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UWORLD Round 1 2021 Part 2

What is the common population that acquire Sarcoidosis? Young African-American women
How is Sarcoidosis clinically presented? Insidious onset or respiratory symptoms (cough, dyspnea, chest pain) accompanied with fatigue, fever, and weight loss
What is the key histopathologic finding of Sarcoidosis? Non-caseating granulomas
How are the Non-caseating granulomas of Sarcoidosis, composed? Aggregates of epithelioid macrophages and multinulceaed giant cells
Aggregates to epithelioid macrophages and multinucleated cells, in patient with Sarcoidosis. Non-caseating granulomas
What condition is seen with respiratory symptoms and non-caseating granulomas under histological view? Sarcoidosis
What pathogen is strongly associated with development of duodenal ulcer in PUD? H. pylori infection
What is the MC association of H. pylori gastritis? Formation of duodenal ulcers due to increased gastric acid production
How is the increased acidity in PUD caused? Unchecked gastrin production due to the destruction of somatostatin-secreting cells in the gastric antrum
Where in the stomach ar the Somatostatin-secreign cells? Gastric antrum
What is the most important environmental factor for development of Pancreatic cancer? Smoking
Other than smoking, what are other risk factor for Pancreatic cancer? Advanced age, chronic pancreatitis, and genetic predisposition (Peutz-Jegher syndrome)
What genetic condition or illness is associated as a risk factor for Pancreatic cancer? Peutz-Jegher syndrome
What is a positive sign seen in Pancreatic cancer? Courvoisier sign
What is the Courvoisier sign? Painless palpable gallbladder
What conditions are seen with a (+) Courvoisier sign? 1. Pancreatic cancer 2. Cholangiocarcinoma 3. Hepatic duct obstruction
What kind of jaundice is associated with Pancreatic cancer? Painless Obstructive jaundice
How is Obstructive jaundice is clinically presented? Elevated bilirubin, dark urine, and pale stools
(+) Courvoisier sign and painless obstructive jaundice. Possible Dx? Pancreatic cancer
What is the most common cause of anemia in a women of childbearing age? Iron deficiency anemia
What are some associations of Iron deficiency anemia? 1. Decreased serum ferritin 2. Increased Total Iron Binding Capacity (Transferrin) 3. Microcytic, hypochromic RBCs
What is the main cause for secondary iron deficiency anemia in women of childbearing age? Menstrual blood loss
What are some characteristics of Squamous metaplasia? It is reversible, adaptive response to chronic irritation , such as smoking
What is the result of replacement of normal columnar epithelium with squamous epithelium in the esophagus? Squamous epithelium is more resistant to irritation (smoke) but has a reduced mucociliary clearance
What is the metaplasia that occurs in Barrett's esophagus? Esophageal squamous epithelium is replaced by columnar epithelium in response to chronic acid exposure
What are common melanocyte markers associated with diagnosis of Melanoma? S-100, HMB-45, and MART-1
A biopsy of of skin shows immunostaining positive for S-100, HMB-45, and MART-1, dx? Melanoma
What is S-100? Protein expressed in cells derived from the neural crest
What is HMB-45? Monoclonal antibody that binds to immature melanosomes found in a melanocytic tumors
After several months or years from ischemic brain infarct, what is formed? Cystic cavity surrounded by a wall composed of dense fibers, formed by astrocytic processes (glial scar)
What is a glial scar composed of? Astrocytic processes
What is a glial scar? Surrounding wall of a cystic cavity, formed after months to years from ischemic brain stroke, composed f Astrocytic processes, also known as glial scar
Longitudinal mucosal tears of the gastroesophageal junction? Mallory-Weiss tears
What condition accounts for nearly 10% of all upper GI hemorrhages? Mallory-Weiss tears
Mallory-Weiss syndrome is due to: Increased intraluminal gastric pressure duet to retching, vomiting, or other abdominal straining
What is the cause of Esophageal varices? Increased venous pressure
Which esophageal condition is due to increased venous pressure? Esophageal varices
What is Epidermolysis bullosa? A group of inherited disorders characterized by epithelial fragility triggered by minor trauma
What are the skin conditions seen with Epidermolysis bullosa? Bullae, erosions, and ulcers
What causes Epidermolysis bullosa? Mutations affecting proteins in the intraepidermal and dermoepidermal adhesions complexes
What mutated protein cause the most common type of Epidermolysis bullosa (EB simplex)? Keratin
How is Lobar pneumonia characterised? Marked by the cytokine-mediated accumulation of neutrophils and proteinaceous material in the alveoli
What happens with time (days) to the proteinaceous material seen with Lobar pneumonia? It becomes fibrinous, neutrophils are repalefc by macrophages and macrophages digest the fibrinous exudate, leading to clearing the lung
What is the MC benign liver tumor? Hemangioma
What is the microscopic description of a Hemangioma? Cavernous, blood-filled vascular spaces of variable size, lined by a single epithelial layer
Why is a biopsy of a suspected hemangioma not indicated? It can rupture leading to fatal hemorrhage, and has a low diagnostic yield
