Help
Options
Didn't know it?
click below
click below
Knew it?
click below
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
retry
shuffle
restart
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Pathology
FA review Round 2 2020
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What is the cause of Bell's palsy? | Facial nerve (CN VII) lesion |
| What are clinical features of Bell's palsy? | 1. Ipsilateral dry eye 2. Ipsilateral dry mouth, and decrease sense of taste 3. Ipsilateral retroauricular pain 4. Increased sensitivity to noise and facial paralysis |
| Malignant neoplasm of plasma cells | Multiple myeloma |
| What are some characteristics of Multiple Myeloma (MM)? | 1. Lytic bone lesions 2. Hypercalcemia, Proteinuria 3. Monoclonal immunoglobulin spike |
| What is the name for the proteins seen in Multiple myeloma due to nephrotoxic effects? | Bence-Jones proteins |
| How are the lytic bone lesions in MM described in the skull? | Punch-out lesions in the skull |
| Where in the anatomy of the brain do Medulloblastomas in children are most commonly located? | Cerebellar midline |
| What is the histological description of childhood Medulloblastomas? | Small blue cells arranged in Homer-Wright rosettes |
| Common cerebellar midline tumor in children. | Medulloblastoma |
| What are the common focal deficit symptoms seen with Medulloblastomas? | Gait disturbances and ataxia |
| A kid has a "funny" gait and ataxia. What is the most probable brain tumor causing such symptoms? | Medulloblastoma |
| What brain tumor in children is often found in the Cerebellar midline? | Medulloblastoma |
| Which is the main hepatitis virus associated with Hepatocellular carcinoma? | Chronic Hepatitis C infection |
| What are the main labs to Hepatocellular carcinoma? | 1. Elevated AFP levels 2. Increased INR |
| Which GI tumor is seen with elevated levels of AFP? | Hepatocellular carcinoma |
| In HCC, is serum AFP elevated or decreased? | Elevated |
| What is a common complication in a person in chemotherapy due to a leukemia or lymphoma? | Tumor Lysis syndrome |
| What is a very likely cause of death in people with Tumor Lysis syndrome (TLS)? | Cardiac arrhythmias |
| What causes the arrhythmias in Tumor Lysis syndrome? | Excess serum K+ and Low Ca2+ in blood, which lead to weakness and cardiac arrhythmias |
| Is TLS seen with hyper- or Hypokalemia? | Hyperkalemia |
| What are the main electrolyte abnormalities produced by Tumor Lysis syndrome? | 1. Hyperkalemia 2. Hypocalcemia 3. Hyperuricemia |
| What arthritis condition is often seen with Tumor Lysis syndrome? | Gout due to excess uric acid, which then causes renal failure |
| What are the treatment options for Tumor Lysis syndrome? | Allopurinol and Rasburicase |
| Which ocular condition is treated with Bevacizumab? | Wet Macular degeneration |
| What is the MOA of Bevacizumab? | Monoclonal antibody that inhibits VEGF |
| What Growth Factor (GF) is targeted by Bevacizumab? | VEGF |
| Which anticancer drug is known to be a monoclonal antibody to VEGF? | Bevacizumab |
| What is the function of VEGF? | Promotion of blood vessel proliferation, expansion, and overexpression. |
| What is commonly used to treat Wet Macular degeneration? | Bevacizumab |
| What is a possible and suspected nephrogenic condition that involves fever, rash and deteriorating renal function after antibiotic use? | Acute Interstitial nephritis |
| What is Acute Interstitial Nephritis? | Pattern of renal injury usually associated with an abrupt deterioration in renal function characterized histopathologically by inflammation and edema of the renal interstitium |
| What are the most common antibiotics that cause AIN? | Penicillins, Cephalosporins, and Sulfonamides |
| What is expected to be found in the urine sample of AIN? | WBC casts and Eosinophilia |
| A urine sample with WBC casts and eosinophils should raise suspicion of what renal condition? | Acute Interstitial nephritis |
| What important characteristic is seen in histological examination of Squamous cell cancer of the skin? | Keratinization |
| Squamous cell cancer of the skin is: | Locally invasive skin cancer; rarely metastasizes |
| Squamous cancer of skin is more common in the upper or lower lip? | Lower lip |
| Which type of skin cancer is often seen in the Upper lip are? | Basal cell carcinoma |
| Which type of skin cancer is seen in the lower lip most commonly, Basal cell or Squamous cell cancer of the skin? | Squamous cell carcinoma |
| What is the gross description of Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin? | Scaly, ulcerated lesion with irregular borders |
