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Pathophysiology
UWORLD Round 1 2021
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| How are Paradoxical embolisms developed? | Occurs when a thrombus from the venous system crosses into the arterial circulation via an abnormal connection between the right and left cardiac chambers |
| What are common Right to Left shunts? | PFO, ASD, and VSD |
| What is a key auscultation feature of Atrial Left-to-Right shunts? | Wide and fixed splitting of S2 |
| What type of shunts are seen with wide and fixed split of S2? | Atrial Left to Right shunts |
| What do atrial L-->R shunts create greater risk Paradoxical embolism? | Periods of transient shunt reversal during straining or coughing |
| What actions can temporarily reverse atrial left to right shunts? | Straining and coughing |
| How is Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) characterized? | Asymmetric ventricular septal hypertrophy and dynamic Left-ventricular outflow tract (LVOT) obstruction |
| What type of cardiomyopathy is characterized with a dynamic LVOT obstruction? | Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) |
| Do a decrease in Left Ventricular volume worses or betters LVOT obstruction ? | Worsens LVOT obstruction |
| What are some maneuvers that can decrease Preload? | Abrupt standing and Valsalva strain phase |
| What hemodynamic changes can help to intensify HCM murmur? | 1. Decrease in LV volume 2. Decrease in Preload 3. Decrease in Afterload |
| Why does a decrease in LV volume, preload, and afterload lead to an intensified HCM murmur? | The LVOT obstruction worsens |
| What is Alveolar consolidation? | Alveoli become filled with fluid |
| What type of fluid is seen in Alveolar consolidation due to an bacterial infection? | Inflammatory exudate |
| What causes the increase bronchophony, tactile fremitus and breaths sounds in areas affected with alveolar consolidation? | The increased compactness of the alveolar fluid (compared to air) causes sound to travel faster and more efficiently, leading to increased or better sound resolution |
| In alveolar consolidation physical exam, the auscultation sounds will present more clearly in the affected or unaffected area? | Affected lung areas (lobes) |
| What auscultation findings are increased with Alveolar consolidation? | 1. Bronchophony, 2. Dullness to percussion 3. Tactile fremitus 4. Intensity of breath sounds |
| What condition is often seen along with Aortic stenosis due to coronary artery narrowing? | Angina |
| Which type of murmur (cardiac condition) is often seen with Angina? | Aortic stenosis |
| What conditions lead to development of Angina? | Increased myocardial oxygen demand due to an increase in Left Ventricular mass (concentric hypertrophy) and ventricular wall stress |
| Description of a VSD: | Harsh, holosystolic murmur of the lower sternal border, that causes a Left to right shunting of oxygenated blood from the Left Ventricle of the the Right Ventricle |
| What is a L---> R shunt that "sends" oxygenated blood from the LV to the RV? | VSD |
| What type of blood is shunted from the LV to the RV in a VSD? | Oxygenated blood |
| Harsh, holosystolic murmur best heard at the Lower Sternal border | VSD |
| In which area is a VSD best heard? | Lower sternal border |
| The shunting of blood in a VSD cause? | The Right ventricular oxygen saturation to be increased |
| Which murmur is to be suspected if the right ventricular oxygen saturation is higher or elevated form normal? | VSD |
| What is Preeclampsia? | New-onset hypertension at >or equal 20 weeks of gestation plus proteinuria and/ or signs of end-organ damage |
| What causes Preeclampsia? | Widespread maternal endothelial cell damage due to release of antiangiogenic factors from an ischemic placenta |
| What is the result of widespread anti angiogenic factors from ischemic placenta that result in Preeclampsia? | 1. Widespread capillary leakage ( proteinuria, edema) 2. Vasospasm (hypertension, end-organ hypoperfusion [renal failure]) |
| What receptors are downregulated in chronic alcohol abuse? | Inhibitory GABA receptors |
| What receptors are upregulated in chronic alcohol abuse? | Excitatory NMDA glutamate receptors |
| Chronic alcoholism lead to a downregulation of GABA receptors or NMDA glutamate receptors? | Inhibitory GABA receptors |
| What occurs to GABA activity and glutamate activity in response to sudden cessation of alcohol in a chronic alcoholic? | Decreased GABA activity and an increase in Glutamate activity, leading to CNS overexcitation |