What is amyloid? An abnormally folded (insoluble) extracellular protein that has apple-green birefringence when stain with Congo red and viewed under polarized light
Amyloid deposition exclusively in the brain lead to: Alzheimer disease
What is the type of amyloid seen in Alzheimer disease? B-amyloid deposits in the brain parenchyma (neuritic plaques) and walls of the cerebral vessels (amyloid angiopathy)
What is amyloid angiopathy? B-amyloid deposition in cerebral vessels
What condition is associated with B-amyloid deposition in the brain? Alzheimer disease
What part of the brain is seen with Amyloid deposition in Alzheimer's disease? Medial Temporal lobe (hippocampus, amygdala, and entorhinal cortex)
Which lobe of the brain is often affected by amyloid deposition in patient with Alzheimer? Medial Temporal lobe
What is the MCC of gradually developing myocardial ischemia? Slow-growing, stable atherosclerotic plaque
What is the most likely cause of vessel rupture leading to myocardial ischemia? Slow-growing, stable atherosclerotic plaque
What is myocardial hibernation? Refers to a state of chronic myocardial ischemia in which both myocardial metabolism and function reduced to match with concomitant reduction in coronary blood flow
What is a common condition that leads to Myocardial hibernation? Moderate/ severe flow-limiting stenosis
A patient with a chronic cor oryany stenosis conditions, may also present as compensatory mechanism with: Myocardial hibernation
Presence of Left Ventricular systolic dysfunction due to reduced coronary blood flow Myocardial hibernation
What is the best overall definition of Pulmonary stenosis? Pulmonic valve stenosis causes a: 1. Crescendo- decrescendo systolic murmur 2. Delays clossedure of the pulmonic valve, resulting in a widened splitting of S2
Where is Pulmonic stenosis best heard during auscultation? Left Upper Sternal Border (LUSB)
What common murmur is best heard at the Left upper sternal border? Pulmonic stenosis
Pulmonic stenosis is a systolic or diastolic murmur? Systolic
What is the auscultative description of Pulmonic stenosis? Crescendo-Decrescendo systolic murmur best heard at the LUSB
What causes the widening split of S2 in pulmonic stenosis? Delay closure of the pulmonic valve
What is the auscultative result of the delay closure of the pulmonic valve in pulmonic stenosis? Widening splitting of S2
What is the relationship between expiration and heart blood flow? Inspiration increases blood flow the the right side of the heart, causes increased intensity of right-sided murmurs
What is the result of inspiration in Pulmonic stenosis? Increased murmur intensity with the increased blood flow to the right side of heart, and further delay the closerude of the pulmonic valve
What normal respiratory action can cause a delay in pulmonic valve closure? Inspiration
In Atherosclerosis, what defines the likelihood of plaque rupture? Plaque rupture is related to plaque stability rather than plaque size or the degree of luminal narrowing
What is more critical or important in dictating likelihood of atherosclerotic plaque rupture: Size, stability, or lumen narrowing? Plaque stability
What does atherosclerotic plaque stability depend on? On mechanical strength of the fibrous cap
What enzymes are known to decrease the atheroscleroi plaque stability? Metalloproteinases
What is the role of Metalloproteinases? Degrade extracellular matrix proteins, which cause a decrease in stability of the atheroscleritc plaque
Which what condition are metalloproteinases closely related to pathology? Atherosclerotic plaque stability
What is a common test to identity which type of Leprosy the patient has? Lepromin skin test
What does a positive (+) Lepromin skin test indicate? Indicates a strong Th1 cell mediated immune response, and patient has Tuberculoid leprosy
Ist the Lepromin skin test (+) or (-) in Tuberculoid leprosy? Positive
What kind of leprosy yields a (-) Lepromin skin test? Lepromatous leprosy
What Th response is expected in a patient with a negative lepromin skin test? Th2 immune response
Is the Lepromin skin test (+) or (-) in Lepromatous leprosy? Negative
What are compound nevi? Benign proliferation of melanocytes that involved both the dermis and epidermis
Which layers of the skin are involved in melanocytic nevus? Dermis and Epidermis
How are compound nevi clinically presented? Slightly raised papules with uniform pigmentation and symmetrical sharp borders
What is the most common type of Breast cancer? Invasive ductal carcinoma
What is the classical finding in mammogram of Ductal carcinoma in situ of the breast? Microcalcifications
How is DCIS of the breast characterized histopathologically? Ducts distended by pleomorphic cells with prominent central necrosis
What type of breast malignancy or tumor is seen with ducts distended by pleomorphic cells with prominent central necrosis, that do not penetrate basement membrane? DCIS of the breast
What is the precursor for Invasive ductal carcinoma of the breat? DCIS of the breast
What is Crohn disease? IBD characterized by patchy inflammation that can occur throughout the entire GI tract
What are classic findings of gross inspection of Crohn disease? Skip lesions, cobblestones of the mucosa, bowel wall thickening, and creeping fat.