| Basal cell or Squamous cell carcinoma of the skins is associated with telangiectasias? | Basal cell carcinoma |
| What are common associated conditions of Squamous cell cancer of the skin? | 1. Immunosuppression 2. Chronic non-healing wounds 3. Occasionally arsenic exposure |
| A patient has been exposed to arsenic, which type of skin cancer is more commonly to develop? | Squamous cell carcinoma |
| What is the key lesion or feature fo Squamous cell skin cancer? | Ulcerative red lesions |
| What is a common dermatologic condition to Squamous cell skin caner? | Actinic keratosis |
| What is Actinic Keratosis? | A scaly plaque, which is a precursor of Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin |
| What are the risk factors for breast cancer? | 1. Increased estrogen exposure 2. Family Hx in first-degree relatives 3. Obesity 4. African descent |
| What are examples of conditions that lead to an increased Estrogen exposure in females? | 1. Early menarche 2. Late menopause |
| What is the most common of all breast cancers? | Invasive ductal cancer |
| Of all the breast cancer types, which has the worst prognosis? | Inflammatory breast cancer |
| What is the clinical presentation of Gastric adenocarcinoma? | Decreased weight, abdominal pain, and early satiety |
| What are some common metastasis sites of Gastric cancer? | 1. Periumbilical node ==> Sister Mary Joseph node 2. Left Supraclavicular adenopathy ====> Virchow node |
| Where is the "Sister Mary Joseph node" located? | Periumbilical |
| What cancer is associated with "Sister Mary Joseph node"? | Gastric adenocarcinoma |
| What is the name of the tumor that travels (primary tumor) from the stomach to the Ovary? | Krukenberg tumor |
| Krukenberg tumor goes from the _______________ to the ___________. | Stomach --------> Ovaries |
| What is a common and severe renal complication usually happening 2-3 weeks after an episode of self-resolving strep throat infection? | Postinfectious (strep) glomerulonephritis |
| PSGN is what type of hypersensitivity reaction? | Immune-mediated type III |
| PSGN is a type I, II, III, or IV hypersensitivity reaction? | Type III |
| What is the MCC of Intraparenchymal hemorrhage? | Systemic hypertension |
| Signs and symptoms seen in Intraparenchymal hemorrhage? | Headache, vomiting, decreased level of concionciness,and increased ICP |
| What type of cerebral hemorrhage is due to rupture of a berry aneurysm? | Subarachnoid hemorrhage |
| PCOS is associated with development of what type of cerebral hemorrhage? | Subarachnoid hemorrhage |
| Hypertensive vasculopathy often leads to what type of cerebral hemorrhage? | Intraparenchymal hemorrhage |
| Where is the blood seen the CT of a intraparenchymal hemorrhage? | Parenchyma and ventricles |
| Where is the blood collected or seen in a CT of a Subarachnoid hemorrhage? | Near circle of willis, cisternae, and fissures |
| What is the pathogenesis of Primary dysmenorrhea? | Involves myometrial stimulation via Prostaglandin release at menses |
| How is Primary dysmenorrhea commonly presented? | Painful menses, caused by uterine contraction to decrease blood loss resulting in ischemic pain |
| What is the usual treatment for pain caused by Primary dysmenorrhea? | NSAIDs |
| What is the definition of Executive function? | Ability to organize and perform tasks |
| What test is usually performed to test Executive function? | Clock drawing test |
| How is a deficit to Executive functioning commonly presented? | 1. Decreased working memory 2. Decreased inhibition (impulsivity) 3. Decreased emotional control |
| Craniopharyngiomas: | Account for 80-90% of neoplasm arising in the pituitary region |
| What is the MC supratentorial tumor of childhood? | Craniopharyngiomas |
| How are Craniopharyngiomas commonly presented? | 1. Elevated ICP --> early morning headaches, Nausea, and Vomit 2. Endocrine dysfunction --> Increased thirst an urination due to diabetes insipidus and stunted growth 3. Visual disturbances |
| Description of a cluster headache: | Severe, recurrent, and unilateral headache with conjunctival injection, lacrimation, rhinorrhea, and transient Horner syndrome |
| Which type of headache is seen with transient Horner syndrome? | Cluster headache |
| Cluster headaches are commonly bilateral or unilateral? | Unilateral |
| Unilateral, severe headache, that causes rhinorrhea, lacrimation, and red eyes. | Cluster headache |
| What is the prophylaxis medication for Cluster headaches? | Verapamil |
| What is used as treating acute episodes of cluster headaches? | Sumatriptan and 100% oxygen |
