cancer? Keratin pearls
What malignancy is associated with cell metaplasia with keratinized peraprs, arising from the stratified squamous epithelium, and is strongly associated with smoking tobacco? Squamous cell lung cancer
What serum level is increased in Squamous cell lung cancer? Hypercalcemia due to PTHrP secretion
Where are Paneth cells found? Crypts of Lieberkuhn in the small intestine
What doe Paner cells release? a-defensins, lysozymes, and TNF
What common nosocomial and prolonged-antibiotic use infection is helped with enzymes released by Paneth cells? C. difficile infection
How are Paneth cells identified histologically? Eosinophilic appearance
Which translocation is associated with CML? t (9;22) chromosomal translocation
Which protein is generated by the translocation see with CML? BCR-ALB fusion protein
Which condition is due to formation of BCR-ALB fusion protein? CML
How does BCR-ALB fusion protein work? Act as a constructively active tyrosine kinase to promote dysregulated cell growth and division
Which protein is know to act as an active tyrosine kinase and promote dysregulated cell growth and division? BCR-ALB fusion protein
What Is the first line of treatment for CML? Imatinib
Which condition is treated with Imatinib? CML
MOA of Imatinib: Inhibition of the BCR-ALB tyrosine kinase
Which medication is known to inhibit the BCR-ALB tyrosine kinase? Imatinib
Autoimmune disease caused by antibodies against the ACh receptor in the NMJ Myasthenia Gravis
What medication is often used to diagnose Myasthenia gravis? Edrophonium
SHort-acting, reversible Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used to diagnose MG? Edrophonium
Which condition is often diagnosed with Edrophonium? Myasthenia gravis
How does Edrophonium help to diagnose MG? Blocks the breakdown of ACh and temporally boosts the levels of ACh at the NMJ
Which condition is characterized by intestinal metaplasia of the distal esophagus? Barrett esophagus
What is produced in by the lower esophageal metaplasia in Barrett esophagus? Formation of Goblet cells, wichi replace the normal squamous epithelium
Which cells are produced or appear in Barrett esophagus, that repase the normal squamous epithelium? Goblet cells
Which cation is not reabsorbed by the PCT? H+
What enzyme is known to stimulate bicarbonate reabsorption in the PCT? AT II
What protein is stimulated by AT II that allows the PCT to reabsorb HCO3-? Na+/H+ exchanger
What are the histologic characteristics of asthma? Excess mucus production due to hyperplasia of bronchial submucosal glands and goblet cells, bronchial smooth muscle hypertrophy, and Charcot-Leyden crystals
What is a very common cause of Euvolemic hyponatremia? SIADH
What common antidepressants may be causative of hyponatremia? SSRIs
What are some common drugs that may cause SIADH? SSRIs, antipsychotics, anticonvulsants, chemotherapy drugs, and sulfonylurea antihyperglycemic drugs
What causes adenomyosis? Filtration of endometrial (glandular) cells into the uterine myometrium
Endometrial cell into the uterine myometrium. Dx? Adenomyosis
How is the uterus described in a patient with Adenomyosis? Diffusely entoard, soft, "boggy" uterus
Woman with menorrhagia, dysmenorrhea, and diffusely enlarged, soft and "boggy" uterus. Dx? Adenomyosis
Which lab is commonly monitored in patients on Heparin due to PE? Platelet count
What is Filgrastim? Recombinant form of G-CSF, which simulates immature neutrophils to differentiate the bone marrow
Which cells are stimulated to growth and mature by the use of Filgrastim? Neutrophils
Which artery is involved or affected in Spinal Artery syndrome? Artery of Adamkiewicz
What structure when operated may be damaged due to proximity to the Adamkiewicz artery? Surgery of the aorta
What are some deficits associated with Spinal Artery syndrome? 1, Decreased motor strength 2. Decreased pain and temperature sensation 3. Decreased autonomic function
What features remain intact in Spinal Artery syndrome? Vibration and proprioception sensations
What leads to monozygotic twins? Cleavage of a single fertilized embryo
What is the result of town cleave between days 4 and 8? Monozygotic twin with one chorion and two amions
What charge is repelled by the glomerular basement membrane, negative or positive charged proteins? Negatively charged proteins
Which measure is the one the most closely estimates GFR? Inulin clearance
How can GFR be calculated in terms of inulin concetratiion? (urine inulin concentration x Urine flow rate) ------------------------------------------------------ Plasma inulin concentration