Which IBD is probably indicated if it mentions creeping fat in affected area of the GI tract, Crohn disease or Ulcerative colitis? Crohn disease
What substance triggers Celiac disease? Gluten
Gluten is often a triggered of what immune condition? Celiac disease
What is Celiac disease? An immune-mediated disorder triggered by Gluten
What are the classic findings of Celiac disease in the small intestine? Intraepithelial lymphocytosis, villous atrophy, and crypt hyperplasia
What immune-mediated condition is often found with small intestine leukocytosis, villous atrophy, and crypt hyperplasia? Celiac disease
What is a severe consequence of Intraepithelial leukocytosis of the small intestine seen in Celiac disease? Enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma
What causes the development of a T-cell lymphoma in Celiac patients? Monoclonal T-cell expansion in the small bowel mucosa
What are the serum markers (antibodies) of Celiac disease? 1. Tissue transglutaminase IgA antibody 2. Anti-Endomysial antibody
(+) tissue transglutaminase IgA antibody. Dx? Celiac disease
Common manifestation of chronic cholecystitis and in association of multiple gallstones? Porcelain gallbladder
What causes Porcelain gallbladder? Dystrophic intramural deposition of calcium salts in teh setting of chronic inflammation (chronic cholecystitis)
Dystrophic intramural deposition of calcium salts in the gallbladder in setting of chronic inflammatory illness? Porcelain gallbladder
What malingany is at increased risk in patient with Porcelain Gallbladder? Adenocarcinoma of the Gallbladder
What condition is often associated with increased risk of developing adenocarcinoma of the Gallbladder ? Porcelain gallbladder
What happens to the cytoplasm of hepatocytes in an infection with Hepatitis B virus? Hepatocellular cytoplasm fills with Hep B surface antigens
How are the Hepatitis B virus cytoplasmic inclusions described histologically? Finely granular, pale eosinophilic, ground-glass appearance
What feature is highly specific for HBV infection? Cytoplasmic inclusion in the hepatocyte of Hepatitis B surface antigen
What is an important cause of Esophageal adenocarcinoma? Barrett esohpaghuse, leading to esophageal adenocarcinoma of the distal esophagus
Which part of the esophagus, distal, medial, or proximal is associated with development of esophageal adenocarcinoma due to Barrett esophagus? Distal esophagus
What is the most important factor for Barrett esophagus? Long-standing GERD
Other than GERD, what are other risk factors for Barrett esophagus? Obesity, smoking, use of medications that increase esophageal sphincter tone, and consumption of foods containing nitroso compounds
Common items that cause oxidative stress to RBCs leading to hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficiency? Fava beans, dapsone, and acute infection
What type of anemia is associated with G6PD deficiency? Episodes of hemolytic anemia following oxidative stress
What are some signs and symptoms if G6PD deficiency? 1. Episodes of hemolytic anemia after oxidative stress 2. Jaundice and dark urine 3. Normocytic anemia 4. Reticulocytosis 5. Bites cells and Heinz bodies on peripheral smear
What are the key histological findings in G6PD deficiency PBS? Bite cells and Heinz bodies
What is another term used to describe "iron overload"? Hemosiderosis
What is a common and serious complication of chronic hemolytic anemia and blood transfusions? Iron overload
What is the most important or "cardinal" finding of Hemolytic anemia due to an iron overload? Hemosiderin accumulation
What is the best treatment for hemosiderin accumulation in hemolytic anemia? Chelation therapy is indicated to reduce Parenchymal iron deposition
What causes DIC? Occurs in setting of SEPSIS and is characterized by widespread activation of the coagulation cascade with formation of microthrombi
What are the common labs found with DIC? 1. Prolonged PT/PTT 2. Thrombocytopenia 3. Low fibrinogen
What is an important characteristic or sign in a patient with DIC? Signs of bleeding such as oozing from venipuncture sites
Which is prolonged, PT, PTT, or both, in patient with DIC? Both PT an PTT are prolonged
What is a key feature or characteristic of TB meningitis? Thick, gelatinous exudate in the base of the brain