| What changes at the neurotransmitter level are responsible for CNS overexcitation? | Decreased GABA activity and increase glutamate activity |
| If labs and CSF analysis show a increase in glutamate activity and decrease in GABA receptor activity, what is a possible condition? | Sudden alcohol withdrawals of a chronic alcoholic |
| What is used to treat infertility in PCOS? | Clomiphene |
| What is the MOA of Clomiphene? | Estrogen receptor modulator that decreases negative feedback inhibition at the hypothalamus by circulating Estrogen, thereby increasing gonadotropin production |
| On which gland does Clomiphene exerts its action? | Negative feedback inhibition at the Hypothalamus |
| What is an important Estrogen receptor modulator that is used to treat infertility in PCOS patients? | Clomiphene |
| What is the normal Ejection fraction? | 55% |
| How is heart failure with preserved ejection fraction characterized? | Diastolic dysfunction, which frequently occurs in the setting of prolonged systemic hypertension due to concentric left ventricular hypertrophy |
| What are consequences of prolonged systemic hypertension with respect with heart failure? | Diastolic dysfunction, due to concentric left ventricular hypertrophy |
| What is the result of prolonged systemic hypertension causing diastolic heart dysfunction with normal EF? | Concentric Left Ventricular hypertrophy |
| What is the best description of Tension Pneumothorax? | Progressively increasing intrapleural pressure that leads to contralateral mediastinal shifting (tracheal deviation) and vena cava collapse |
| What pulmonary condition is often seen with Vena Cava collapse and tracheal deviation? | Tension pneumothorax |
| What are the clinical features of Tension pneumothorax? | Hypotension, tachycardia, and obstructive shock due to decreased venous return to the heart |
| What causes the symptoms of pneumothorax? | Decreased venous return to the heart |
| Which type of pneumothorax is seen with tracheal deviation? | Tension pneumothorax |
| What are findings exclusive of Tension pneumothorax? | 1. Tracheal deviation 2. Contralateral mediastinal shift (on x-ray) |
| What is a common symptom of Endometrial hyperplasia/cancer in postmenopausal women? | Postmenopausal vaginal bleeding |
| What is a common risk factor for postmenopausal women vaginal bleeding due to Endometrial hyperplasia/cancer? | Obesity |
| How does obesity increase the risk of Endometrial cancer or hyperplasia? | Peripheral aromatization of androgens to Estrogens in the adipose tissue |
| What condition is associated with unopposed and excessive estrogen exposure and uncontrolled endometrial tissue proliferation? | Obesity |
| What is causes Hepatic Encephalopathy? | Increased levels of ammonia and other neurotoxins in the circulation that lead to increased inhibitory neurotransmission and impaired excitatory neurotransmitter release |
| What condition is associated with blood accumulation of ammonia, most likely seen in alcoholic patients? | Hepatic encephalopathy |
| What condition is often caused by a stressor, such as cirrhosis, infection, or GI bleed, that lead elevated serum ammonia levels? | Hepatic encephalopathy |
| What are the Vitamin K coagulation factors? | Factors II, VII, IX, and X, plus Protein C and S |
| Where are Vitamin K coagulation factors synthesized? | Liver |
| Which vitamin K coagulation factor has the shortest half life? | Factor VII |
| What can indicate possible factor VII (7) deficiency? | Failure to the Prothrombin time (PT) to correct with vitamin K supplementation |
| A person is administered vitamin K due to a prolonged bleed, but after a while the PT still not corrected. Dx? | Factor VII deficiency |
| What organ disease may lead to Factor VII deficiency? | Liver disease |
| What is the most common sleep-breathing disorder? | Obstructive Sleep Apnea |
| What is OSA? | Most common sleep breathing disorder, that is characterized by recurrent obstruction of the upper airways. |
| Pathogenesis of OSA: | Relaxation of the oropharyngeal and/or soft palate musculature during sleep results in functional collapse of the airway, producing periods of reduced/absent airflow despite continued breathing efforts |
| What condition is seen with periods of absent breathing during the night? | Obstructive Sleep Apnea |
| What causes of Anemia of Chronic disease (ACD)? | Chronic elevations in inflammatory cytokines, which lead to reduced iron absorption and increased retention in the reticuloendothelial system |
| What is a complication of impair iron availability in anemia of chronic disease? | Normocytic/microcytic anemia with low serum iron and low TIBC |
