Save
Busy. Please wait.
Log in with Clever
or

show password
Forgot Password?

Don't have an account?  Sign up 
Sign up using Clever
or

Username is available taken
show password


Make sure to remember your password. If you forget it there is no way for StudyStack to send you a reset link. You would need to create a new account.
Your email address is only used to allow you to reset your password. See our Privacy Policy and Terms of Service.


Already a StudyStack user? Log In

Reset Password
Enter the associated with your account, and we'll email you a link to reset your password.
focusNode
Didn't know it?
click below
 
Knew it?
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.

  Normal Size     Small Size show me how

Physiology

FA review Round 2 2020

QuestionAnswer
What hematologic state is often associated with underlying malignancies? Hypercoagulable state
A hypercoagulable state leads to development of: DVT
What results of a pulmonary embolism? Respiratory distress secondary to a V/Q mismatch caused by blood being shunting from the are where the PE is causing an infarction
What is the probably because of V/Q mismatch in a person with an underlying malignancy? Pulmonary embolism
What are the cardiac effects of Norepinephrine? Increase AV nodal conduction velocity through the AV node via increased Calcium influx into the cells
What catecholamine causes increased AV nodal conduction velocity? Norepinephrine
Where are hemodynamic changes caused by NE? Increase blood pressure, increased heart rate, and mild to no change in cardiac output
What is a severe dermatologic adverse effect of Warfarin? Warfarin-induced skin necrosis
What patients are at higher risk of Warfarin-induced skin necrosis? Protein C or Protein S deficient patients
Site of action of Warfarin Liver
What laboratory level is used to measure the therapeutic effect Warfarin? Prothrombin time
Which drug's therapeutic effect is measured by Prothrombin time? Warfarin
What is often monitored in patients on Warfarin? INR and PT
Which pathways affected by Warfarin? Extrinsic Coagulation pathway
What are risk factor of Silicosis? Exposure to rocks and minerals, such as sand and smoking
Which type of lung disease profile is seen with Silicosis? Restrictive pattern
Which lung profile shows a decrease in all lung parameters, except for a normal or slightly elevated FEV1? Restrictive pattern
Which is the featured or key finding in CXR of Silicosis patient? "eggshell" calcifications in the Upper lobes
Do the "eggshell" calcification seen with Silicosis appear in the upper or lower lobes? Upper lobes
Which 3 lung parameters are increased in Obstructive lung disease pattern? RV, FRC, and TLC
Which 3 lung parameters are decreased in Obstructive lung diseases? FEV1 >>FVC, FVE1:FVC
The "F" parameters(FEV1, FVC, FEV1:FVC) are increased or decreased in Obstructive lung diseases? Decreased
Which is lung parameter is most decreased in Obstructive lung disease? FEV1
What is decrease in hypoglycemia? ATP
Is ATP decreased or increased in state of hypoglycemia? Decreased
A person in extreme fasting mode will present with: Hypoglycemia and consequently low levels of ATP
What does a decrease in ATP cause in hypoglycemia state? Prevent activation of K+ channels leading to prevention of the activation of Calcium channels that cause eventual insulin release by B-pancreatic cells
Overall, a decrease in _____ will lead to the inability to: ATP: Secrete insulin by the Pancreatic B-cells
Which channels are unable to be activated in state of severe hypoglycemia? Calcium channels due to low ATP levels
Trypsin is: Released by the Pancreas and under normal circumstances the first enzyme in the protein digestive enzyme cascade in the GI tract
In a healthy person, what is the first enzyme released and involved in protein digestion in the GI tract? Trypsin
Which organ secretes Trypsin? Pancreas
What does te inappropriate conversion of Trypsinogen into Trypsin causes? Autolysis and necrosis in Pancreatitis
What is the most feared complication of Diabetes mellitus type 1? DKA
What are the electrolyte abnormalities seen in DKA? 1. Hyperkalemia (pseudohyperkalemia) 2. Hyperglycemia 3. High anion gap metabolic acidosis
DKA develops high anion or normal anion-gap metabolic acidosis? High-anion gap metabolic acidosis