What condition is characterized by the formation of a thick, gelatinous exudate in the base of the brain, cerebral vasculitis, and hydrocephalus? TB meningitis
How are patients with TB meningitis clinically presented? Subacute, slowly progressive nausea, vomiting, fever , CNS deficits and strokes
Thick, gelatinous exudate in base of brain. Dx? TB meningitis
Sudden-onset, severe headache with signs of meningeal irritation. Possible Dx? Subarachnoid hemorrhage
What are the accompanying signs to SAH besides the severe and sudden headache? Meningeal irritation such as neck stiffness and pain
What is the MCC of SAH? Rupture of saccular (Berry) aneurysms
CT scan of SAH patient: Blood pooling in the cerebral sulci and basal cisterns
What condition is due to rupture of a Berry (saccular) aneurysm? Subarachnoid hemorrhage
CT of brain shows blood in the cerebral sulci and basal cisterns. Possible Dx? Subarachnoid hemorrhage
What is a Pleural effusion? Collection of fluid between the visceral pleura that lines the lungs and the parietal pleura that lines the thoracic cavity
How does the fluid in pleural effusion act on auscultation? Insulate vibration and sounds that originate inther airways of the lung leading to decreased tactile fremitus and breath sounds over the pleural effusion
What is the most aggressive type of lung cancer? Small Cell cancer of the lung
What is the most common association of Small cell cancer of the lung? Paraneoplastic syndromes
What Paraneoplastic syndromes are associated with Small Cell cancer of the lung? SIADH and Cushing syndrome
What is the origin of the cells associated with Small Cell carcinoma of the lung? Neuroendocrine origin
What are neuroendocrine markers associated with Small Cell carcinoma of the lung? Neural Cell adhesion molecule (NCAM), Chromogranin, and synaptophysin
What condition is associated with glomerular crescent formation without immunoglobulin or complement deposits? Pauci-immune RPGN
What are common causes of Pauci-immune RPGN? Manifestation of ANCA-associated vasculitis such as Granulomatosis with polyangiitis or Microscopic Polyangiitis
Fever, maculopapular rash, and acute renal failure occurring 1-3 weeks after beginning new medication. Acute Interstitial Nephritis
What are important lab features of Acute Interstitial Nephritis? Peripheral eosinophilia, urinary eosinophils, and WBC casts in urine
What are the main or key findings in UA of Acute Interstitial Nephritis? Urinary eosinophils and WBC casts
What is the histopathology of Acute Interstitial Nephritis? Leukocyte infiltration and edema renal interstitium
How is ATN characterized? Focal Tubular Epithelial necrosis with denuding of the basement membrane
What is the result of acute kidney injury? Tubular re-epithelization and regain normal kidney function
What are common characteristics of Psoriasis? Hyperkeratosis and confluent Parakeratosis of the Stratum cornieus, and epidermal hyperplasia (acanthosis) with elongated rete ridges
Which layer of the skin is seen with keratosis and parakeratosis in Psoriasis? Stratum corneum
What is the result of the neutrophilic foci in the Stratum corneum and epidermis associated with Psoriasis? Development of Munro microabscesses
What condition is associated with Munro microabscesses? Psoriasis
How are the lesions of Actinic keratosis (AK) clinically described? Erythematous papules with a central scale and a rough "sandpaper-like" texture
Which skin condition is associated with exposure to sun and described as "sandpaper-like" erythematous papule rash? Actinic Keratoses (AK)
Is Actinic Keratoses lesions consider pre-malignant or benign? Premalignant
A patient with AK (actinic keratosis) is likely to develop which type of skin cancer? Squamous Cell carcinoma of the Skin
When can field cancerization occur? As one large area of cells are exposed to carcinogens that induce mutations
What is a common malignancy associated with Field Cancerization ? Head and Neck Squamous cell Carcinoma (HNSCC)
What process can give rise to Head & Neck Squamous Cell carcinoma? Field cancerization
Biological process in which large areas of cells at a tissue surface or within an organ are affected by carcinogenic alterations Field cancerization
Which are the main carcinogens that lead to malignancy in the oral cavity in response to field cancerization? Tobacco and alcohol exposure for years
What are the main symptoms and features of Primary Adrenal insufficiency? Weight loss, abdominal pain, fatigue, and hyperpigmentation