| What is the Metyrapone stimulation test? | A sensitive indicator of HPA axis integrity |
| What causes the administration of Metyrapone? | Causes a decrease in cortisol synthesis via inhibition of 11-B-hydroxylase in the Zona Fasciculata |
| A Metyrapone stimulation test will cause elevation in concentration of which substances? | 1. ACTH 2. 11-deoxycortisol, 3. Urinary 17-hydroxycorticosteroid |
| What are pleural effusions? | Collection of fluid between the lung and parietal lung membrane |
| What are the two types of Pleural effusions? | Exudative and Transudative |
| Which pleural effusion is characterized with a high protein or LDH content? | Exudative pleural effusion |
| What is the main cause for Exudative effusions? | Result from inflammation and consequently increased vascular membrane permeability |
| What are some condition that develop Exudative pleural effusions? | Lung cancer, pneumonia, rheumatoid arthritis, and TB |
| What is the main pathogenesis of Transudative pleural effusions? | Alterations in hydrostatic or oncotic pressures |
| What conditions are associated with Transudative effusions? | Heart failure, cirrhosis, and nephrotic syndrome |
| What is Empyema? | Infection of the pleural effusion |
| Infected pleural effusion is known as: | Empyema |
| What are the findings of the aspirate of an Empyema? | 1. Pus 2. Low pH 3. Decreased glucose 4. Increased LDH |
| What are findings on the CXR of a person with a pleural effusion? | 1. Blunting of Costovertebral angle 2. Fluid in lung fissures 3. Meniscus (severe) 4. Contralateral mediastinal deviation (severe cases) |
| What is the cause of Wilson disease? | Due to defective Copper transport within hepatocytes, which lead to impaired Biliary excretion of Copper |
| What is the result of the Copper accumulation in Wilson disease? | Release of free copper into bloodstream and copper deposition into extrahepatic tissues, such as Basal ganglia and cornea. |
| What condition is associated with defective biliary excretion of Copper? | Wilson disease |
| List of actions of Glucagon: | 1. Increases serum glucose by increase in hepatic glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis 2. Stimulates insulin secretion from the Pancreas |
| What is the difference between Epinephrine and Glucagon? | Glucagon has an insignificant effect of glucose homeostasis in skeletal muscle, adipose tissue, and renal cortex |
| On which tissue or organ does glucagon stimulates glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis? | Liver |
| What is an Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA)? | Focal dilation of abdominal aorta > 50% above the normal (>3 cm diameter) |
| 50% increase focal dilation of the abdominal aorta. Dx? | Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm |
| What are the most important risk factors of AAA? | Age > 65, smoking, and male sex |
| What is the mechanism of pathogenesis of Vasospastic Angina? | Hyperreactivity of Coronary artery smooth muscle |
| Hyperactivity of coronary artery smooth muscle | Vasospastic angina |
| What is the typical person that suffers of Vasospastic angina? | Young people under 50 years of age with no apparent risk factor for CAD |
| What is the clinical presentation of Vasospastic angina? | Recurrent episodic chest discomfort that typically occur during rest or sleep and resolve within 15 minutes |
| Recurrent episodes of sudden chest pain during times or rest or sleep that quickly resolve, usually before 15 minutes since start of pain. Dx? | Vasospastic angina |
| What is the main mediator (cytokine) involved in Anemia of Chronic disease? | Hepcidin |
| What is Hepcidin? | Peptide release from the liver that inhibits roni channel on enterocytes and reticuloendothelial cells |
| What occurs to iron levels and availability in Anemia of chronic disease? | Reduces iron availability for erythropoiesis, which leads to normocytic anemia with a poor reticulocyte response |
| Does Anemia of Chronic disease present with a poor or good reticulocyte response? | Poor reticulocyte response |
| High levels of Hepcidin and poor reticulocyte response, due to reduced erythropoiesis and normocyte anemia. Dx? | Anemia of Chronic Disease |
| What causes the development of Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension? | Endothelial dysfunction that leads to increased in vasoconstrictive, pro-proliferative mediators, and a decrease in vasodilative and anti-proliferative mediators in the pulmonary vasculature |
| What are the vasoconstrictive and pro-proliferative mediators increased in PAH? | Endothelin and Thromboxane-2 |