What condition is seen with pseudohyperkalemia? DKA
What causes the Vitamin K deficiency bleeding in a newborn? Absence of intestinal flora, resulting of Vitamin-K dependent clotting factors deficiency
What are the Vitamin K dependent clotting factors? II, VII, IX, and X, as well as Protein C and S.
In Vitamin K deficiency patients, which hematologic parameters are prolonged? PT and PTT
Which is prolonged in Vit K deficiency, PT, PTT or both? Both
How are the levels PC and BT in vitamin K deficiency? Normal
What type of conditions affect BT and PC? Platelet disorders
MOA of Thiazides Inhibit the Sodium-Chloride cotransporter in the DCT
What are adverse effects seen with Thiazide diuretics? 1. Hypokalemia 2. Hyponatremia 3. Hyperglycemia,-uricemia, -lipidemia 4. Metabolic alkalosis
What type of metabolic imbalance is produced by Thiazide diuretics? Metabolic alkalosis
Thiazide diuretics cause metabolic acidosis or metabolic alkalosis? Metabolic alkalosis
Is hyponatremia or hypernatremia an associated adverse effect of Thiazides? Hyponatremia
Which two serum electrolytes are low (hypo-) by the use of Thiazide diuretics? Hypokalemia and Hyponatremia
Tumor lysis syndrome produces hypocalcemia or hypercalcemia? Hypocalcemia
Why is a person with TLS often given supplemental calcium? TLS develops hypocalcemia
How is Tumor Lysis syndrome prevented? Hydration, Rasburicase, and Allopurinol
What are some effects produced by Tumor Lysis syndrome? 1. Acute kidney injury 2. Hypocalcemia 3. Hyperphosphatemia 4. Hyperuricemia 5. Hyperkalemia
Which serum value is seen decreased or low in Tumor Lysis syndrome? Serum calcium
Which serum electrolytes are elevated or hyper in TLS? Phosphate, uric acid, and Potassium
What is the physiological effect of Positive inotropic agents? Increase myocardial contractility
What is an drug-category of positive inotropic agents? B1-agonists
An increase in myocardial contractility is reflected in the Cardiac curve with: Increase in height and slope
At what part of the nephron anatomy is glucose freely filtered? Glomerulus
At normal conditions, glucose is reabsorbed completely in the: Proximal Convoluted Tubule
At what point is glucose stert to be seen in urine sample? Level 200-375 mg/dL
If the serum glucose levels are above 375 mg/dL, it means --> Transport at the PCT is completely saturated
At which point is Glucose transporters at the PCT completely saturated? 375 mg/dL
Meckel diverticulum results from: Persistence of the Vitelline duct
The pathological persistence of the Vitelline duct results in development of what? Meckel diverticulum
At which part of the GI tract do Meckel diverticulum originates? Ileum
How is Meckel diverticulum presented? Mostly in children less of 2 year old; 1. Melena, hematochezia, and abdominal pain
What conditions are causative of GI obstruction in Meckel diverticulum? Intussusception and/or volvulus
The development of aortic stenosis leads to: Increased LEFT VENTRICULAR MASS and SYSTOLIC PRESSURE resulting in delaying closing of the aortic valve
Which murmur is due to delay closure of the aortic valve? Aortic stenosis
Aortic stenosis increases afterload or preload? Afterload
What aspects of the heart anatomy and physiology are increased with Aortic stenosis (AS)? 1. Left ventricular mass 2. Systolic pressure
Is systolic or diastolic pressure increased by Aortic stenosis? Systolic pressure
What is a common H2-blocker? Ranitidine
MOA of Ranitidine: H2 blocker that irreversibly blocks G-s coupled H2 receptors to decrease H+ secretion by Parietal cells
What G-protein-linked second messenger receptor is blocked by Ranitidine? H2
Which are used for mild to moderate cases of GERD, PPIs or H2 blockers? H2 blockers
Which are more potent, PPIs or H2-blockers? PPI
What are some causes of a right-shit to the Oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve? 1. Decreased pH (increase H+ concentration) 2. Increased temperature 3. High-altitude training 4. Increased PaCO2 5. Increased 2, 3-BPG
Training in the altitude will cause a Right or Left shift to the O2-Hb dissociation curve? Right
How does altitude training cause a rightward shift to the O2-Hb dissociation curve? Increase EPO secreted by the Cortical and Upper medullary cells of the kidney, leading to increased RBC production and improved blood oxygen carrying capacity