| When is Verapamil used in headache? | Prophylaxis of Cluster headaches |
| What is another name for Kartagener syndrome? | Primary Ciliary dyskinesia |
| What is the deficit leading to Kartagener syndrome? | Dynein arm defect that results in subfertility and infertility, in women and men, respectively. |
| What cardiac condition is characteristic of Kartagener syndrome? | Dextrocardia |
| Dynein arm defect. Dx? | Kartagener syndrome |
| What are Dynein arms? | Heavy changs in colis and stems that attach from a microtubule pari iwithni the axoneme of cilia or flagella toward and adjacent pair |
| Multiple Myeloma is characterized by: | Clonal proliferation of plasma cells that produce monoclonal immunoglobulin |
| What lung condition is often seen with Multiple Myeloma? | Lobar pneumonia with consolidation of the lower lobes |
| What is a common and dangerous complication of Aortic dissection? | Cardiac tamponade |
| What are common symptoms of Aortic dissection? | 1. Tearing chest pain, radiating to the back 2. Asymmetric pulses |
| What causes the asymmetric pulses seen in Aortic dissection? | Involvement of the aortic arch or possibly the descending aorta |
| Which vessels are involved in cases that produce asymmetric pulses? | Aortic arch and/or descending aorta |
| Stone obstruction of the Common Bile duct | Choledochlithliasis |
| What are the 3 clinical features of Choledocholithliasis? | 1. RUQ pain 2. Jaundice 3. Cholestatic Pattern of Liver test results |
| What are the main measurement or levels measured in Liver testing? | ALP, AST/ALT, and bilirubin |
| What liver test result is grossly elevated in cholestatic patterns? | ALP |
| Lab results: - Grossly elevated ALP - Elevated bilirubin - Mild elevation/Normal ALT/AST Represents what liver test pattern? | Cholestatic |
| What liver test is the most elevated in a Hepatitis? | Grossly elevated AST/ALT, compared to ALP |
| What is the sign that indicates Cholecystitis? | (+) Murphy sign |
| What condition is dx with a (+) Murphy sign? | Cholecystitis |
| What is the Murphy sign? | Pain upon inspiration, when the inflamed gallbladder comes into contact with the examiner's hand |
| Placenta attaches to myometrium without penetrating it. Dx? | Placenta accreta |
| What is a common cause of Post-partum bleeding? | Placenta accreta, in case that a vaginal delivery was attempted |
| MM is caused by: | Neoplastic proliferation of monoclonal plasma cells that produce large amounts of IgG, resulting in elevated levels of serum proteins |
| What causes the appearance of Bence-Jones proteins in urine in a patient with MM? | Large amounts of IgG produced by neoplastic plasma cells |
| Where do UMN have their cell bodies? | Cortex and brainstem |
| Where do UMN synapse? | Ganglia of LMNs at the Anterior Horn |
| What is mainly modulated by UMNs? | Voluntary control and reflexes of skeletal muscle |
| UMN lesion is seen in damage to the: | Neurons PROXIMAL to the Anterior Horn of the Spinal cord |
| Are UMN proximal or distal to the Anterior Horn of the Spinal cord? | Proximal |
| Are LMN proximal or distal to the Anterior Horn of the Spinal cord? | Distal |
| Which, LMN or UMN, are proximal to the Anterior Horn of the Spinal cord? | UMN |
| What is the MC presentation, in respect to clinical symptoms, of Sickle cell trait? | Generally benign |
| What is the abbreviation used in Sickle cell trait? | HbSA |
| Autoimmune demyelinating disease that most often occurs in women in their 20s and 30s. | Multiple Sclerosis |
| What are common symptoms of Multiple Sclerosis? | Optic neuritis, INO, and nonspecific neurologic deficits (numbness, tingling, and weakness) |
| What are the two main causes of Duodenal ulcers? | H. pylori infection and chronic use of NSAIDs |
| Besides H. pylori and NSAIDs, what is a common environmental factor that causes Duodenal ulcers? | Tobacco smoking |
| What is the Chvostek sign? | Facial muscle twitch that occurs on tapping over CN VII on the cheek, and is an specific finding of Hypocalcemia. |
| What electrolyte level produces a (+) Chvostek sign? | Hypocalcemia |
| Which GI condition is often associated with a (+) Chvostek sign? | Acute pancreatitis |
| What causes hypocalcemia in acute pancreatitis? | Sequestration of Calcium secondary to intraperitoneal saponification |
| A person with an acute event of pancreatitis, is expected to also have a positive _______________ sign. | Chvostek sign |
| Which virus is associated with CNS lymphomas? | EBV |
| What population is often seen with solitary CNS lymphomas? | Immunocompromised (AIDS) |