| An increase in Endothelin and TXA2 is often seen in what pulmonary condition? | Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension |
| What are the vasodilative and anti-proliferative endothelial mediators associated with PAH? | Nitric oxide (NO) and Prostacyclin |
| What does the imbalance between vasodilation and vasoconstrictive mediators in PAH causes? | Intimal wall-thickening with consequent increasing pulmonary vascular resistance |
| What are key findings in physical examination and auscultation of Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension? | - Young patient with progressive dyspnea and fatigue - Loud pulmonic component of S2 |
| Which condition is seen with a Loud component of S2? | Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension |
| What is Narcolepsy? | Chronic sleep disorders characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness, cataplexy, and REM sleep-related phenomena (hallucinations and sleep paralysis) |
| What sleep disorder is often associated with hallucinations? | Narcolepsy |
| What sleep disorder is often seen with moments of cataplexy and auditory hallucinations before sleep and right after waking up? | Narcolepsy |
| What causes Insulin resistance? | Phosphorylation of Serine and Threonine residues of insulin receptor and insulin receptor substrate by Serine kinase |
| What enzyme phosphorylates Serine and Threonine residues of Insulin receptors? | Serine Kinase |
| What important metabolic process is associated with Serine kinase? | Insulin resistance by phosphorylating Serine and Threonine residues of insulin receptors |
| What are substances that precipitate the phosphorylation of Serine and Threonine of insulin receptors by Serine kinase? | TNF-alpha, catecholamines, glucocorticoids, and glucagon |
| What is a result of Transudative effusions not caused by inflammatory processes? | Result in low nucleated cell counts and normal (or high) glucose level |
| If serum protein or LDH level are higher ahn the pleural fluid levels of protein or LDH, it is what type of pleural effusion? | Transudative effusion |
| What are the causes of Diabetic Mellitus type 2? | Insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency |
| What is an important contributory factor to insulin resistance in DM type 2? | Chronic elevated free fatty acids levels, by impairing insulin-dependent glucose uptake and increasing hepatic gluconeogenesis |
| What is Serum Sickness? | Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction to non-human proteins characterized by vasculitis result from tissue deposition of circulating immune complexes |
| What are clinical manifestations of Serum Sickness? | Fever, pruritic skin rash, arthralgias, and low serum C3 and C4 complement levels |
| What type 3 hypersensitivity reaction is seen with low leves of C3 and C4 complement levels? | Serum Sickness |
| What is common name of Myopia? | Nearsightedness |
| What is myopia? | Refractive error in which the focal point of an image fall anterior to the retina due to increased anterior-posterior diameter of the eyes |
| Patient has difficulty seeing objects in a long distance, but normal vision on nearby objects. Dx? | Myopia |
| In recording visual acuity, the as the bottom number increases, it means: | Worst visual acuity |
| Which protays better visual acuity 20/90 or 20/10? | 20/10 |
| What are clinical manifestations of Diabetic diarrhea? | 1. Painless, watery diarrhea 2. Secretory-like diarrhea (persist at night and while fasting) 3. Labs usually unremarkable |
| What is the pathogenesis of Diabetic diarrhea? | Prolonged hyperglycemia in diabetic mellitus injure PNS and SNS, resulting in Diabetic Autonomic neuropathy |
| What is the result of Diabetic autonomic neuropathy in relation to persistent diarrhea? | Disordered small-bowel and colonic motility and increased intestinal secretion, resulting in secretory-like diarrhea (fasting bowel movements) |
| What is a key and uncomfortable characteristic of diabetic diarrhea? | Secretory-like, and it persists during the night and at times of fasting. |
| What kind of murmur is seen with Aortic Regurgitation (AR)? | Decrescendo Diastolic murmur |
| When does in the cardiac cycle does AR has its maximal intensity? | Immediately after closure of the Aortic valve, when the pressure gradient between aorta and left ventricle |
| What are characteristics in the Pressure tracing of Aortic Regurgitation (AR)? | 1. Loss of the Aortic Dicrotic notch 2. Steep diastolic decline in Aortic pressure 3. High-peaking systolic pressures |
| What valvular disease is seen with a decrescendo diastolic murmur? | Aortic Regurgitation |