What is the most common cause of Acute Respiratory alkalosis? Panic attacks
Respiratory alkalosis is associated with Hyperventilation or Hypoventilation? Hyperventilation
A person hyperventilating will develop Respiratory acidosis or alkalosis? Respiratory alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis development is associated with Hypoventilation or hyperventilation? Hypoventilation
Which metabolic/respiratory disorder is described with: - High pH - Low PCO2 - relative normal HCO3- Respiratory alkalosis
List of causes of Respiratory Alkalosis: 1. Panic attacks 2. Hypoxemia (high altitude) 3. Salicylate toxicity (early) 4. Tumor 5. Pulmonary embolism
Late or early salicylate toxicity is associated with Respiratory alkalosis? Early
Which neuromuscular condition is often associated with Hashimoto disease? Myasthenia gravis
What is Myasthenia gravis? Cytotoxic (type II) hypersensitiviry reaction caused by antidobies against Postsynaptic ACh receptors of the NMJ
What are the classic symptoms of Myasthenia Gravis? Generalized weakness, diplopia, ptosis, and difficulty chewing
Which receptors are attacked by autoimmune antibodies in Myasthenia gravis? Postsynaptic ACh receptors in the NMJ
What are the two conditions associated with prolonged QT interval? 1. Romano-Ward syndrome 2. Lange-Nielsen syndrome
Which prolonged QT conditions is associated with sensorineural deafness? Lange-Nielsen syndrome
Which is the autosomal dominant (AD) condition is characterized with prolonged QT interval? Romano-Ward syndrome
What is the key features characteristic of Lange-Nielsen syndrome? Sensorineural deafness
What are actions of von Willebrand factor (vWF)? 1. Platelet adhesion 2. Carrier molecule for factor VIII
What are lab findings of vW disease? 1. Reduced Ristocetin-induced platelet aggregation 2. Prolonged PTT
Inulin clearance is used to calculate --> GFR
Net resorption of substance (BUN) causes: Underestimation of GFR
Net secretion of substance (Cr) causes: Overestimation of GFR
DVT and Pulmonary embolisms are risk factors or causes of what type of metabolic/respiratory disorder? Respiratory alkalosis
What is the cause of Polymyositis? Endomysial inflammatory infiltrates with CD8+ T cells
What are the clinical characteristics of Polymyositis? Symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness, and no cutaneous involvement
Which inflammatory myopathy is often seen with a Paraneoplastic syndrome? Polymyositis
What cells are attacked in Polymyositis? Endomysial inflammatory infiltrates with CD8+ T cells
What are the MCC os ARDS? Pneumonia, sepsis, aspiration, trauma, and Pancreatitis
CXR of ARDS Ground glass opacities and lung lobe consolidation usually bilateral
What are clues to diagnostic of ARDS? 1. Hx of Alveolar insult 2. PaO2/FiO2 < 300 3. CXR --> Bilateral ground glass opacities
Anemia due to RBC production problems will present with a __________ reticulocyte count. Low
Which cause of anemia are seen with a low Reticulocyte count? Those involving problem in RBC production
What causes the S3 sound in the heart? Vibrations of the ventricular wall at it reaches its elastic limit during rapid filling in states or volume overload and/or ventricular enlargement
What cardiac states or conditions lead to development of S3? Volume overload and Ventricular enlargement
Maneuvers to increase or accentuate S3, are intended to: Increase Preload
What are some common maneuvers that increase preload? 1. Abrupt Squatting 2. Passive leg raising 3. Volume expansion
Abrupt squatting will increase Preload or Afterload? Preload
Low doses of At II cause (in RAAS): VasoCONSTRICTION if the EFFERENT arteriole
What are the consequences of Vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole? 1. Decreased Renal Plasma Flow (RPF) 2. Increase GFR 3. Overall increase in FF
Administration of AT II will cause a decrease or increase in GFR? Increase
Which arteriole is targeted by low doses of AT II? Efferent
What are the two types of Calcium channel blockers? Dihydropyridine and Non-dihydropyridine
Which Ca2+ channel blockers work on the heart? Non-dihydropyridine