Stimulation of the carotid sinus baroreceptors lead to a rapid drop or increasing in blood pressure? Drop in blood pressure
How does stimulant the Carotid Sinus baroreceptors lead to decrease in blood pressure? Decreasing afferent signal output to the glossopharyngeal nerve, which increases sympathetic flow
Why is the Glossopharyngeal nerve targeted by stimulation of the Carotid sinus baroreceptors? The nerve is known to increase sympathetic outflow, leading to hypertension
What are complications and symptoms of an Urachal fistula? Frequent urinary tract infections and urine leaking from the umbilicus
During fetal development, the allantois becomes what tissue? Urachus
After the Allantois develops into the Urachus, what is the ligament formed by the remnant of the Urachus? Medial umbilical ligament
Does the urachus derived ligament in adults forms the medial or Lateral umbilical ligament? Medial umbilical ligament
What does Coarctation of the aorta refers to? Congenital narrowing fht aorta hta leads to significant hypertension in the arms
What structure prevents death in infant with Coarctation of the aorta? Closedure of the PDA
What condition is known to be due to damage of C5 and C6 nerve roots? Erb palsy
What is the definition of Number needed to treat (NNT)? Number of patients who must be given an experimental therapy to achieve the desired outcome in one patient
1 / ARR = NNT
What is the long equation to calculate NNT? 1 / [(control event rate) - (experimental event rate)]
What are symptoms of Adult T-cell leukemia? Presents with hypercalcemia from lytic bone lesions, hepatosplenomegaly, and cutaneous lesions
How are the skin lesions of Adult T-cell leukemia described? Nodular, indurated, exfoliative, or erythrodermic
What causes the high serum calcium in Adult T-cell leukemia? Lytic bone lesions
What is key characteristic of Adult T-cell leukemia useful in distinguishing it? Cancer associated with human T-cell leukemia virus, a provirus that can be detected in tumor cells.
What autoimmune condition is associated with Liebman-Sacks endocarditis? SLE
How are valvular vegetations of Liebman-Sacks endocarditis described? Small, sterile vegetations composed of fibrin an inflammatory cells, that align either or both sides of the the valve leaflets
What is the classical clinical presentation of Pulmonary TB? Chest pain that worsens on inspiration, fever, night sweats, hemoptysis, and pleural effusion on CXR.
What type of stain is used to M. tuberculosis to be visualized? Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Which organism is visualized with Auramine-Rhodamine stain? M. tuberculosis
What is the current most common cause of Bacteria gastroenteritis causing bloody diarrhea? Salmonella enteritis
Description of Salmonella culture: Seen with Hydrogen sulfide, which appears as green colonies with black center on Hektoen agar culture
Which pathogen is growth in Hektoen agar? Salmonella
How does Salmonella appears under Hektoen agar culture? It posses hydrogen sulfide which appears as green colonies with black center
What are desmosomes composed of? Cadherins
What is the function of desmosomes? Anchor two adjacent cells to each other though keratin cytoskeletal filaments
What proteins are used by desmosomes to anchor cells together? Keratin cytoskeletal filaments
What is cut, severed or damaged during labor leading to female fecal incontinence? Damage to the perineal body and the external anal sphincter
Which sphincter may be damaged during labor leading to fecal incontinence? External anal sphincter
Which two tissues or structures may be damaged in woman during labor leading to fecal incontinence? 1. External anal sphincter 2. Perineal body
What organs drain lymph into the Superior Mesenteric lymph nodes? Jejunum, ileum, cecum, cecal appendix, and the ascending and transverse parts of the colon
Which part of the colon does NOT drain lymph into the Superior Mesenteric lymph node? Descending colon
Which parts of the small intestine drain lymph into the Superior Mesenteric lymph node? Jejunum and Ileum
True or False. Only the Jejunum and Ileum drain lymph in the Superior Mesenteric lymph node. True
Which enzymes due to cardiac deficits are elevated in Becker Muscular dystrophy? Elevated lactate dehydrogenase and aldolase levels
What are the mutations seen in BMD? In-frame deletions
Which protein is mutated in BMD? Dystrophin
Is delirium an early or late manifestation of abrupt alcohol withdrawal? Late manifestation
How many days after cease of alcohol consumption does delirium may develop in a patient? 3 to 4 days
Created by: rakomi
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