| Pressure tracing shows a loss or absence Aortic dicrotic notch? | Aortic Regurgitation |
| What forces or resistances determine the Left Ventricular afterload? | 1. Forward flow (aortic pressure) and, 2. Regurgitant flow (Left Atrial pressure) |
| What is the result of a reduce SVR in Cardiac Output? | Increase the ratio of forward to regurgitant flow and improves cardiac output |
| A decrease in SVR causes an eventual increase or decrease of cardiac output? | Increase |
| Why does a decrease in SVR causes an increase of CO? | Decrease of pressure pushing back into the heart LV, leads to an optimal increased cardiac output |
| Which sided heart failure promotes the development of Ascites? | Right-sided heart failure |
| What causes the formation of Ascites in Right-side Heart Failure? | Increase Central Venous Pressure (CVP), which is transmitted to the hepatic sinusoids, leading to increased capillary hydrostatic pressure |
| How is the Oncotic capillary pressure altered in early right-sided heart failure? | Normal, at least for a few weeks |
| What causes Stable Angina? | Results from fixed Coronary artery stenosis that limits blood flow to downstream myocardium, preventing myocardial oxygen supply for increasing during exertion |
| What is the use of Dobutamine? | Mimics the effects of exercise and increases myocardial oxygen demand |
| What medication is used to mimic the effects of exercise and increase myocardial oxygen demand? | Dobutamine |
| Why is Dobutamine used in stable angina? | As it provoke areas of ischemic myocardium which can then be visualised by localized and transient decrease in contractility and reduced ejection fraction |
| A test that causes transient decrease in cardiac contractility, and often used in Stable angina? | Dobutamine stress test |
| What virus is strongly associated with Anal Squamous Cell carcinoma? | Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) |
| How is Anal Squamous cell carcinoma clinically presented? | Rectal bleeding, pruritus, and/or pain |
| What is the gross examination of HPV-induced anal squamous cell carcinoma? | Ulcerated or nodular, exophytic anal lesion |
| What is the histology description of HPV anal squamous cell carcinoma? | Large, eosinophilic, hyperchromatic squamous cells arranged in islands with nuclear atypia and prominent keratinization |
| What is the possible diagnosis in new-onset odynophagia in the setting of chronic GERD? | Erosive Esophagitis |
| List of clinical manifestations of GERD: | 1. Regurgitation of acidic material in mouth 2. Heartburn 3. Odynophagia (erosive esophagitis) 4. Extraesophageal symptoms (cough, laryngitis, wheezing) |
| What causes Osmotic Demyelination Syndrome? | Results from overly rapid correction of chronic hyponatremia |
| The excessively fast correction of chronic hyponatremia causes: | Osmotic Demyelination Syndrome |
| What is the main finding of Osmotic Demyelination syndrome in a MRI? | Focal demyelination of the Pons |
| What are the clinical manifestations of Osmotic Demyelination syndrome? | Quadriplegia, Pseudobulbar palsy, and reduced level of consciousness |
| What are actions or events the occur during REM sleep? | Dreaming, voluntary muscle paralysis, and nightmares |
| Which part of sleep is associated with nightmares? | REM sleep |
| On which part of night is REM sleep associated? | Final third (1/3) of the night |
| What part of sleep is seen in the last third of the night? | REM sleep |
| Dreaming and Voluntary muscle paralysis is seen during which sleep phase? | REM sleep |
| What is the difference in memory between a nightmare and a night terror? | A night terror is a non-REM parasomnia, and the person does not have any recollection of the dream, while a nightmare is a REM-phenomena with some recollection of the dream |
| Night terror or Nightmare if the person does not remember the dream? | Night terror |
| Nigthmare. REM or Non-REM sleep? | REM sleep |
| Night terror or nightmare, if patient has recollection of the bad dream? | Nightmare |
| What is the typical or classic symptomt triad associated with Salicylate intoxication? | Fever, Tinnitus, and Tachypnea |
| What blood gas imbalance is seen first in Aspirin toxicity? | Respiratory alkalosis |
| What is the late blood gas imbalance of salicylate toxicity? | Anion gap Metabolic acidosis |
| What condition often results in a mixed acid-base disturbance with possible blood pH within normal range? | Salicylate intoxication |
| PaCO2 and HCO3- are low or high in Mixed Acid-base imbalance due to aspirin intoxication? | Low |