What are the two most common Non-dihydropyridine Calcium channel blockers? Verapamil and Diltiazem
Which Ca2+ channel blocker work on Vascular Smooth muscle? Dihydropyridines
What is the ending of most if not all Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers? -dipine
If the antiarrhythmic blocks the phase 0 of the atrial Action potential, it is most likely what type of Calcium channel blocker? Non-dihydropyridine
Amlodipine and Nifedipine are what type of Ca2+ channel blockers? Dihydropyridine
Female growth spurt is seen in which Tanner stage? Tanner stage 3
What are female characteristics are seen in Tanner stage 3? 1. Growth spurt 2. Breast contour elevates 3. Areolar enlargement 4. Axillary hair develops 5. Dark, coarse, curly hair over the mons pubis
Which phase are oocytes arrested from birth to ovulation? Prophase I
In which phase of oocytes are arrested from ovulation to fertilization? Metaphase II
Which phases or parts of respiration have negative intrapleural pressure? During INSPIRATION and Passive Expiration
Which respiration part is seen with positive intrapleural pressure? Forced expiration
What happens to airflow in moments of Positive Intrapleural pressure? Airway compression will limit air flow.
When is intra-alveolar pressure equal to atmospheric pressure? In moments of NO NET flow of air between the lungs and the atmosphere
Which are exocrine enzymes secreted by Pancreas? alpha-amylase, lipases, proteases, and trypsinogen in an isotonic fluid
What cells secrete exocrine enzymes by the Pancreas? Pancreatic acinar cells in a NaCl solution
What occurs to chloride and bicarbonate levels in Pancreatic secretions? At low flow states (rest) Cl- is increased; At high flow states (during digestion) HCO3- is increased
What are effects of LSD intoxication? Visual hallucinations Anxiety and depression Delusions Nausea, weakness Paraesthesias Dilated pupils
How are vital signs in LSD intoxication? Remain normal
Which drug intoxication is seen with normal vital signs? LSD
Which formula is used to determine proper respiratory compensation metabolic acidosis? Winter's formula
What is the Winter's formula equation? PCO2 = 1.5 x ([HCO3-]) +8 +/-2
A PCO2 must fall or raise the range of Winter's formula in order to properly compensate metabolic acidosis? Fall
Which condition is seen with metabolic acidosis and increased levels of Ketones? DKA
What type of metabolic acidosis is seen with DKA? High anion gap metabolic acidosis
How do Prostaglandins affect the glomerular rates? DILATE the AFFERENT arteriole leading to Increased GFR
How do NSAIDs affect the glomerular rate? CONSTRICT the AFFERENT arteriole leading to Decrease GFR
Is GFR increased or decreased by the use of NSAIDs? Decreased
Which drugs are known to dilate the afferent glomerular arteriole? Prostaglandins
Indomethacin constrict or dilate the afferent arteriole? Constrict
How is the nephron affected by rapid ingestion of water after a significant volume depletion? Decrease the reabsorption of urea from the Medullary Collecting duct
What electrolyte imbalance is seen with the rapid ingestion of water? Hyponatremia
What does hyponatremia caused by rapid ingestion of water causes in the kidneys? Increase the excretion of water and urea in urine
What neurotransmitter stimulates the adrenal medulla to secrete Catecholamines? Acetylcholine
What catecholamines are secreted by the adrenal medulla? Norepinephrine, Epinephrine, and Dopamine
Catecholamines secreted by Adrenal medulla in response to: Direct stimulation by Preganglionic sympathetic neurons
What type of metabolic/respiratory disorder is seen with vomiting? Metabolic alkalosis
What are consequences of Vomiting? Loss of stomach HCl and extracellular volume, resulting in decreased ECF and contraction metabolic alkalosis
What type of patients are often seen with OSA? Obese patients
What is the first or initial step for OSA diagnosis? Polysomnography
What condition is diagnosed by Polysomnography? OSA
ACE inhibitors role in the glomerulus: Dilate both the afferent and efferent arterioles, with preference to the efferent
Which type of drugs dilate efferent >> afferent arterioles? ACE inhibitors
Dilation of efferent arteriole causes: Decrease in GFR
What is another name for Enterokinase? Enteropeptidase