| EBV is: | - Herpes virus (HHV-4) - Infects B cells through the CD21 receptor |
| What cells are infected by EBV? | B cells |
| How can EBV infect B cells? | Through CD21 receptor attachment |
| How do EBV cause development of lymphomas in AIDS patient? | Viral protein within B-cells inhibitor apoptosis, promote proliferation, and have protective mechanism to go unrecognized by cytotoxic T-cells |
| What is produced by Type II pneumocytes? | Surfactant |
| What is the function of surfactant? | Decrease alveolar surface tension |
| Histological description of Type II pneumocytes: | Cuboidal non-ciliated epithelial cells |
| Which respiratory cells are cuboidal, nonciliated epithelial cells? | Type II pneumocytes |
| What are the immunohistochemical stains for SLL? | (+) CD5 and (+) CD23 |
| Which malignancy is seen with (+) CD5 and (+) CD23? | SLL |
| Preeclampsia is characterized by: | Hypertension, proteinuria, and edema after 20 weeks of gestation |
| What are the complications of Preeclampsia? | 1. HELLP syndrome 2. Eclampsia/ seizure 3. Acute kidney injury |
| What is the treatment of Pre-eclampsia? | 1. Antihypertensives 2. IV Magnesium sulfate (to prevent seizures) 3. Delivery of fetus |
| What is an important cause of Dilated Cardiomyopathy (DCM)? | Autoimmune cardiac myocytes |
| What is the Trousseau syndrome? | Migratory thrombophlebitis seen in advanced Pancreatic tumors |
| What is an important factor leading to development of the Trousseau syndrome? | Tissue factor |
| What is caused by the liberation of tissue factor and seen in Pancreatic cancer? | Trousseau syndrome |
| What is the Hepatorenal syndrome? | Progressive form of renal failure caused by a reduction in GFR due to declining liver function |
| How is the kidney anatomy affecte in Hepatorenal syndrome? | Unaffected |
| Which liver-renal condition is seen with normal size and shape of kidneys? | Hepatorenal syndrome |
| What is Cachexia? | Chronic condition in which the muscles weaken and waste |
| What are some cytokines involved in Cachexia? | TNF-alpha, IL-1, IL-6, and C5a |
| What are some actions in which TNF-a, IL-1, IL-6, and C5a cytokines are involved? | Fever, weight loss, and recruitment of the late phase cytokines |
| What is a possible consequence of chronic alcoholism? | Alcoholic Cerebellar degeneration |
| What are some characteristics of Alcoholic cerebellar degeneration? | Gait impairment, and later cause dysarthria, intermittent diplopia and blurred vision |
| What is the association in fetus with mothers with a n elevated AFP? | Open NTDs |
| Which CSF maternal level leads to development of Open NTDs? | Elevated AFP |
| What are some common Open NTDs? | Meningocele, Mielomeningocele, encephalocele, and anencephaly. |
| Spina bifida oculate is seen with ________________ levels of AFP. | Normal |
| Which is the only Open NTD seen with a normal level of AFP in the mother? | Spina bifida oculta |
| How are NTDs prevented? | Adequate intake of Folic acid by the mother during pregnancy |
| What are common causes of intestinal obstruction in neonates? | Intestinal atresias |
| What is a common proximal intestinal atresia associated with Down syndrome? | Duodenal atresia |
| What is the cause of Duodenal atresias? | Failure of recanalization of the GI tract during embryogenesis |
| Failure of recanalization of the GI tract during embryogenesis is the main cause of: | Duodenal atresia |
| What intestinal atresia is associated with Down syndrome? | Duodenal atresia |
| How is a duodenal atresia commonly presented? | Quickly after birth with intractable emesis |
| How is renal perfusion maintained in patients with bilateral renal artery stenosis? | Kidneys are highly dependent of AT II levels in order to maintain renal perfusion |
| Which enzyme is particularly vital in renal perfusion in patients with bilateral RAS? | AT II |
| Which medications are not contraindicated but must be used with extreme caution in patients with bilateral RAS? | ACE-inhibitors |
| How is Basal cell carcinoma of the skin presented? | Pink or Flesh-colored pearly papules, on sun-exposed skin that can be locally invasive, but virtually never metastatic |
| What is the histological description of Basal cell carcinoma of the skin? | Purely basaloid population with minimal stromal response, areas of palisading nuclei, and small fusiform with litter cytoplasm |
| Palisading nuclei is seen in which type of skin cancer? | Basal cell carcinoma |
| What thromboembolic condition is often associated with Pancreatic cancer? | DVTs (pulmonary embolism) |