What is a common complication in patients with Primary Adrenal insufficiency that undergo a stressful moment or procedure? Adrenal crisis
What are features of an Adrenal crisis? Fever, shock, and mental status changes
What is the most common cause of Primary Adrenal insufficiency? Autoimmune adrenalitis
What is the result of Primary Adrenal insufficiency due to Autoimmune adrenalitis? Bilateral Adrenal Atrophy
What condition is seen with Bilateral Adrenal atrophy as a consequence? Autoimmune adrenalitis leading to PAI
How is Dermatomyositis characterized? Proximal muscle weakness resembling polymyositis, with additional inflammatory features affecting the skin
What are the skin manifestations of Dermatomyositis? Heliotrope rash and Gottron papules
What condition is associated with Gottron papules and Heliotrope rash? Dermatomyositis
What type of muscle weakness of Dermatomyositis and Polymyositis? Proximal muscle weakness
What type of muscle is involved in Dermatomyositis and Polymyositis? Striated muscle of the oropharynx and heart
What are the consequences of striated muscle of the oropharynx and heart in Dermatomyositis? Dysphagia, pulmonary aspiration, and myocarditis
What is the heart condition associated with Dermatomyositis and Polymyositis? Myocarditis
What is the common name of Schistocytes? Helmet cells
What are Schistocytes? Fragmented RBCs
What are some causes of development of Schistocytes? Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia or prosthetic cardiac valves (macroangiopathic)
Is Haptoglobin elevated or decreased in Intravascular Hemolytic anemias? Decreased
What levels are increased in Intravascular hemolytic anemias? LDH and Bilirubin
What is Haptoglobin? Serum protein that binds to free hemoglobin and promotes its uptake by the reticuloendothelial system
What is the role or function of Haptoglobin? Bind to free Hb and promotion of Hb uptake by the reticuloendothelial system
What is the main biochemical feature defect in Megaloblastosis? Defect in DNA synthesis
What nutritional deficiencies are associated with development of Megaloblastic anemia? Deficient intake of Vitamin B12 or Folate
Low or decreased amounts of Vitamin B12 and folate impair: Synthesis of Purine and Pyrimidine bases
Example of something the can impair the synthesis of Purine and Pyrimidine bases: Deficient intake of Vitamin B12 or Folate
What renal malignancy is associated with Tuberous sclerosis? Renal angiomyolipoma
What AD condition is associated with Renal angiomyolipomas? Tuberous sclerosis
How is a Renal Angiomyolipoma composed? Blood vessels, smooth muscle, and fat
Bilateral or unilateral renal angiomyolipomas are most associated with Tuberous sclerosis? Bilateral renal angiomyolipomas
What is the inheritance of Friedreich ataxia? Autosomal recessive
What explains the gait ataxia seen in Friedreich Ataxia? Degeneration of the Spinocerebellar tracts
What is damaged or affected in Friedreich ataxia leading to impaired joint and vibration sense? Degeneration of the Posterior columns and dorsal root ganglia
What heart condition is associated with Friedreich Ataxia? Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
What is the MCC of death in Friedreich ataxia? Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
What skeletal abnormalities associated with Friedreich Ataxia? Kyphoscoliosis and Pes Cavus
What endocrinological complication is associated with Friedreich Ataxia? Diabetes mellitus
List of features seen in Friedreich Ataxia: 1. Gait ataxia 2. Impaired joint and vibration sense 3. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (MCC of death) 4. Kyphoscoliosis and Pes cavus 5. Diabetes mellitus
What is Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease? Group of hereditary peripheral neuropathies characterized by mutations in genes coding for peripheral nerve axonal or myelin proteins
What mutations are associated with the development of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease? Genes coding for: 1. Peripheral nerve axonal proteins 2. Myelin proteins
What are the associated clinical manifestations of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease? 1. Progressive, symmetric distal muscle atrophy and weakness most prominently in feet and calf muscles 2. Sensory loss, arreflexia 3. Pes cavus (high ascites), and 4. Hammer toes