| What common AR respiratory condition is seen with developing Spontaneous pneumothorax? | Cystic fibrosis |
| Spontaneous pneumothorax is common in Cystic fibrosis due: | Involvement of alveolar rupture, leading to a loss of intrapleural negative pressure |
| How is Spontaneous pneumothorax clinically presented? | Sudden-onset of shortness of breath, unilateral decreased breath sounds, and sometimes subcutaneous crepitus |
| If the pneumothorax is associated with hypotension and tachypnea, it is probably what type of pneumothorax? | Tension pneumothorax |
| What are the two main renal changes due to Renal Artery Stenosis? | 1. Decreased GFR 2. Activation of RAAS system |
| What cells increase release of Renin? | Juxtaglomerular cells in the walls of the AFFERENT glomerular arterioles |
| What is the result of chronic renal hypoperfusion? | Hyperplasia of the Juxtaglomerular apparatus |
| What can you suspect in hyperplasia of juxtaglomerular apparatus? | Chronic renal hypoperfusion in RAS |
| What is the effect on the adrenal gland due to long-term use of supraphysiologic doses of glucocorticoids? | Bilateral Adrenocortical atrophy involving the Z. Fasciculata and Z. Reticularis |
| What areas of the adrenal gland are atrophied in long-term use of high doses of corticosteroids? | Z. Fasciculata and Z. Reticularis |
| What is the resulting condition of sudden cessation of the Exogenous corticosteroids? | Adrenal crisis |
| What is a common cause of Adrenal crisis? | Sudden cessation of exogenous corticosteroids |
| What is Preeclampsia? | New-onset hypertension with proteinuria and/or signs of end-organ damage |
| What is an important association of Preeclampsia? | Widespread maternal endothelial dysfunction, which occurs due to increased antiangiogenic factor release and decreased proangiogenic factor activity (VEFG) and placental growth factor. |
| What is the most common Proangiogenic factor associated with Preeclampsia? | VEGF and placental growth factor |
| What is the result of widespread maternal endothelial dysfunction in Preeclampsia? | 1. Increased anti-angiogenic factor release 2. Decreased Pro-angiogenic factor activity |
| What is Abruptio placentae? | Detachment of the placenta for the uterus prior to fetal delivery, presents with painful vaginal bleeding |
| How is presented Abruptio placentae clinically? | Painful vaginal bleeding; tender, firm uterus; heart rate abnormalities, and high-frequency contractions. |
| What are common risk factors of Abruptio placentae? | Abdominal trauma, maternal hypertension, and tobacco or cocaine use |
| How are cataracts of characterized clinically? | Progressive opacification of the lens, with chronic loss of visual acuity |
| Progressive opacification of the lens with chronic loss of visual acuity? | Cataracts |
| What are two common conditions leading to cataract formation? | Aging and exposure to UV light |
| How does UV light and normal aging induced cataract formation? | Induce nuclear sclerosis, photooxidative damage to lens crystallins, and osmotic injury |
| What nuclear factor interaction is essential formation and differentiation of Osteoclasts? | kappa B (RANK)/ RANK-Ligand (RANK-L) |
| RANK-L ---RANK interaction is associated with what type of cell differentiation and formation? | Osteoclasts |
| What is commonly used to block RANK-L binding to RANK? | Osteoprotegerin (OPG) |
| What monoclonal antibody works very similar to OPG? | Denosumab |
| What is Denosumab? | Monoclonal antibody used in treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis |
| What is the result of decreased formation of Osteoclasts? | Decreased bone resorption |
| What failed nuclear interaction leads to a decreased bone resorption? | Blocking binding of RANK-L to RANK |
| What is creatine kinase? | Enzyme, that leaks across the damaged cell membrane and into circulation, as heart, brain, and skeletal muscle are injured |
| What is the cause of Reperfusion injury? | Secondary to oxygen free radical generation, mitochondrial damage, inflammation, and activation of the complement pathway |
| What enzyme is secreted by reperfusion injury in heart, brain, and skeletal muscle? | Creatine kinase |
| What AR condition is associated with accumulation of thick, viscous secretions in ducts throughout the body? | Cystic fibrosis |
| What causes CF-related diabetes? | Progressive description of Pancreatic islet cells leads to decreased insulin production |
| What is a consequence of destruction of pancreatic islet cells in caused in Cystic fibrosis? | CF-related diabetes |
Created by:
rakomi
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