| What are the classic signs of Pancreatic cancer? | 1. Weight loss 2. Painless jaundice 3. Migratory thrombophlebitis |
| The presence of Trosseum syndrome and other Pancreatic cancer symptoms raise the risk for: | Hypercoagulopathy leading to development of DVTs |
| What thyroid condition is a self-limiting disease that follows a Flu-like illness? | Subacute thyroiditis |
| How is Subacute thyroiditis thyroid gland presented? | Tender and largedc |
| Is the goiter in Subacute thyroiditis painful or non-painful? | Painful |
| What are the findings of the bx of a Subacute thyroiditis thyroid gland sample? | Inflammatory infiltrate with multinucleated giant cells |
| Which is the mature defense mechanism, Repression or Suppression? | Suppression |
| Immature or Mature self defence mechanism. Repression? | Immature |
| Ego defense mechanism defined by consciously withholding negative thoughts or feelings. | Suppression |
| If a person deliberately avoids and/or withholds negative feelings or thoughts, by changing topics or avoiding such discussions, such action is known as _________________. | Suppression |
| Subconsciously withholding negative thoughts or feelings. | Repression |
| What conditions is known to develop UMNs and LMNs deficits? | Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) |
| What parts of the Spinal cord are affected by ALS? | Anterior horn and Corticospinal tracts |
| Which condition is known to affect anterior horn and corticospinal tracts? | Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) |
| What lab measures are characteristically elevated by Vitamin B12 deficiency? | Methylmalonic acid and Homocysteine |
| What type of anemia is developed by Vitamin B12 deficiency? | Megaloblastic anemia |
| ACTH is elevated or decreased by Primary Adrenal insufficiency? | Elevated |
| Which autoimmune condition is characterized by low levels of 11-deoxycortisol and cortisol, and elevated ACTH? | Primary Adrenal insufficiency |
| What causes in Addison disease the elevated levels of ACTH? | Atrophic adrenal glands cannot respond to ACTH |
| How does ARDS affect End-Diastolic filling pressure and PCWP? | Unaffected |
| List of ARDS clinical associations: | 1. Diffuse, pulmonary infiltration CXR 2. Hypoxemia, increased A-a gradient, and decreased lung compliance 3. Increased pulmonary arterial pressure |
| What is the MCC of Prerenal azotemia? | Hypoperfusion of the kidneys, which can be secondary to hypovolemia as a result of bleeding. |
| What is the urine osmolarity of Prerenal azotemia? | > 500 mOsm/kg |
| Urine sodium in prerenal azotemia is: | < 20 mEq/L |
| If the Fractional excretion of Na+ in prerenal azotemia < 1% or >2%? | < 1% |
| A BUN;Cr ratio > 20 indicates what type of renal injury? | Prerenal azotemia |
| Granulomatosis with polyangiitis is (+) for: | c-ANCA |
| (+) c-ANCA vasculitis. Dx? | Granulomatosis with polyangiitis |
| What are some features or Granulomatosis with polyangiitis vasculitis? | 1. (+) c-ANCA 2. Necrotizing granulomas i the lungs and upper airways 3. Necrotizing glomerulonephritis |
| Which vasculitis is known to develop necrotizing granulomas in lungs and Upper airways, and necrotizing glomerulonephritis? | Granulomatosis with polyangiitis |
| Which malignancies are associated with the appearance of Ferruginous bodies? | Bronchogenic carcinoma and Mesothelioma |
| Which is more common to occur Mesothelioma or Bronchogenic carcinoma? | Bronchogenic carcinoma |
| What is an important and key histological finding in Bronchogenic carcinoma and Mesothelioma? | Ferruginous bodies |
| What are histological features or Whipple disease? | Presence of numerous Foamy macrophages in the lamina propria of the small intestine |
| What type of stain is used in identifying the foamy (vacuolated) macrophages of Whipple disease? | Hematoxylin and Eosin stain |
| TIBC in Hemochromatosis is: | Decreased |
| What causes the decrease of TIBC in Hemochromatosis? | Downregulation and saturation of Transferrin |
| In Primary Adrenal insufficiency, ACTH is: | Elevated , due to absence of negative feedback by Cortisol |
| Another name for IgA nephropathy? | Buerger disease |
| What disease is seen with IgA immune-complex deposits in the mesangium as seen with IF? | Buerger disease |
| Which nephropathy occurs concurrently with an URI tract infection? | Buerger disease |
| What is the typical ratio of ALT and AST in alcoholic patients? | AST 2:1 ALT |
| If the level of AST is nearly twice the level of ALT is safe to suspect cirrhosis due to: | Alcoholism |
Created by:
rakomi
Popular USMLE sets