What is Diffuse Axonal Injury (DAI)? Type of traumatic brain injury that results from disruption of the white matter tracts
How is Diffuse Axonal Injury microscopically characterized/ Widespread axonal swelling, most pronounced at the Gray-White matter junction, with accumulation of transport of proteins at the site of injury
What brain malignancy is originated from Ependymal cells? Ependymomas
Where in the brain do Ependymomas appear? Line the ventricular system and the central canal of the Spinal canal
What is commonly blocked by Ventricular ependymomas? Flow of the Cerebrospinal fluid through the intraventricular foramina, causing signs of ICP due to obstructive (noncommunicating) hydrocephalus
What kind of hydrocephalus is often seen with Ventricular Ependymoma? Noncommunicating (obstructing) hydrocephalus
What brain tumor usually appears lining the ventricular system and in the central canal of the he Spinal Cord? Ependymomas
AR disease characterized by excessive Copper deposition into tissues, such as liver, basal ganglia, and cornea? Wilson disease
What is the inheritance mode of Wilson disease? Autosomal recessive
What condition is aided by the use of the Slit Lamp examination? Wilson disease
What symptoms or feature of Wilson disease is diagnosed or confirmed by the Slit Lamp exam? Kayser-Fleisher rings in cornea
What are some clinical manifestations of Wilson disease? 1. Liver disease 2. Neuropsychiatric symptoms (gait disturbance, dysarthria, depression, and personality changes) 3. Kayser-Fleischer rings in cornea
What are the two initial sites of primary TB described by the Ghon complex? 1. Lower lobe of lung 2. Ipsilateral hilar lymph node
Is primary or secondary TB associated with the Ghon complex? Primary TB
What is the name giben to Ghon complex, over a period of time? Ranke complex
What gives rise to a Ranke complex? Ghon complex over time, become calcified and fibrosed leading to Ranke complex
What is a Ranke complex? A calcified and fibrosed Ghon complex
What are anatomical organs or vessels that run in close proximity to the Ureters? Pelvic lymph nodes and Uterine artery
What surgical procedures increased risk of injury to the Ureters or any tissue in close proximity? Pelvic surgeries
What is a severe consequence of unintentional ligation of the ureter during pelvic surgery? Hydronephrosis and flank pain due to distension of the ureter and renal pelvis
What is the MCC of nephritic syndrome in children? PSGN
What are the LM findings in PSGN? Enlarged, hypercellular glomeruli
What are labs measurements of PSGN? 1. Elevated anti streptococcal antibodies 2. Decreased C3 and total complement levels 3. Normal level of C4
Is PSGN found with decreased, elevated or normal levesl of C4? Normal levels of C4
What complement is (are) decreased in PSGN? C3 and total complement levels
Low C3 + normal C4 levels, along with a LM showing enlarged, hypercellular glomeruli. Suspected Dx? PSGN
What are the associated Paraneoplastic syndromes of Renal Cell cancer (RCC)? Erythrocytosis and Hypercalcemia
What gives rise to Erythrocytosis in RCC? Excessive EPO production
What gives rise to Hypercalcemia as a Paraneoplastic syndrome of RCC? PTH-related protein production
What is the main and first vein invaded by Renal cell carcinoma? Renal vein
What is a secondary invaded vien by RCC? IVC
What is the result of RCC inventing the IVC? Obstruction due to intraluminal extension of the tumor
What are the consequences (physical) of RCC invasion and consequent obstruction of the ICV? 1. Symmetric bilateral lower extremity edema 2. Often associated with prominent development of Venous collaterals in the abdominal wall
What obstructed vein may lead to symmetric lower extremity edema and appearance of venous collaterals in the abdominal wall? IVC obstruction
How is Hypertrophic Osteoarthropathy presented? Abnormal growth of bone and presents with digital clubbing, painful arthropathy, periostosis of long bones, and joint effusions
What conditions are often causative or associated with Hypertrophic Osteoarthropathy? Pulmonary malignancy (adenocarcinoma), lung disorders (Cystic fibrosis, bronchiectasis), and cyanotic heart disease
What bone condition often associated with Cyanotic heart disease? Hypertrophic Osteoarthropathy
Created by: rakomi
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