What cells produce Enterokinase? Epithelial cells of the duodenal lumen that activates trypsinogen into trypsin
What is the overall role of Trypsin? Activates many proenzymes
What is the essential function of Enterokinase? Chemical digestion of complex lipids and proteins
What is the cause of Cholecystitis? Obstruction of biliary duct system at the level of the Cystic duct
What type of second messenger is used by Glucagon? cAMP
Glucagon: Relies on a G-protein-coupled receptor (GPCR) that activates adenylyl cyclase to produce an increase in intracellular cAMP
PTH and Calcitonin use __________ as second messenger. cAMP
Very short-acting IV drug used to treat SVT Adenosine
What are some common adverse effects of Adenosine? Flushing, hypotension, chest pain, bronchospasm, and an impending sense of doom
What is the MOA of Adenosine? Increased efflux of K+ leading to hyperpolarizing the cell and decreased Calcium current, decreasing AV node conduction
What occurs during vigorous exercise in association to metabolism? Creates lactic acid, lowering pH in the pulmonary arteries
What causes the decrease in pH in the pulmonary arteries? Lactic acid synthesis due to vigorous exercise
Which is the only vessel with deoxygenated blood? Pulmonary artery
What is the initial and main damage or insult leading to pathophysiology of ARDS? Alveolar insult
What is pathophysiology of ARDS? Alveolar insult leading to cytokine secretion causing capillary endothelial damage and increase permeability.
What do the slow waves of GI tract determine? Frequency of contractions of GI tract
What are the slow waves of the GI tract? Rhythmic depolarization and repolarization of the smooth muscle cells within the muscularis propria of the stomach and intestine
What nervous system stimulation causes increase in Amplitude of slow waves? Parasympathetic nervous system
SNS stimulation causes what to slow waves of the GI tract? Decrease amplitude to the waves
Which pathogen commonly causes meningitis in children? N. meningidis
What is severe consequence of N. meningidis meningitis? Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
What are some characteristics fo Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome? Adrenal failure, septic shock, DIC, and petechiae
What are two common signs used to diagnose Meningitis? 1. Brudzinksky's sign 2. Kerning sign
What condition is diagnosed with (+) Brudzinski sign? Meningitis
What is the Brudzinski's sign? Severe neck stiffness cause of patient's hips and knees to flex when the neck is flexed
What is the Kerning sign? Severe stiffness of hamstrings cause inability to straighten the leg when the hip is flexed to 90 degrees
Why are patients with an underlying malignancy are prone to develop a Pulmonary embolism? Creates a hypercoagulable state
What is caused by PE? V/Q mismatch due to blood being shunted away form ara where the pulmonary embolism is causing an infarction
What is the ECG association of Pulmonary embolism? S1Q3T3 abnormality
What condition is associated with Lines of Zahn? Pulmonary embolism
Postmortem or before death pulmonary embolisms are seen with Lines of Zahn? Prior death PE
Created by: rakomi
Popular USMLE sets

 

 



Voices

Use these flashcards to help memorize information. Look at the large card and try to recall what is on the other side. Then click the card to flip it. If you knew the answer, click the green Know box. Otherwise, click the red Don't know box.

When you've placed seven or more cards in the Don't know box, click "retry" to try those cards again.

If you've accidentally put the card in the wrong box, just click on the card to take it out of the box.

You can also use your keyboard to move the cards as follows:

If you are logged in to your account, this website will remember which cards you know and don't know so that they are in the same box the next time you log in.

When you need a break, try one of the other activities listed below the flashcards like Matching, Snowman, or Hungry Bug. Although it may feel like you're playing a game, your brain is still making more connections with the information to help you out.

To see how well you know the information, try the Quiz or Test activity.

Pass complete!
"Know" box contains:
Time elapsed:
Retries:
restart all cards